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  • What's the deal with the hidden Throw when catching a ThreadAbortException?

    - by priehl
    I'm going through a book of general c# development, and I've come to the thread abort section. The book says something along the lines that when you call Thread.Abort() on another thread, that thread will throw a ThreadAbortException, and even if you tried to supress it it would automatically rethrow it, unless you did some bs that's generally frowned upon. Here's the simple example offered. using System; using System.Threading; public class EntryPoint { private static void ThreadFunc() { ulong counter = 0; while (true) { try { Console.WriteLine("{0}", counter++); } catch (ThreadAbortException) { // Attempt to swallow the exception and continue. Console.WriteLine("Abort!"); } } } static void Main() { try { Thread newThread = new Thread(new ThreadStart(EntryPoint.ThreadFunc)); newThread.Start(); Thread.Sleep(2000); // Abort the thread. newThread.Abort(); // Wait for thread to finish. newThread.Join(); } catch (Exception e) { Console.WriteLine(e.ToString()); } } } The book says: When your thread finishes processing the abort exception, the runtime implicitly rethrows it at the end of your exception handler. It’s the same as if you had rethrown the exception yourself. Therefore, any outer exception handlers or finally blocks will still execute normally. In the example, the call to Join won’t be waiting forever as initially expected. So i wrapped a try catch around the Thread.Abort() call and set a break point, expecting it to hit this, considering the text says "any outer exception handlers or finally blocks will still execute normally". BUT IT DOES NOT. I'm racking my brain to figure out why. Anyone have any thoughts on why this isn't the case? Is the book wrong? Thanks in advance.

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  • Java: Inputting text from a file using split

    - by 00PS
    I am inputting an adjacency list for a graph. There are three columns of data (vertex, destination, edge) separated by a single space. Here is my implementation so far: FileStream in = new FileStream("input1.txt"); Scanner s = new Scanner(in); String buffer; String [] line = null; while (s.hasNext()) { buffer = s.nextLine(); line = buffer.split("\\s+"); g.add(line[0]); System.out.println("Added vertex " + line[0] + "."); g.addEdge(line[0], line[1], Integer.parseInt(line[2])); System.out.println("Added edge from " + line[0] + " to " + line[1] + " with a weight of " + Integer.parseInt(line[2]) + "."); } System.out.println("Size of graph = " + g.size()); Here is the output: Added vertex a. Added edge from a to b with a weight of 9. Exception in thread "main" java.lang.NullPointerException at structure5.GraphListDirected.addEdge(GraphListDirected.java:93) at Driver.main(Driver.java:28) I was under the impression that line = buffer.split("\\s+"); would return a 2 dimensional array of Strings to the variable line. It seemed to work the first time but not the second. Any thoughts? I would also like some feedback on my implementation of this problem. Is there a better way? Anything to help out a novice! :)

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  • Better way to compare neighboring cells in matrix

    - by HyperCube
    Suppose I have a matrix of size 100x100 and I would like to compare each pixel to its direct neighbor (left, upper, right, lower) and then do some operations on the current matrix or a new one of the same size. A sample code in Python/Numpy could look like the following: (the comparison 0.5 has no meaning, I just want to give a working example for some operation while comparing the neighbors) import numpy as np my_matrix = np.random.rand(100,100) new_matrix = np.array((100,100)) my_range = np.arange(1,99) for i in my_range: for j in my_range: if my_matrix[i,j+1] > 0.5: new_matrix[i,j+1] = 1 if my_matrix[i,j-1] > 0.5: new_matrix[i,j-1] = 1 if my_matrix[i+1,j] > 0.5: new_matrix[i+1,j] = 1 if my_matrix[i-1,j] > 0.5: new_matrix[i-1,j] = 1 if my_matrix[i+1,j+1] > 0.5: new_matrix[i+1,j+1] = 1 if my_matrix[i+1,j-1] > 0.5: new_matrix[i+1,j-1] = 1 if my_matrix[i-1,j+1] > 0.5: new_matrix[i-1,j+1] = 1 This can get really nasty if I want to step into one neighboring cell and start from it to do a similar task... Do you have some suggestions how this can be done in a more efficient manner? Is this even possible?

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  • JSF getter methods called BEFORE beforePhase fires

    - by Bill Leeper
    I got a recommendation to put all data lookups in the beforePhase for a given page, however, now that I am doing some deeper analysis it appears that some getter methods are being called before the beforePhase is fired. It became very obvious when I added support for a url parameter and I was getting NPEs on objects that are initialized in the beforePhase call. Any thoughts? Something I have set wrong. I have this in my JSP page: <f:view beforePhase="#{someController.beforePhaseSummary}"> That is only the 5th line in the JSP file and is right after the taglibs. Here is the code that is in the beforePhaseSummary method: public void beforePhaseSummary(PhaseEvent event) { logger.debug("Fired Before Phase Summary: " + event.getPhaseId()); if (event.getPhaseId() == PhaseId.RENDER_RESPONSE) { HttpServletRequest request = (HttpServletRequest)FacesContext.getCurrentInstance().getExternalContext().getRequest(); if (request.getParameter("application_id") != null) { loadApplication(Long.parseLong(request.getParameter("application_id"))); } /* Do data fetches here */ } } The logging output above indicates that an event is fired. The servlet request is used to capture the url parameters. The data fetches gather data. However, the logging output is below: 2010-04-23 13:44:46,968 [http-8080-4] DEBUG ...SomeController 61 - Get Permit 2010-04-23 13:44:46,968 [http-8080-4] DEBUG ...SomeController 107 - Getting UnsubmittedCount 2010-04-23 13:44:46,984 [http-8080-4] DEBUG ...SomeController 61 - Get Permit 2010-04-23 13:44:47,031 [http-8080-4] DEBUG ...SomeController 133 - Fired Before Phase Summary: RENDER_RESPONSE(6) The logs indicate 2 calls to the getPermit method and one to getUnsubmittedCount before the beforePhase is fired.

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  • Choosing a Job based on languages?

    - by Alan
    How often is language the deciding factor for selecting a job? Many of us here are well versed in many languages, C++, Java, C#, and likely have many other languages under our belt for the right occassion (really any occasion is the right occasion for Python, AMIRITE?), so this isn't so much a question of choosing a job that is a good fit based on your skill set. Rather, if you are skilled with most languages, do you pick your favorite, or do you follow the money (given the tight economy). I'm considering coming out of retirement, and have started to look around and what's available. Over the years, I've moved towards C# and Python; many jobs in the area are looking for .NET developers, but there are plenty of them that do not. I cut my teef on C++, consider myself adept at the language, and know my way around a Java. But I find myself really digging what they're doing to C#, and I have always loved python. So when I see an interesting job req that is looking for C++ developers; it gives me 2nd thoughts. Not because I can't cut it, but because I don't know if I want to go back to C++. Even if the work will be interesting, how important is the language to you?

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  • How Do I Parse this XML in Java SAX?

    - by Tiever
    I am using the SAX parser in java. I am not sure: 1) What classes I need for this kind of situation? I am guessing I want to have Classes for (please let me know if my thoughts are completely wrong): -FosterHome (Contains an Arraylist of Family and Child) -Family (Contains ArrayList for Child and a String fro parent) -Child (contains ArrayList for ChildID) 2) How to handle this situation in the startElement and endElement method What complicates is due to the ChildID appearing in both the ChildList and the RemainingChildList. Appreciate anyone who can help me out. <FosterHome> <Orphanage>Happy Days Daycare</Orphanage> <Location>Apple Street</Location> <Families> <Family> <Parent>Adams</ParentID> <ChildList> <ChildID>Child1</ChildID> <ChildID>Child2</ChildID> </ChildList> </Family> <Family> <Parent>Adams</ParentID> <ChildList> <ChildID>Child3</ChildID> <ChildID>Child4</ChildID> </ChildList> </Family> </Families> <RemainingChildList> <ChildID>Child5</ChildID> <ChildID>Child6</ChildID> </RemainingChildList> </FosterHome>

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  • How do I get my Windows Forms application to use a custom main function and get access to the Applic

    - by burble
    Hi Folks I am trying to use a Main () function in a class to control the program flow in my vb .net Windows Forms application. I have added a splash screen component and a login screen, and customised my main sdi form. I have set the startup form to be my main function in the Application Page of the Project Designer, and everything seems to work fine(ish). However, I would like to use: Me.MinimumSplashScreenDisplayTime = 5000 to ensure that the splash screen is visible, but it is not recognised by the system unless I tick the Enable Application Framework check box on the Project Designer. If I do this, on startup the program ignores the login and splash screens and all my customisation and just displays a default Form1, even though I have also specified my splash screen in the AF dropdown list. Of course, there are alternative ways to delay a splash screen, such as putting the thread temporarily to sleep (which didn't seem to work), but I suspect that there are other things in the AF that I may want to use. Any suggestions on how I can get round this please, and get a sensible means of controlling program flow? Any thoughts on the best overall structure for organising program flow would also be helpful too. I am concerned both about going down a Microsoft or an alternative custom route that may cause me problems later, as the application becomes more complex. Thankses.

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  • Using jquery to change checkbox status

    - by Jeff
    Hi everyone! I have a list of items that have checkboxes associated with them, and the items are beneath a list header, which also has a checkbox(for db purposes only) which is actually hidden from view. I need to make it so that if any of the checkboxes beneath the header is checked, then the header checkbox is checked as well. BUT I also need to make it so that if all of the checkboxes are unchecked, then the header one is unchecked...how hard is this going to be? This is how I have it setup now: if($('.childCheckBox').is(":checked")){ $('#parentBox').attr('checked', true); } Now I am thinking that if I were to do something where I add an else if clause: else if($('.proBox2').is(not)(":checked"){ alert("uncheck parent"); } But I don't know the correct syntax for is-not, or isn't, or even if there is anything that will do that. Are there any thoughts out there? I need the box to check if one is selected and uncheck if none are selected. Thanks!!

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  • One-to-many Associations Empty Columns Issue (Ext on Rails)

    - by Joe
    I'm playing with rewriting part of a web application in Rails + Ext. However, I'm having trouble getting an associated models' name to display in the grid view. I've been able to successfully convert several models and arrange the views nicely using tabs and Ext's layout helpers. However, I'm in the middle of setting up an association -- I've followed along with Jon Barket's tutorial on how to do this using Ext -- and I've made all the Rails and JS changes suggested (with appropriate name changes for my models,) the result being that the combo box is now being correctly populated with the names of the associated models, and changes are actually written correctly to database, BUT the data doesn't show up in the column, it's just empty. However, the correct data is there in the 'detail' view. Really just wondering if anyone else ran into this, or had any thoughts on what could be happening. Definitely willing to post code if requested; just note that (AFAIK) my changes follow the tutorial pretty closely. Thanks in advance! UPDATE: Alright, slight progress - kind of. I can get the associated model id # displaying properly -- just by modifying the column model slightly. But I can't get the virtual attribute displayed in the main table (in Jon's example it's country_name.) It still goes blank when I change the data source for that column from dataIndex: 'model[associated_model_id]' to dataIndex: 'virtual_attributes[associated_model_name]' ANOTHER UPDATE: Bump. Has NOBODY here tried integrating Ext with Rails?

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  • Modeling Buyers & Sellers in a Rails Ecommerce App

    - by MikeH
    I'm building a Rails app that has Etsy.com style functionality. In other words, it's like a mall. There are many buyers and many sellers. I'm torn about how to model the sellers. Key facts: There won't be many sellers. Perhaps less than 20 sellers in total. There will be many buyers. Hopefully many thousands :) I already have a standard user model in place with account creation and roles. I've created a 'role' of 'seller', which the admin will manually apply to the proper users. Since we'll have very few sellers, this is not an issue. I'm considering two approaches: (1) Create a 'store' model, which will contain all the relevant store information. Products would :belong_to :store, rather than belonging to the seller. The relationship between the user and store models would be: user :has_one store. My main problem with this is that I've always found has_one associations to be a little funky, and I usually try to avoid them. The app is fairly complex, and I'm worried about running into a cascade of problems connected to the has_one association as I get further along into development. (2) Simply include the relevant 'store' information as part of the user model. But in this case, the store-related db columns would only apply to a very small percentage of users since very few users will also be sellers. I'm not sure if this is a valid concern or not. It's very possible that I'm thinking about this incorrectly. I appreciate any thoughts. Thanks.

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  • vectorize is indeterminate

    - by telliott99
    I'm trying to vectorize a simple function in numpy and getting inconsistent behavior. I expect my code to return 0 for values < 0.5 and the unchanged value otherwise. Strangely, different runs of the script from the command line yield varying results: sometimes it works correctly, and sometimes I get all 0's. It doesn't matter which of the three lines I use for the case when d <= T. It does seem to be correlated with whether the first value to be returned is 0. Any ideas? Thanks. import numpy as np def my_func(d, T=0.5): if d > T: return d #if d <= T: return 0 else: return 0 #return 0 N = 4 A = np.random.uniform(size=N**2) A.shape = (N,N) print A f = np.vectorize(my_func) print f(A) $ python x.py [[ 0.86913815 0.96833127 0.54539153 0.46184594] [ 0.46550903 0.24645558 0.26988519 0.0959257 ] [ 0.73356391 0.69363161 0.57222389 0.98214089] [ 0.15789303 0.06803493 0.01601389 0.04735725]] [[ 0.86913815 0.96833127 0.54539153 0. ] [ 0. 0. 0. 0. ] [ 0.73356391 0.69363161 0.57222389 0.98214089] [ 0. 0. 0. 0. ]] $ python x.py [[ 0.37127366 0.77935622 0.74392301 0.92626644] [ 0.61639086 0.32584431 0.12345342 0.17392298] [ 0.03679475 0.00536863 0.60936931 0.12761859] [ 0.49091897 0.21261635 0.37063752 0.23578082]] [[0 0 0 0] [0 0 0 0] [0 0 0 0] [0 0 0 0]]

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  • Constant isolate of hovered elements

    - by nailer
    I'm trying to make an element isolation tool, where: All elements are shaded Selected elements, while hovered, are not shaded Originally, looking at the image lightbox implementations, I thought of appending an overlay to the document, then raising the z-index of elements upon hover. However this technique does not work in this case, as the overlay blocks additional mouse hovers: $(function() { window.alert('started'); $('<div id="overlay" />').hide().appendTo('body').fadeIn('slow'); $("p").hover( function () { $(this).css( {"z-index":5} ); }, function () { $(this).css( {"z-index":0} ); } ); Alternatively, JQueryTools has an 'expose' and 'mask' tool, which I have tried with the code below: $(function() { $("a").click(function() { alert("Hello world!"); }); // Mask whole page $(document).mask("#222"); // Mask and expose on however / unhover $("p").hover( function () { $(this).expose(); }, function () { $(this).mask(); } ); }); Hovering does not work unless I disable the initial page masking. Any thoughts of how best to achieve this, with plain JQuery, JQuery tools expose, or some other technique? Thankyou!

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  • How string accepting interface should look like?

    - by ybungalobill
    Hello, This is a follow up of this question. Suppose I write a C++ interface that accepts or returns a const string. I can use a const char* zero-terminated string: void f(const char* str); // (1) The other way would be to use an std::string: void f(const string& str); // (2) It's also possible to write an overload and accept both: void f(const char* str); // (3) void f(const string& str); Or even a template in conjunction with boost string algorithms: template<class Range> void f(const Range& str); // (4) My thoughts are: (1) is not C++ish and may be less efficient when subsequent operations may need to know the string length. (2) is bad because now f("long very long C string"); invokes a construction of std::string which involves a heap allocation. If f uses that string just to pass it to some low-level interface that expects a C-string (like fopen) then it is just a waste of resources. (3) causes code duplication. Although one f can call the other depending on what is the most efficient implementation. However we can't overload based on return type, like in case of std::exception::what() that returns a const char*. (4) doesn't work with separate compilation and may cause even larger code bloat. Choosing between (1) and (2) based on what's needed by the implementation is, well, leaking an implementation detail to the interface. The question is: what is the preffered way? Is there any single guideline I can follow? What's your experience?

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  • jQuery .load() call doesn't execute javascript in loaded html file

    - by Mike
    This seems to be a problem related to Safari only. I've tried 4 on mac and 3 on windows and am still having no luck. What I'm trying to do is load an external html file and have the Javascript that is embedded execute. The code I'm trying to use is this: $("#myBtn").click(function() { $("#myDiv").load("trackingCode.html"); }); trackingCode.html looks like this (simple now, but will expand once/if I get this working): <html> <head> <title>Tracking HTML File</title> <script language="javascript" type="text/javascript"> alert("outside the jQuery ready"); $(function() { alert("inside the jQuery ready"); }); </script> </head> <body> </body> </html> I'm seeing both alert messages in IE (6 & 7) and Firefox (2 & 3). However, I am not able to see the messages in Safari (the last browser that I need to be concerned with - project requirements - please no flame wars). Any thoughts on why Safari is ignoring the Javascript in the trackingCode.html file? Eventually I'd like to be able to pass Javascript objects to this trackingCode.html file to be used within the jQuery ready call, but I'd like to make sure this is possible in all browsers before I go down that road. Thanks for your help!

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  • Automatically Organize Tags in Tax/Folksonomy

    - by Rob Wilkerson
    I'm working on a process that will perform natural language processing (NLP) on one--and potentially several--of our content rich sites. What I'd like to do once the NLP is complete is to automatically organize the output (generally a set of terms that you might think of as tags given the prevalence of that metaphor) into some kind of standard or generally accepted organizational structure. In a perfect world, I'd really like this to be crowd sourced under the folksonomy concept (as opposed to a taxonomy) since the ultimate goal is to target/appeal to real people rather than "domain experts", but I'm open to ideas and best practices. For the obvious purpose of scalability, I'd like to automate the population of this tax/folksonomy so that "some guy" in the team/organization isn't responsible for looking at a bunch of words (with or without context) and arbitrarily fleshing out the contextual components of the tree. I have a few ideas for doing this that require some research to establish viability, but I have exactly zero practical experience with this sort of thing so the ideas really just boil down to stuff I made up that might perform some role in accomplishing the task. Imagining that others have vastly more experience with this sort of thing, I'm hoping that I can stand on your shoulders. Thanks for your thoughts and insights.

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  • What is the fastest (to access) struct-like object in Python?

    - by DNS
    I'm optimizing some code whose main bottleneck is running through and accessing a very large list of struct-like objects. Currently I'm using namedtuples, for readability. But some quick benchmarking using 'timeit' shows that this is really the wrong way to go where performance is a factor: Named tuple with a, b, c: >>> timeit("z = a.c", "from __main__ import a") 0.38655471766332994 Class using __slots__, with a, b, c: >>> timeit("z = b.c", "from __main__ import b") 0.14527461047146062 Dictionary with keys a, b, c: >>> timeit("z = c['c']", "from __main__ import c") 0.11588272541098377 Tuple with three values, using a constant key: >>> timeit("z = d[2]", "from __main__ import d") 0.11106188992948773 List with three values, using a constant key: >>> timeit("z = e[2]", "from __main__ import e") 0.086038238242508669 Tuple with three values, using a local key: >>> timeit("z = d[key]", "from __main__ import d, key") 0.11187358437882722 List with three values, using a local key: >>> timeit("z = e[key]", "from __main__ import e, key") 0.088604143037173344 First of all, is there anything about these little timeit tests that would render them invalid? I ran each several times, to make sure no random system event had thrown them off, and the results were almost identical. It would appear that dictionaries offer the best balance between performance and readability, with classes coming in second. This is unfortunate, since, for my purposes, I also need the object to be sequence-like; hence my choice of namedtuple. Lists are substantially faster, but constant keys are unmaintainable; I'd have to create a bunch of index-constants, i.e. KEY_1 = 1, KEY_2 = 2, etc. which is also not ideal. Am I stuck with these choices, or is there an alternative that I've missed?

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  • Using sortable_element in Rails on a list generated by a find()

    - by Eli B.
    Hey all, I'm trying to use the scriptaculous helper method sortable_element to implement a drag-and-drop sortable list in my Rails application. While the code for the view looks pretty simple, I'm really not quite sure what to write in the controller to update the "position" column. Here's what I've got in my view, "_show_related_pgs.erb": <ul id = "interest_<%=@related_interest.id.to_s%>_siblings_list"> <%= render :partial => "/interests/peer_group_map", :collection => @maps, :as => :related_pg %> </ul> <%= sortable_element("interest_"+@related_interest.id.to_s+"_siblings_list", :url => {:action => :resort_related_pgs}, :handle => "drag" ) %> <br/> And here's the relevant line from the partial, "interests/peer_group_map.erb" <li class = "interest_<%=@related_interest.id.to_s%>_siblings_list" id = "interest_<%=related_pg.interest_id.to_s%>_siblings_list_<%=related_pg.id.to_s%>"> The Scriptaculous UI magic works fine with these, but I am unsure as to how to change the "position" column in the db to reflect this. Should I be passing the collection @maps back to the controller and tell it to iterate through that and increment/decrement the attribute "position" in each? If so, how can I tell which item was moved up, and which down? I couldn't find anything specific using Chrome dev-tools in the generated html. After each reordering, I also need to re-render the collection @maps since the position is being printed out next to the name of each interest (I'm using it as the "handle" specified in my call to sortable_element() above) - though this should be trivial. Any thoughts? Thanks, -e

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  • Whether to put method code in a VB.Net data storage class, or put it in a separate class?

    - by Alan K
    TLDR summary: (a) Should I include (lengthy) method code in classes which may spawn multiple objects at runtime, (b) does doing so cause memory usage bloat, (c) if so should I "outsource" the code to a class that is loaded only once and have the class methods call that, or alternatively (d) does the code get loaded only once with the object definition anyway and I'm worrying about nothing? ........ I don't know whether there's a good answer to this but if there is I haven't found it yet by searching in the usual places. In my VB.Net (2010 if it matters) WinForms project I have about a dozen or so class objects in an object model. Some of these are pretty simple and do little more than act as data storage repositories. The ones further up the object model, however, have an increasing number of methods. There can be a significant number of higher level objects in use though the exact number will be runtime dependent so I can't be more precise than that. As I was writing the method code for one of the top level ones I noticed that it was starting to get quite lengthy. Memory optimisation is something of a lost art given how much memory the average PC has these days but I don't want to make my application a resource hog. So my questions for anyone who knows .Net way better than I do (of which there will be many) are: Is the code loaded into memory with each instance of the class that's created? Alternatively is it loaded only once with the definition of the class, and all derived objects just refer to that definition? (I'm not really sure how that could be possible given that, for example, event handlers can be assigned dynamically, but no harm asking.) If the answer to the first one is yes, would it be more efficient to write the code in a "utility" object which is loaded only once and called from the real class' methods? Any thoughts appreciated.

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  • Same Origin issue with web service call

    - by Wjdavis5
    My web server runs at http://mypc.com:80 ` Given the following snip: $(window).load(function () { var myURL = "http://mypc.com:8000/PSOCharts/service/HighChart_ColumnChart/i"; $.getJSON(myURL) .done(function(data) {alert(data);}); }); I am running to this error: XMLHttpRequest cannot load http://mypc.com:8000/PSOCharts/service/HighChart_ColumnChart/i. Origin http://mypc.com is not allowed by Access-Control-Allow-Origin. I understand why (I think) b/c my webservice runs at port 8000 which is different from what IIS is running on (port 80). I thought I could get around by using jsonp (according to the jQuery documentation here So I copied the example of making a call to the flickr api, but it isnt working. Any thoughts/sugggestions? UPDATE Ok so my request is being made now: var myURL = "http://192.168.1.104:8000/PSOCharts/service/HighChart_ColumnChart/i?jsoncallback=?"; $.ajax({ url :myURL, dataType: "jsonp", success: function(data) {a(data)} , error: function(){alert("err");}, }); But I am continually hitting the error function, here is what's being returned: [1.4,54.43,49.39,93.23] Now I'm assuming this is b/c the response text doesnt contain any type of callback here is the part of the interface I'm calling: [WebInvoke(Method = "GET", RequestFormat = WebMessageFormat.Json, ResponseFormat = WebMessageFormat.Json, UriTemplate = "HighChart_ColumnChart/{id}?callback={cb}")] List<double> HighChart_ColumnChart(string id,string cb); Here is the actual function being called: public List<double> HighChart_ColumnChart(string id,string cb) { var z = new List<double>(); z.Add(1.4); z.Add(54.43); z.Add(49.39); z.Add(93.23); return z; } when I debug, the CB param is something like : "jQuery19108121746340766549_1372630643878". How do I modify the code to wrap it correctly? Thanks for the help thus far!

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  • Beginner MVC question - Correct approach to render out a List and details?

    - by fizzer
    I'm trying to set up a page where I display a list of items and the details of the selected item. I have it working but wonder whether I have followed the correct approach. I'll use customers as an example I have set the aspx page to inherit from an IEnumerable of Customers. This seems to be the standard approach to display the list of items. For the Details I have added a Customer user control which inherits from customer. I think i'm on the right track so far but I was a bit confused as to where I should store the id of the customer whose details I intend to display. I wanted to make the id optional in the controller action so that the page could be hit using "/customers" or "customers/1" so I made the arg optional and stored the id in the ViewData like this: public ActionResult Customers(string id = "0") { Models.DBContext db = new Models.DBContext(); var cList = db.Customers.OrderByDescending(c => c.CustomerNumber); if (id == "0") { ViewData["CustomerNumber"] = cList.First().CustomerNumber.ToString(); } else { ViewData["CustomerNumber"] = id; } return View("Customers", cList); } I then rendered the User control using RenderPartial in the front end: <%var CustomerList = from x in Model where x.CustomerNumber == Convert.ToInt32(ViewData["CustomerNumber"]) select x; Customer c = (Customer)CustomerList.First(); %> <% Html.RenderPartial("Customer",c); %> Then I just have an actionLink on each listed item: <%: Html.ActionLink("Select", "Customers", new { id = item.CustomerNumber })% It all seems to work but as MVC is new to me I would just be interested in others thoughts on whether this is a good approach?

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  • batch: replace a line in a text file

    - by sasamimasas
    I'm trying to replace this line: # forward-socks5 / 127.0.0.1:9050 . with this one: forward-socks5 / 127.0.0.1:9050 . this line belongs to a config file that has to be enabled (UN-commented) by deleting the # sign from the beginning and I could not thought of a better way other than replacing the line with another without the # sign. any other thoughts or ways would be very useful. btw, the spaces before the text are there also.I have pasted the text as it was in the original file. thanks in advance EDIT: I have somehow managed to do the line addition and removing using two peaces of code that I've found. my only problem is that the following code removes every bit of exclamation in the output file! @echo off :Variables SETLOCAL ENABLEDELAYEDEXPANSION set InputFile=config.txt set OutputFile=config-new.txt set _strFind=# forward-socks5 / 127.0.0.1:9050 . set _strInsert= forward-socks5 / 127.0.0.1:9050 . set i=0 :Replace for /f "usebackq tokens=1 delims=[]" %%A in (`find /n "%_strFind%" "%InputFile%"`) do (set _strNum=%%A) for /f "usebackq delims=" %%A in ("%InputFile%") do ( set /a i = !i! + 1 echo %%A>>"%OutputFile%" if [!i!] == [%_strNum%] (echo %_strInsert%>>"%OutputFile%") ) type %OutputFile% | findstr /i /v /c:"%_strFind%">config-new2.txt I was wondering if there is any way to do both the find/delete/add line in one step (not two steps as mine)...

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  • Invalid table view update with insertRowsAtIndexPaths:

    - by Crystal
    I'm having trouble with insertRowsAtIndexPaths:. I'm not quite sure how it works. I watched the WWDC 2010 video on it, but I'm still getting an error. I thought I was supposed to update the model, then wrap the insertRowsAtIndexPaths: in the tableView beginUpdates and endUpdates calls. What I have is this: self.customTableArray = (NSMutableArray *)sortedArray; [_customTableView beginUpdates]; [tempUnsortedArray enumerateObjectsUsingBlock:^(id obj, NSUInteger idx, BOOL *stop) { [sortedArray enumerateObjectsUsingBlock:^(id sortedObj, NSUInteger sortedIdx, BOOL *sortedStop) { if ([obj isEqualToString:sortedObj]) { NSIndexPath *newRow = [NSIndexPath indexPathForRow:sortedIdx inSection:0]; [_customTableView insertRowsAtIndexPaths:[NSArray arrayWithObject:newRow] withRowAnimation:UITableViewRowAnimationAutomatic]; *sortedStop = YES; } }]; }]; [_customTableView endUpdates]; customTableArray is my model array. sortedArray is just the sorted version of that array. When I run this code when I hit my plus button to add a new row, I get this error: Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInternalInconsistencyException', reason: 'Invalid update: invalid number of rows in section 0. The number of rows contained in an existing section after the update (2) must be equal to the number of rows contained in that section before the update (1), plus or minus the number of rows inserted or deleted from that section (2 inserted, 0 deleted) and plus or minus the number of rows moved into or out of that section (0 moved in, 0 moved out).' I'm not sure what I'm doing wrong. Thoughts? Thanks.

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  • Aggregating and displaying content from hundreds of RSS feeds

    - by Andrew LeClair
    I'd like to build a website that aggregates and displays content from hundreds of RSS feeds. The feeds will be from different sites: Twitter, Flickr, Tumblr, etc, so the content will be very heterogenous. In a perfect world — and this is more of a side issue — I would like to allow other people to help manage the list of feeds and assign tags to the content from each individual feed so that you can filter the items that are displayed. What I've tried so far: Google Feeds API – I thought this would be the answer, but unless I'm missing something, the FeedController will only output the collected feed content as separate lists. Is there any way to ask the Google Feeds API to aggregate and sort the content from many RSS feeds before displaying? Yahoo! Pipes – This also seemed like a good solution at first. I setup a Pipe that accesses a list of RSS feeds stored in a Google Doc spreadsheet and then aggregates the content. However, the output leaves a lot to be desired; Tumblr video posts, for example, only show a title and a permalink to the post, the embedded Youtube video is lost. PHP – I've seen this question, which looks like a good approach. I'm less proficient in PHP, so although I'm willing to learn, I'd ideally like to find a different approach. Any thoughts? Thanks.

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  • Automating Excel through the PIA makes VBA go squiffy.

    - by Jon Artus
    I have absolutely no idea how to start diagnosing this, and just wondered if anyone had any suggestions. I'm generating an Excel spreadsheet by calling some Macros from a C# application, and during the generation process it somehow breaks. I've got a VBA class containing all of my logging/error-handling logic, which I instantiate using a singleton-esque accessor, shown here: Private mcAppFramework As csys_ApplicationFramework Public Function AppFramework() As csys_ApplicationFramework If mcAppFramework Is Nothing Then Set mcAppFramework = New csys_ApplicationFramework Call mcAppFramework.bInitialise End If Set AppFramework = mcAppFramework End Function The above code works fine before I've generated the spreadsheet, but afterwards fails. The problem seems to be the following line; Set mcAppFramework = New csys_ApplicationFramework which I've never seen fail before. If I add a watch to the variable being assigned here, the type shows as csys_ApplicationFramework/wksFoo, where wksFoo is a random worksheet in the same workbook. What seems to be happening is that while the variable is of the right type, rather than filling that slot with a new instance of my framework class, it's making it point to an existing worksheet instead, the equivalent of Set mcAppFramework = wksFoo which is a compiler error, as one might expect. Even more bizarrely, if I put a breakpoint on the offending line, edit the line, and then resume execution, it works. For example, I delete the word 'New' move off the line, move back, re-type 'New' and resume execution. This somehow 'fixes' the workbook and it works happily ever after, with the type of the variable in my watch window showing as csys_ApplicationFramework/csys_ApplicationFramework as I'd expect. This implies that manipulating the workbook through the PIA is somehow breaking it temporarily. All I'm doing in the PIA is opening the workbook, calling several macros using Excel.Application.Run(), and saving it again. I can post a few more details if anyone thinks that it's relevant. I don't know how VBA creates objects behind the scenes or how to debug this. I also don't know how the way the code executes can change without the code itself changing. As previously mentioned, VBA has frankly gone a bit squiffy on me... Any thoughts?

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  • nextgen gallery order issue

    - by mro
    Hi, wonder if anyone can help. I think what I'm after won't be solved by any exsiting code in nextgen plugin (in wordpress) due to the custom way I'm using it hence I come to stackoverflow for some opnions. Bascially - I am only really using the admin of nextgen to work with the gallerys etc. The actual meat of the functionality I'm querying the nextgen DB's direct from my code, I would have loved to use the inbuilt gallerys in nextgen, but my spec specifics were so custom I couldn't. My issue is, I need to pull the images from the DB's in the order it is in the admin (ie if a user pulls the sort order around in the drag and drop area). I have noticed however this doesn't affect the image id order in the DB, and wouldn't expect it to - that would be some complex shifting around just to reorder everytime surely. So obviously when I query the DB the order it's looking at is when it was created, by image id, with my filtering on top. I'm wondering though if there is a way I can query that sort order that's determined in the admin somehow, then at least I could sort the array somehow in the code ? does next gen store it's user custom sort order somewhere ? Hope this makes sense :) any thoughts appreciated. Thanks

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