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  • UIViewController presentModalViewController: animated: doing nothing?

    - by ryyst
    Hi, I recently started a project, using Apple's Utility Application example project. In the example project, there's an info button that shows an instance of FlipSideView. If you know the Weather.app, you know what the button acts like. I then changed the MainWindow.xib to contain a scrollview in the middle of the window and a page-control view at the bottom of the window (again, like the Weather.app). The scrollview gets filled with instances of MainView. When I then clicked the info button, the FlipSideView would show, but only in the area that was previously filled by the MainView instance – this means that the page-control view on the bottom of the page still showed when the FlipSideView instance got loaded. So, I thought that I would simply add a UIViewController for the top-most window, which is the one declared inside the AppDelegate created along side with the project. So, I created a subclass of UIViewController, put an instance of it inside MainWindow.xib and connected it's view outlet to the UIWindow declared as window inside the app delegate. I also changed the button's action, so that it know sends a message to the MainWindowController instance. The message does get sent (I checked with NSLog() statements), but the FlipSideView doesn't get shown. Here's the relevant (?) code: FlipsideViewController *controller = [[FlipsideViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"FlipsideView" bundle:nil]; controller.delegate = self; controller.modalTransitionStyle = UIModalTransitionStyleFlipHorizontal; [self presentModalViewController:controller animated:YES]; [controller release]; Why's this not working? I've uploaded the entire project here for you to be able to see the whole thing. Thanks for help! -- Ry

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  • How does one get UI_USER_INTERFACE_IDIOM() to work with iPhone OS SDK < 3.2

    - by drootang
    Apple advises using the following code to detect whether running on an iPad or iPhone/iPod Touch: if (UI_USER_INTERFACE_IDIOM() == UIUserInterfaceIdiomPad) { // The device is an iPad running iPhone 3.2 or later. // [for example, load appropriate iPad nib file] } else { // The device is an iPhone or iPod touch. // [for example, load appropriate iPhone nib file] } The problem is that UI_USER_INTERFACE_IDIOM() and UIUserInterfaceIdiomPad are NOT defined in the SDKs priory to 3.2. This seems to completely defeat the purpose of such a function. They can only be compiled and run on iPhone OS 3.2 (iPhone OS 3.2 can only be run on iPad). So if you can use UI_USER_INTERFACE_IDIOM(), the result will always be to indicate an iPad. If you include this code and target OS 3.1.3 (the most recent iPhone/iPod Touch OS) in order to test your iPhone-bound universal app code, you will get compiler errors since the symbols are not defined in 3.1.3 or earlier. If this is the recommended-by-Apple approach to runtime device-detection, what am I doing wrong? Has anyone succeeded using this approach to device-detection?

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  • Setting values and display Text in Android Spinner

    - by kaibuki
    Hi, I need help in setting up value and display text in spinner. as per now I am populating my spinner by array adapter e.g mySpinner.setAdapter(myAdapter); and as far as I know after doing this the display text and the value of spinner at same position is same. The other attribute that I can get from spinner is the position on the item. now in my case I want to make spinner like the drop down box, which we have in .NET. which holds a text and value. where as text is displayed and value is at back end. so if I change drop down box , I can either use its selected text or value. but its not happening in android spinner case. For Example: Text Value Cat 10 Mountain 5 Stone 9 Fish 14 River 13 Loin 17 so from above array I am only displaying non-living objects text, and what i want is that when user select them I get there value i.e. like when Mountain selected i get 5 I hope this example made my question a bit more clear... thankx

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  • Share code between projects in tfs 2010

    - by Jimmy Engtröm
    Hi What is the best way to handle code sharing in TFS 2010? We have a couple of Visual studio projects that other Visual Studio projects use. ex: Shared Project Project 1 Solution -Shared Project -Project 1 Project Project 2 Solution -Shared Project -Project 2 Project Also we have Third party code for example: Third Party -Telerik --2009.1.402.35 --2009.02.0701.35 When I open my "Project 1" solution i want my shared code project to be included in that solution. (thats the way we work today). We basically have one TFS Project that contains all the code. Now we want to use it the "right" (?) way, We would like to have Project 1 and 2 in separate TFS solutions. If I for example makes sure we have all our project in the same structure on disk and just add the shared project to my Project 1 solution (even if the projects reside in two different TFS Projects) would that work with builds? How have you solved the problem, I guess we are not the only ones having shared code between projects? Cheers /Jimmy

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  • Multi tenant membership provider ASP.NET MVC

    - by Masna
    Hello, I'm building a multi-tenant app with ASP.NET MVC and have a problem with validating users. Situation I have: -a table with User(ID, Name, FirstName, Email) This table is made, so that a users who is registered in two tenants doesn't need to login again. -a table with Tentantuser(ID, TenantID, UserID (FK to table User), UserName, Loginname, Password, Active) This table contains de login en password for one tenant. Example: UserX is registered in TenantA and TenantB UserX logs in on TenantA, with his login and password for TenantA System verifies or login and password are correct in the table TenantUser System validates UserX which userID corresponds to the Id in the table User UserX goes to TenantB and is automatically logged in My problem: How can I create a custom Provider so I can check the login & password in a tenant? For example: public abstract bool ValidateUser(string username,string password); How can I say to my provider on which tenant the user is? How can I change this in something like: public overrides bool ValidateUser(string username,string password, string tenant); ? Or what is another way to solve this issue?

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  • Why can't I resolve ambiguity with Android.OS.Environment?

    - by C. Lang
    I'm trying to use Environment.(...) in my Xamarin app. It complains that "Environment is an ambiguous reference between System.Environment and Android.OS.Environment" I can fix it by using the fully qualified name System.Environment.(...) but not with Android.OS.Environment.(...). For example: // Obviously ambiguous with error above using System; using Android.OS; // ... // OnCreate uses Bundle also in Android.OS //... string path = Environment.GetFolderPath(Environment.SpecialFolder.Personal); // Can be fixed by prefixing Environment with "System." But I can't fix it with any variation of possibilities using Android.OS including removing it and explicitly using it. The auto-complete box only shows the Activities and "Resource" and not any of the classes. // Solution to be able to use Android's Environment using Android.OS; // same as above Java.IO.File storageDir = Environment.ExternalStorageDirectory; // Defaults to Android.OS but can still use "System.Environment.(...) // Of course not with this example, but with the one above; yes. // Why doesn't it work both ways? If I remove the using statement and // try to use Android.OS.Environment.(...) it complains // 'OS type or namespace doesn't not exist' The reason is prefixing with Android. is referring to MyAppName.App.Android. Why is that and is there a way to directly access Android.OS.(...)? I've tried Mono.Android.OS.(...).

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  • UI_USER_INTERFACE_IDIOM() does not work with iPhone OS SDK < 3.2

    - by drootang
    Apple advises using the following code to detect whether running on an iPad or iPhone/iPod Touch: if (UI_USER_INTERFACE_IDIOM() == UIUserInterfaceIdiomPad) { // The device is an iPad running iPhone 3.2 or later. // [for example, load appropriate iPad nib file] } else { // The device is an iPhone or iPod touch. // [for example, load appropriate iPhone nib file] } The problem is that UI_USER_INTERFACE_IDIOM() and UIUserInterfaceIdiomPad are NOT defined in the SDKs priory to 3.2. This seems to completely defeat the purpose of such a function. They can only be compiled and run on iPhone OS 3.2 (iPhone OS 3.2 can only be run on iPad). So if you can use UI_USER_INTERFACE_IDIOM(), the result will always be to indicate an iPad. If you include this code and target OS 3.1.3 (the most recent iPhone/iPod Touch OS) in order to test your iPhone-bound universal app code, you will get compiler errors since the symbols are not defined in 3.1.3 or earlier. If this is the recommended-by-Apple approach to runtime device-detection, what am I doing wrong? Has anyone succeeded using this approach to device-detection?

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  • Spring AOP AfterThrowing vs. Around Advice

    - by whiskerz
    Hey there, when trying to implement an Aspect, that is responsible for catching and logging a certain type of error, I initially thought this would be possible using the AfterThrowing advice. However it seems that his advice doesn't catch the exception, but just provides an additional entry point to do something with the exception. The only advice which would also catch the exception in question would then be an AroundAdvice - either that or I did something wrong. Can anyone assert that indeed if I want to catch the exception I have to use an AroundAdvice? The configuration I used follows: @Pointcut("execution(* test.simple.OtherService.print*(..))") public void printOperation() {} @AfterThrowing(pointcut="printOperation()", throwing="exception") public void logException(Throwable exception) { System.out.println(exception.getMessage()); } @Around("printOperation()") public void swallowException(ProceedingJoinPoint pjp) throws Throwable { try { pjp.proceed(); } catch (Throwable exception) { System.out.println(exception.getMessage()); } } Note that in this example I caught all Exceptions, because it just is an example. I know its bad practice to just swallow all exceptions, but for my current use case I want one special type of exception to be just logged while avoiding duplicate logging logic.

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  • Reducing WPF binding boilerplate with styles - updating the bindings themselves via styling?

    - by Eamon Nerbonne
    I'm still learning the WPF ropes, so if the following question is trivial or my approach wrong-headed, please do speak up... I'm trying to reduce boilerplate and it sounds like styles are a common way to do so. In particular: I've got a bunch of fairly mundane data-entry fields. The controls for these fields have various properties I'd like to set based on the target of the binding - pretty normal stuff. However, I'd also like to set properties of the binding itself in the style to avoid repetitiveness. For example: <TextBox Style="{StaticResource myStyle}"> <TextBox.Text> <Binding Path="..." Source="..." ValidatesOnDataErrors="True" ValidatesOnExceptions="True" UpdateSourceTrigger="PropertyChanged"> </Binding> </TextBox.Text> </TextBox> Now, is there any way to use styling - or some other technique to write the previous example somewhat like this: <TextBox Style="{StaticResource myStyle}" Text="{Binding Source=... Path=...}/> That is, is there any way to set all bindings that match a particular selection (here, on controls with the myStyle style) to validate data and to use a particular update trigger? Is it possible to template or style bindings themselves? Clearly, the second syntax is much, much shorter and more readable, and I'd love to be able to get rid of other similar boilerplate to keep my UI code comprehensible to myself :-).

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  • ASP.NET how to use __doPostBack from Custom JavaScript with Master/Content Pages

    - by harrije
    In a simple aspx page I can have a custom JavaScript function postback as described in http://www.xefteri.com/articles/show.cfm?id=18 The simple page uses a linkbutton: <asp:LinkButton id="CreateFile" runat="server" onclick="CreateFile_Click" /> with code behind that has the VB subroutine: Sub CreateFile_Click(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) and a Javascript custom function that does: __doPostBack('CreateFile',''); When I move the code to a content page with a corresponding master page the simple example no longer works. I'm aware that server control IDs are changed in the generated HTML when a master page is involved, and I'm using the correct IDs in the Javascript. As an example, for the LinkButton ID I use '<%=CreateFile.ClientID%' for the Javascript in the generated HTML. Never the less, I still can't figure out how to get postbacks from the Javascript when master pages are involved. More accurately, with a master page in the mix the code won't even compile but results in: 'CreateFile_Click' is not a member of 'ASP.testmaster_aspx' If I remove onclick="CreateFile_Click" from the LinkButton markup it compiles but does not work. Similary if onclick is removed from the simpler version without a master page it does not work either, as expected. Any input on how to get postback from a custom Javascript function when using master pages would be much appreciated.

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  • JQGrid datatype as Ajax function not getting called

    - by mraman
    Hi, JQGrid datatype as Ajax function not getting called. once i tried to debug using firebug, found out that those lines are not exectuced. please let me know the issue with my code. Thanks in advance. jQuery("#list").jqGrid({ //url:'example.xml', datatype: function() { $.ajax({ url: "example.xml", data: "{}", dataType: "xml", mtype: "GET", complete: function(jsondata, stat) { alert((jsondata.responseText)); if (stat == "success") { alert("ew"); } }, error : function () {alert("error")} }); }, colNames:['QueueName','SLA Associated', 'SLA met', 'SLA Breached', 'SLA MET %', 'SLA Breached %'], colModel :[ {name:'QueueName',index:'QueueName', width:150}, {name:'SLAAssociated',index:'SLAAssociated', width:150}, {name:'SLAmet',index:'SLAmet', width:150}, {name:'SLABreached',index:'SLABreached', width:150}, {name:'SLAMETPer',index:'SLAMETPer', width:150}, {name:'SLABreachedPer',index:'SLABreachedPer', width:150} ], pager: jQuery('#pager1'), rowNum:1, rowList:[5,10], imgpath: 'themes/basic/images' }); in Header i add as follows <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <link rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" media="screen" href="themes/basic/grid.css" /> <link rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" media="screen" href="themes/jqModal.css" /> <link rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" media="screen" href="css/report.css" /> <script src="jquery.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="jquery.jqGrid.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="js/jqModal.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="js/jqDnR.js" type="text/javascript"></script>

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  • Java (JSP): repeating the contentType header in a "sub-jsp"

    - by Webinator
    What happens when headers are repeated in a .jsp you include in another .jsp? For example if example.jsp starts with this: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <jsp:root version="2.0" xmlns:jsp="http://java.sun.com/JSP/Page"> <jsp:directive.page contentType="text/html; charset=UTF-8" /> <div class="content"> <jsp:include page="support-header.jsp"/> ... (it includes support-header.jsp) And then support-header.jsp starts also with this: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <jsp:root version="2.0" xmlns:jsp="http://java.sun.com/JSP/Page"> <jsp:directive.page contentType="text/html; charset=UTF-8" /> ... Is that a problem? Is it bad practice? What does concretely happen when you repeat several times a header that only corresponds to one header in the resulting .html page?

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  • Selectively suppress XML Code Comments in C#?

    - by Mike Post
    We deliver a number of assemblies to external customers, but not all of the public APIs are officially supported. For example, due to less than optimal design choices sometimes a type must be publicly exposed from an assembly for the rest of our code to work, but we don't want customers to use that type. One part of communicating the lack of support is not provide any intellisense in the form of XML comments. Is there a way to selectively suppress XML comments? I'm looking for something other than ignoring warning 1591 since it's a long term maintenance issue. Example: I have an assembly with public classes A and B. A is officially supported and should have XML documentation. B is not intended for external use and should not be documented. I could turn on XML documentation and then suppress warning 1591. But when I later add the officially supported class C, I want the compiler to tell me that I've screwed up and failed to add the XML documentation. This wouldn't occur if I had suppressed 1591 at the project level. I suppose I could #pragma across entire classes, but it seems like there should be a better way to do this.

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  • Trouble with ITextSharp - Converting XML to PDF

    - by AllenG
    Okay... I'm trying to use the most recent version of ITextSharp to turn an XML file into a PDF. It isn't working. The documentation on SourceForge doesn't seem to have kept up with the actual releases; the code in the provided example won't even compile under the newest version. Here is my test XML: <Remittance> <RemitHeader> <Payer>BlueCross</Payer> <Provider>Maricopa</Provider> <CheckDate>20100329</CheckDate> <CheckNumber>123456789</CheckNumber> </RemitHeader> <RemitDetail> <NPI>NPI_GOES_HERE</NPI> <Patient>Patient Name</Patient> <PCN>0034567</PCN> <DateOfService>20100315</DateOfService> <TotalCharge>125.57</TotalCharge> <TotalPaid>55.75</TotalPaid> <PatientShare>35</PatientShare> </RemitDetail> </Remittance> And here is the code I'm attempting to use to turn that into a PDF. Document doc = new Document(PageSize.LETTER, 36, 36, 36, 36); iTextSharp.text.pdf.PdfWriter.GetInstance(doc, new StreamWriter(fileOutputPath).BaseStream); doc.Open(); SimpleXMLParser.Parse((ISimpleXMLDocHandler)doc, new StreamReader(fileInputPath).BaseStream); doc.Close(); Now, I was pretty sure the (ISimpleXMLDocHandler)doc piece wasn't going to work, but I can't actually find anything in the source that both a) implements ISimleXMLDocHandler and b) will accept a standard XML document and parse it to PDF. FYI- I did try an older version which would compile using the example code from sourceforge, but it wasn't working either.

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  • How to pass SOAP headers into python SUDS that are not defined in WSDL file

    - by chrissygormley
    Hello, I have a camera on my network, I am trying to connect to it with suds but suds doesn't send all the information needed. I need to put extra soap headers not defined in the WSDL file so the camera can understand the message. All the headers are contained in a SOAP envelope and then the suds command be in the body of the message. I have checked the suds website and it says to pass in the headers like so: from suds.sax.element import Element client = client(url) ssnns = ('ssn', 'http://namespaces/sessionid') ssn = Element('SessionID', ns=ssnns).setText('123') client.set_options(soapheaders=ssn) result = client.service.addPerson(person) Now I am not sure how I would implement this, say for example I have the below header: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <SOAP-ENV:Envelope xmlns:SOAP-ENV="http://www.w3.org/2003/05/soap-envelope" xmlns:SOAP ENC="http://www.w3.org/2003/05/soap-encoding" xmlns:p1="http://www.website.org/ver10/p/wsdl"> .<SOAP-ENV:Header> Using this or a similar example does anyone know hos I would get this passed into the soap command so my camera understands? Thanks

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  • Autocompletebox text in Silverlight

    - by Ciaran
    I'm having trouble getting the autocomplete box in System.Windows.Controls.Input working as I wish. When I start typing the dropdown section that displays the filtered list doesn't show the property that I'm binding to, it shows the class name instead. So in the example below, when I type in my - instead of showing 'My Name' it shows MyNamespace.Person. However, when I select the item from the autocomplete list, it displays the FullName property in the textbox. I'm sure I'm just missing a simple autocomplete box property somewhere but I can't see it. Example code: public class Person { public string FirstName { get; set; } public string LastName { get; set; } public string FullName { get { return string.Format("{0} {1}", FirstName, LastName); } } } In my xaml code behind I create some Person objects and store them in a list and bind that list to an autocomplete box List<Person> people = new List<Person>(); people.Add(new Person { FirstName = "My", LastName = "Name" }); people.Add(new Person { FirstName = "Fernando", LastName = "Torres" }); acbNames.ItemsSource = people; My xaml: <my:AutoCompleteBox Name="acbNames" ValueMemberPath="FullName" /> /* after entering 'my', auto complete displays 'MyNamespace.Person' instead of 'My Name', but displays 'My Name' after selecting the item from the list */

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  • How to get only one rounded corner with border-radius htc hack and MSIE v:roundrect?

    - by aarreoskari
    I have a problem with partially rounded corners. See the first working example for most browsers: .box { display: block; width: 100px; height: 100px; border: 1px solid black; background-color: yellow; -moz-border-radius-bottomright: 10px; -webkit-border-bottom-right-radius: 10px; } You can see that only bottom right corner should be rounded. Natural choice would be adding a border-radius.htc hack inside a conditional IE statement: .box { border-bottom-right-radius: 20px; behavior:url(border-radius.htc); } This is not working because border-radius.htc file is only accessing normal border-radius value (this.currentStyle['border-radius']). VML used by the hack is roundrect which only supports one percentage value for arcsize. So I was wondering if there is any other way around the problem by using some other VML elements? Another problem is that htc-file doesnt's support borders but that can be fixed with VML's stroked attribute. Nifty corners for example doesn't work well with corners at all.

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  • WiX/Windows Installer: Re-install to a new folder

    - by vitalyval
    1. I am using WiX for creating installer and would like to implement the following behaviour: If a user launches msi installer for the product and the product already installed, then wizard works similar to pure (first time) installation with exception of some things (e.g. license aggrement screen is omitted). The wizard should allow for example to change installation folder, select whether to place desktop shortcut,... I tried to do: <Publish Event="ReinstallMode" Value="amus"><![CDATA[INSTALL_MODE = "Change"]]></Publish> <Publish Event="Reinstall" Value="ALL"><![CDATA[INSTALL_MODE = "Change"]]></Publish> But after installation completes: the product is in the same folder, where it was installed first time; desktop icon in the same state as it was after first time install. MSDN says: "Do not attempt to change the target directory path if some components that use the path are already installed for the current user or for a different user". Is there a way to re-install in another forlder and add/remove desktop icon in re-install? 2. Is this normal to use the same KeyPath for some components? For example the same registry values for DeskTop and Programs menu shortcuts? MSDN says: "Two components cannot share the same key path value". But compiling and verifying goes OK. And I did not discover problems using the same keypaths.

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  • How to use Android's CacheManager?

    - by punnie
    I'm currently developing an Android application that fetches images using http requests. It would be quite swell if I could cache those images in order to improve to performance and bandwidth use. I came across the CacheManager class in the Android reference, but I don't really know how to use it, or what it really does. I already scoped through this example, but I need some help understanding it: /core/java/android/webkit/gears/ApacheHttpRequestAndroid.java Also, the reference states: "Network requests are provided to this component and if they can not be resolved by the cache, the HTTP headers are attached, as appropriate, to the request for revalidation of content." I'm not sure what this means or how it would work for me, since CacheManager's getCacheFile accepts only a String URL and a Map containing the headers. Not sure what the attachment mentioned means. An explanation or a simple code example would really do my day. Thanks! Update Here's what I have right now. I am clearly doing it wrong, just don't know where. public static Bitmap getRemoteImage(String imageUrl) { URL aURL = null; URLConnection conn = null; Bitmap bmp = null; CacheResult cache_result = CacheManager.getCacheFile(imageUrl, new HashMap()); if (cache_result == null) { try { aURL = new URL(imageUrl); conn = aURL.openConnection(); conn.connect(); InputStream is = conn.getInputStream(); cache_result = new CacheManager.CacheResult(); copyStream(is, cache_result.getOutputStream()); CacheManager.saveCacheFile(imageUrl, cache_result); } catch (Exception e) { return null; } } bmp = BitmapFactory.decodeStream(cache_result.getInputStream()); return bmp; }

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  • AndroMDA maven code generation and JPA Annotations

    - by ArsenioM
    I am using the AndroMDA plugin for maven to generate code from an uml diagram made in MagicDraw. When the code is generated, AndroMDA desings the JPA annotation for the persitence layer. I think that at the compilation process AndroMDA uses Naming Strategies to determine the Table and Column names for the DataBase. I want to determine how AndroMDA desings this JPA annotations, because I need to display this DataBase names based on the UML entity and atributtes names. I was regarding if there is an API of AndroMDA that I could use to do this by giving it the uml diagram. Or at least, to know the Naming Strategies used by AndroMDA to achive that. AndroMDA at the compilation process design the JPA annotations for the Entities, Attributes, etc that are written in my java classes under a series of rules that exist within the EJB3 cartridge of AndroMDA. (The further Database is created using those JPA annotations). I want to create a program that returns me the same Table and Attributes names wrote on the JPA annotations, by giving it the .xml file of the uml diagram of a project. I was hoping that I could take advantage of the EJB3 cartridge to generate those Tables and Attribute names with my program. One way could be using an API of AndroMDA that do this(if it exits), or at least, by implementing the same rules used by the EJB3 cartridge for that matter. To be more illustrative, For example: If in my uml model I have an Entity called “CompanyGroup”, AndroMDA would generate the following code for the class definition: @javax.persistence.Entity @javax.persistence.Table(name = "COMPANY_GR") Public class CompanyGroup implements java.io.Serializable, Comparable< CompanyGroup This is just an example (not a real case), but nevertheless, the way how AndroMDA do the translation from “CompanyGroup” to “COMPANY_GR” has to be specified somewhere. Hope this explanation is useful enough. Thanks.

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  • DomainDataSource DataPager with silverlight 3 DataGrid & .Net RIA Services

    - by Dennis Ward
    I have a simple datagrid example with silverlight 3, and am populating it with the .NET ria services using a DomainDataSource along with a DataPager declaratively (nothing in the code-behind), and am experiencing this problem: The LoadSize is 30, and the Page size is 15, and when the page is loaded, the 1st and 2nd page appear correctly, but when I go beyond the 2nd page, nothing shows up in the grid. This used to work in the silverlight 3 beta with the Mix 2009 preview of .NET Ria services, and I've got a really simple example and have verified that the Service on the web project gets called to load a new batch, but the grid doesn't show any data. Can anyone shed any light as to why grid displays data only for the initial load of data and not subsequent batches from the pager? Here's my xaml: <riaControls:DomainDataSource x:Name="ArtistSource" QueryName="GetArtist" AutoLoad="True" LoadSize="30" PageSize="15"> <riaControls:DomainDataSource.DomainContext> <domain:AdminContext /> </riaControls:DomainDataSource.DomainContext> </riaControls:DomainDataSource> <data:DataGrid Grid.Row="1" x:Name="ArtistDataGrid" ItemsSource="{Binding Data, ElementName=ArtistSource}"> </data:DataGrid> <StackPanel Grid.Row="2"> <data:DataPager Source="{Binding Data, ElementName=ArtistSource}" /> </StackPanel>

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  • WPF: Is it possible to add or modify bindings via styles or something similar?

    - by Eamon Nerbonne
    I'm still learning the WPF ropes, so if the following question is trivial or my approach wrong-headed, please do speak up... I'm trying to reduce boilerplate and it sounds like styles are a common way to do so. In particular: I've got a bunch of fairly mundane data-entry fields. The controls for these fields have various properties I'd like to set based on the target of the binding - pretty normal stuff. However, I'd also like to set properties of the binding itself in the style to avoid repetitiveness. For example: <TextBox Style="{StaticResource myStyle}"> <TextBox.Text> <Binding Path="..." Source="..." ValidatesOnDataErrors="True" ValidatesOnExceptions="True" UpdateSourceTrigger="PropertyChanged"> </Binding> </TextBox.Text> </TextBox> Now, is there any way to use styling - or some other technique to write the previous example somewhat like this: <TextBox Style="{StaticResource myStyle}" Text="{Binding Source=... Path=...}/> That is, is there any way to set all bindings that match a particular selection (here, on controls with the myStyle style) to validate data and to use a particular update trigger? Is it possible to template or style bindings themselves? Alternatively, is it possible to add the binding in the style itself? Clearly, the second syntax is much, much shorter and more readable, and I'd love to be able to get rid of other similar boilerplate to keep my UI code comprehensible to myself :-).

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  • Telerik RADGrid - linq and updating

    - by Dave
    Hi Telerik's RADGrid, basing on their example on http://demos.telerik.com/aspnet-ajax/grid/examples/dataediting/programaticlinqupdates/defaultcs.aspx Problem: I can insert and delete, however updating doesn't work. No error trapped. Data just doesn't change. From the code below it looks like Telerik Grid is doing some kung-fu behind the scenes to wire things up. I can't see the db receiving any update statements. Question: anything obvious I'm missing? protected void RadGrid1_UpdateCommand(object source, GridCommandEventArgs e) { var editableItem = ((GridEditableItem) e.Item); var raceId = (Guid) editableItem.GetDataKeyValue("RaceID"); //retrive entity form the Db var race = DbContext.races.Where(n => n.raceid == raceId).FirstOrDefault(); if (race != null) { //update entity's state editableItem.UpdateValues(race); try { //submit chanages to Db DbContext.SubmitChanges(); } catch (Exception f) { ShowErrorMessage(f); } } } Think I may have to go back to their example.. get their db.. and attack from that point of view. Cheers!

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  • Access variables between nested JSP tags

    - by user308053
    I would like to exchange information between two nested JSP tagx artifacts. To give an example: list.jspx <myNs:table data="${myTableData}"> <myNs:column property="firstName" label="First Name"/> <myNs:column property="lastName" label="Last Name"/> </myNs:table> Now, the table.tagx is supposed to display the data columns as defined in the nested column tags. The question is how do I get access to the values of the property and label attributes of the nested column tags from the table tag. I tried jsp:directive.variable but that seems only to work to exchange information between a jsp and a tag, but not between nested tags. Note, I would like to avoid using java backing objects for both the table and the column tags at all. I would also like to know how I can access an attribute defined by a parent tag (in this example I would like to access the contents of the data attribute in table.tagx from column.tagx). So it boils down to how can I access variables between nested JSP tags which are purely implemented through the tag definitions themselves (no Java TagHandler implementation desired)?

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  • Wicket: stateless AJAX behaviors in stateful page without serialization

    - by mschayna
    I have pretty stateful page with plenty of AJAX components. Most of these components have behaviors, which renders JavaScript code for calling AJAX requests to Java code. Because page isn't stateless, each request causes serialization of page. So far so good. But some of these AJAX requests doesn't change page ever, so serialization of page isn't necessary. For example it is forward caching data for (home-brewed) datagrid component. These requests are calling continuously and serialization of page during each request causes delays. There are some projects for stateless wicket components out there, e.g. wicket-stateless, but it solves another situation -- request of stateless components are processed on new instances of stateless pages. I want to process requests on existing stateful page instance but without serialization. I have tried to implement this in my own RequestCycleProcessor.resolve(), but I hung on searching for page from requestParameters because Session.getPage() always touches page and it causes serialization after request processing. Is there any example, idea, whatever for implementing this in Wicket? Hope it's understandable :)

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