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  • Use multiple inheritance to discriminate useage roles?

    - by Arne
    Hi fellows, it's my flight simulation application again. I am leaving the mere prototyping phase now and start fleshing out the software design now. At least I try.. Each of the aircraft in the simulation have got a flight plan associated to them, the exact nature of which is of no interest for this question. Sufficient to say that the operator way edit the flight plan while the simulation is running. The aircraft model most of the time only needs to read-acess the flight plan object which at first thought calls for simply passing a const reference. But ocassionally the aircraft will need to call AdvanceActiveWayPoint() to indicate a way point has been reached. This will affect the Iterator returned by function ActiveWayPoint(). This implies that the aircraft model indeed needs a non-const reference which in turn would also expose functions like AppendWayPoint() to the aircraft model. I would like to avoid this because I would like to enforce the useage rule described above at compile time. Note that class WayPointIter is equivalent to a STL const iterator, that is the way point can not be mutated by the iterator. class FlightPlan { public: void AppendWayPoint(const WayPointIter& at, WayPoint new_wp); void ReplaceWayPoint(const WayPointIter& ar, WayPoint new_wp); void RemoveWayPoint(WayPointIter at); (...) WayPointIter First() const; WayPointIter Last() const; WayPointIter Active() const; void AdvanceActiveWayPoint() const; (...) }; My idea to overcome the issue is this: define an abstract interface class for each usage role and inherit FlightPlan from both. Each user then only gets passed a reference of the appropriate useage role. class IFlightPlanActiveWayPoint { public: WayPointIter Active() const =0; void AdvanceActiveWayPoint() const =0; }; class IFlightPlanEditable { public: void AppendWayPoint(const WayPointIter& at, WayPoint new_wp); void ReplaceWayPoint(const WayPointIter& ar, WayPoint new_wp); void RemoveWayPoint(WayPointIter at); (...) }; Thus the declaration of FlightPlan would only need to be changed to: class FlightPlan : public IFlightPlanActiveWayPoint, IFlightPlanEditable { (...) }; What do you think? Are there any cavecats I might be missing? Is this design clear or should I come up with somethink different for the sake of clarity? Alternatively I could also define a special ActiveWayPoint class which would contain the function AdvanceActiveWayPoint() but feel that this might be unnecessary. Thanks in advance!

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  • avoiding enums as interface identifiers c++ OOP

    - by AlasdairC
    Hi I'm working on a plugin framework using dynamic loaded shared libraries which is based on Eclipse's (and probally other's) extension-point model. All plugins share similar properties (name, id, version etc) and each plugin could in theory satisfy any extension-point. The actual plugin (ie Dll) handling is managed by another library, all I am doing really is managing collections of interfaces for the application. I started by using an enum PluginType to distinguish the different interfaces, but I have quickly realised that using template functions made the code far cleaner and would leave the grunt work up to the compiler, rather than forcing me to use lots of switch {...} statements. The only issue is where I need to specify like functionality for class members - most obvious example is the default plugin which provides a particular interface. A Settings class handles all settings, including the default plugin for an interface. ie Skin newSkin = settings.GetDefault<ISkin>(); How do I store the default ISkin in a container without resorting to some other means of identifying the interface? As I mentioned above, I currently use a std::map<PluginType, IPlugin> Settings::defaults member to achieve this (where IPlugin is an abstract base class which all plugins derive from. I can then dynamic_cast to the desired interface when required, but this really smells of bad design to me and introduces more harm than good I think. would welcome any tips edit: here's an example of the current use of default plugins typedef boost::shared_ptr<ISkin> Skin; typedef boost::shared_ptr<IPlugin> Plugin; enum PluginType { skin, ..., ... } class Settings { public: void SetDefault(const PluginType type, boost::shared_ptr<IPlugin> plugin) { m_default[type] = plugin; } boost::shared_ptr<IPlugin> GetDefault(const PluginType type) { return m_default[type]; } private: std::map<PluginType, boost::shared_ptr<IPlugin> m_default; }; SkinManager::Initialize() { Plugin thedefault = g_settings.GetDefault(skinplugin); Skin defaultskin = boost::dynamic_pointer_cast<ISkin>(theskin); defaultskin->Initialize(); } I would much rather call the getdefault as the following, with automatic casting to the derived class. However I need to specialize for every class type. template<> Skin Settings::GetDefault<ISkin>() { return boost::dynamic_pointer_cast<ISkin>(m_default(skin)); }

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  • hibernate annotation- extending base class - values are not being set - strange error

    - by gt_ebuddy
    I was following Hibernate: Use a Base Class to Map Common Fields and openjpa inheritance tutorial to put common columns like ID, lastModifiedDate etc in base table. My annotated mappings are as follow : BaseTable : @MappedSuperclass public abstract class BaseTable { @Id @GeneratedValue @Column(name = "id") private int id; @Column(name = "lastmodifieddate") private Date lastModifiedDate; ... Person table - @Entity @Table(name = "Person ") public class Person extends BaseTable implements Serializable{ ... Create statement generated : create table Person (id integer not null auto_increment, lastmodifieddate datetime, name varchar(255), primary key (id)) ; After I save a Person object to db, Person p = new Person(); p.setName("Test"); p.setLastModifiedDate(new Date()); .. getSession().save(p); I am setting the date field but, it is saving the record with generated ID and LastModifiedDate = null, and Name="Test". Insert Statement : insert into Person (lastmodifieddate, name) values (?, ?) binding parameter [1] as [TIMESTAMP] - <null> binding parameter [2] as [VARCHAR] - Test Read by ID query : When I do hibernate query (get By ID) as below, It reads person by given ID. Criteria c = getSession().createCriteria(Person.class); c.add(Restrictions.eq("id", id)); Person person= c.list().get(0); //person has generated ID, LastModifiedDate is null select query select person0_.id as id8_, person0_.lastmodifieddate as lastmodi8_, person0_.name as person8_ from Person person0_ - Found [1] as column [id8_] - Found [null] as column [lastmodi8_] - Found [Test] as column [person8_] ReadAll query : //read all Query query = getSession().createQuery("from " + Person.class.getName()); List allPersons=query.list(); Corresponding SQL for read all select query select person0_.id as id8_, person0_.lastmodifieddate as lastmodi8_, person0_.name as person8_ from Person person0_ - Found [1] as column [id8_] - Found [null] as column [lastmodi8_] - Found [Test] as column [person8_] - Found [2] as column [id8_] - Found [null] as column [lastmodi8_] - Found [Test2] as column [person8_] But when I print out the list in console, its being more weird. it is selecting List of Person object with ID fields = all 0 (why all 0 ?) LastModifiedDate = null Name fields have valid values I don't know whats wrong here. Could you please look at it? FYI, My Hibernate-core version : 4.1.2, MySQL Connector version : 5.1.9 . In summary, There are two issues here Why I am getting All ID Fields =0 when using read all? Why the LastModifiedDate is not being inserted?

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  • Is this a problem typically solved with IOC?

    - by Dirk
    My current application allows users to define custom web forms through a set of admin screens. it's essentially an EAV type application. As such, I can't hard code HTML or ASP.NET markup to render a given page. Instead, the UI requests an instance of a Form object from the service layer, which in turn constructs one using a several RDMBS tables. Form contains the kind of classes you would expect to see in such a context: Form= IEnumerable<FormSections>=IEnumerable<FormFields> Here's what the service layer looks like: public class MyFormService: IFormService{ public Form OpenForm(int formId){ //construct and return a concrete implementation of Form } } Everything works splendidly (for a while). The UI is none the wiser about what sections/fields exist in a given form: It happily renders the Form object it receives into a functional ASP.NET page. A few weeks later, I get a new requirement from the business: When viewing a non-editable (i.e. read-only) versions of a form, certain field values should be merged together and other contrived/calculated fields should are added. No problem I say. Simply amend my service class so that its methods are more explicit: public class MyFormService: IFormService{ public Form OpenFormForEditing(int formId){ //construct and return a concrete implementation of Form } public Form OpenFormForViewing(int formId){ //construct and a concrete implementation of Form //apply additional transformations to the form } } Again everything works great and balance has been restored to the force. The UI continues to be agnostic as to what is in the Form, and our separation of concerns is achieved. Only a few short weeks later, however, the business puts out a new requirement: in certain scenarios, we should apply only some of the form transformations I referenced above. At this point, it feels like the "explicit method" approach has reached a dead end, unless I want to end up with an explosion of methods (OpenFormViewingScenario1, OpenFormViewingScenario2, etc). Instead, I introduce another level of indirection: public interface IFormViewCreator{ void CreateView(Form form); } public class MyFormService: IFormService{ public Form OpenFormForEditing(int formId){ //construct and return a concrete implementation of Form } public Form OpenFormForViewing(int formId, IFormViewCreator formViewCreator){ //construct a concrete implementation of Form //apply transformations to the dynamic field list return formViewCreator.CreateView(form); } } On the surface, this seems like acceptable approach and yet there is a certain smell. Namely, the UI, which had been living in ignorant bliss about the implementation details of OpenFormForViewing, must possess knowledge of and create an instance of IFormViewCreator. My questions are twofold: Is there a better way to achieve the composability I'm after? (perhaps by using an IoC container or a home rolled factory to create the concrete IFormViewCreator)? Did I fundamentally screw up the abstraction here?

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  • Google Map lng + lat to hidden field not working

    - by user547794
    Hello, I am trying to get Marker data into hidden fields on my form. I'm not sure why this isn't working, it must be something in my js syntax: var initialLocation; var siberia = new google.maps.LatLng(60, 105); var newyork = new google.maps.LatLng(40.69847032728747, -73.9514422416687); var browserSupportFlag = new Boolean(); function initialize() { var myOptions = { zoom: 6, mapTypeId: google.maps.MapTypeId.HYBRID }; var map = new google.maps.Map(document.getElementById("map_canvas"), myOptions); myListener = google.maps.event.addListener(map, 'click', function(event) { placeMarker(event.latLng), google.maps.event.removeListener(myListener); }); // Try W3C Geolocation (Preferred) if(navigator.geolocation) { browserSupportFlag = true; navigator.geolocation.getCurrentPosition(function(position) { initialLocation = new google.maps.LatLng(position.coords.latitude,position.coords.longitude); map.setCenter(initialLocation); }, function() { handleNoGeolocation(browserSupportFlag); }); // Try Google Gears Geolocation } else if (google.gears) { browserSupportFlag = true; var geo = google.gears.factory.create('beta.geolocation'); geo.getCurrentPosition(function(position) { initialLocation = new google.maps.LatLng(position.latitude,position.longitude); map.setCenter(initialLocation); }, function() { handleNoGeoLocation(browserSupportFlag); }); // Browser doesn't support Geolocation } else { browserSupportFlag = false; handleNoGeolocation(browserSupportFlag); } function handleNoGeolocation(errorFlag) { if (errorFlag == true) { alert("Geolocation service failed."); initialLocation = newyork; } else { alert("Your browser doesn't support geolocation. We've placed you in Siberia."); initialLocation = siberia; } } function placeMarker(location) { var marker = new google.maps.Marker({ position: location, map: map, draggable: true }); map.setCenter(location); } } var lat = latlng.lat(); var lng = latlng.lng(); document.getElementById("t1").value=lat; document.getElementById("t2").value=lng; <input type="hidden" name="lat" id="t1"> <input type="hidden" name="long" id="t2">

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  • Cannot .Count() on IQueryable (NHibernate)

    - by Bruno Reis
    Hello, I'm with an irritating problem. It might be something stupid, but I couldn't find out. I'm using Linq to NHibernate, and I would like to count how many items are there in a repository. Here is a very simplified definition of my repository, with the code that matters: public class Repository { private ISession session; /* ... */ public virtual IQueryable<Product> GetAll() { return session.Linq<Product>(); } } All the relevant code in the end of the question. Then, to count the items on my repository, I do something like: var total = productRepository.GetAll().Count(); The problem is that total is 0. Always. However there are items in the repository. Furthermore, I can .Get(id) any of them. My NHibernate log shows that the following query was executed: SELECT count(*) as y0_ FROM [Product] this_ WHERE not (1=1) That must be that "WHERE not (1=1)" clause the cause of this problem. What can I do to be able .Count() the items in my repository? Thanks! EDIT: Actually the repository.GetAll() code is a little bit different... and that might change something! It is actually a generic repository for Entities. Some of the entities implement also the ILogicalDeletable interface (it contains a single bool property "IsDeleted"). Just before the "return" inside the GetAll() method I check if if the Entity I'm querying implements ILogicalDeletable. public interface IRepository<TEntity, TId> where TEntity : Entity<TEntity, TId> { IQueryable<TEntity> GetAll(); ... } public abstract class Repository<TEntity, TId> : IRepository<TEntity, TId> where TEntity : Entity<TEntity, TId> { public virtual IQueryable<TEntity> GetAll() { if (typeof (ILogicalDeletable).IsAssignableFrom(typeof (TEntity))) { return session.Linq<TEntity>() .Where(x => (x as ILogicalDeletable).IsDeleted == false); } else { return session.Linq<TEntity>(); } } } public interface ILogicalDeletable { bool IsDeleted {get; set;} } public Product : Entity<Product, int>, ILogicalDeletable { ... } public IProductRepository : IRepository<Product, int> {} public ProductRepository : Repository<Product, int>, IProductRepository {} Edit 2: actually the .GetAll() is always returning an empty result-set for entities that implement the ILogicalDeletable interface (ie, it ALWAYS add a WHERE NOT (1=1) clause. I think Linq to NHibernate does not like the typecast.

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  • Unlock device, display a text, then lock again

    - by Waza_Be
    For the need of my application, I need to display a message on the screen even if the lockscreen is enabled, then wait 3 seconds, than I have to lock again the phone as I don't want it to make unwanted phone calls in your pockets. First part is easy: if (PreferenceManager.getDefaultSharedPreferences( getBaseContext()).getBoolean("wake", false)) { KeyguardManager kgm = (KeyguardManager) getSystemService(Context.KEYGUARD_SERVICE); boolean isKeyguardUp = kgm.inKeyguardRestrictedInputMode(); WakeLocker.acquire(ProtoBenService.this); Intent myIntent = new Intent(ProtoBenService.this,LockActivity.class); myIntent.setFlags(Intent.FLAG_ACTIVITY_NEW_TASK); if (isKeyguardUp) { ProtoBenService.this.startActivity(myIntent); } else Toast.makeText(ProtoBenService.this.getBaseContext(), intention, Toast.LENGTH_LONG).show(); WakeLocker.release(); } With this class: public abstract class WakeLocker { private static PowerManager.WakeLock wakeLock; public static void acquire(Context ctx) { if (wakeLock != null) wakeLock.release(); PowerManager pm = (PowerManager) ctx.getSystemService(Context.POWER_SERVICE); wakeLock = pm.newWakeLock(PowerManager.FULL_WAKE_LOCK | PowerManager.ACQUIRE_CAUSES_WAKEUP | PowerManager.ON_AFTER_RELEASE, "CobeIm"); wakeLock.acquire(); } public static void release() { if (wakeLock != null) wakeLock.release(); wakeLock = null; } } And the Activity: public class LockActivity extends Activity { @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); Window window = getWindow(); window.addFlags(WindowManager.LayoutParams.FLAG_DISMISS_KEYGUARD); window.addFlags(WindowManager.LayoutParams.FLAG_TURN_SCREEN_ON); window.addFlags(WindowManager.LayoutParams.FLAG_KEEP_SCREEN_ON); TextView tv = new TextView(this); tv.setText("This is working!"); tv.setTextSize(45); setContentView(tv); Runnable mRunnable; Handler mHandler = new Handler(); mRunnable = new Runnable() { @Override public void run() { LockActivity.this.finish(); } }; mHandler.postDelayed(mRunnable, 3 * 1000); } } So, this is nice, the phone can display my text! The only problem comes when I want to lock again the phone, it seems that locking the phone is protected by the system... Programmatically turning off the screen and locking the phone how to lock the android programatically I think that my users won't understand the Device Admin and won't be able to activate it. Is there any workaround to lock the screen without the Device Admin stuff?

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  • How to pipe two CORE::system commands in a cross-platform way

    - by Pedro Silva
    I'm writing a System::Wrapper module to abstract away from CORE::system and the qx operator. I have a serial method that attempts to connect command1's output to command2's input. I've made some progress using named pipes, but POSIX::mkfifo is not cross-platform. Here's part of what I have so far (the run method at the bottom basically calls system): package main; my $obj1 = System::Wrapper->new( interpreter => 'perl', arguments => [-pe => q{''}], input => ['input.txt'], description => 'Concatenate input.txt to STDOUT', ); my $obj2 = System::Wrapper->new( interpreter => 'perl', arguments => [-pe => q{'$_ = reverse $_}'}], description => 'Reverse lines of input input', output => { '>' => 'output' }, ); $obj1->serial( $obj2 ); package System::Wrapper; #... sub serial { my ($self, @commands) = @_; eval { require POSIX; POSIX->import(); require threads; }; my $tmp_dir = File::Spec->tmpdir(); my $last = $self; my @threads; push @commands, $self; for my $command (@commands) { croak sprintf "%s::serial: type of args to serial must be '%s', not '%s'", ref $self, ref $self, ref $command || $command unless ref $command eq ref $self; my $named_pipe = File::Spec->catfile( $tmp_dir, int \$command ); POSIX::mkfifo( $named_pipe, 0777 ) or croak sprintf "%s::serial: couldn't create named pipe %s: %s", ref $self, $named_pipe, $!; $last->output( { '>' => $named_pipe } ); $command->input( $named_pipe ); push @threads, threads->new( sub{ $last->run } ); $last = $command; } $_->join for @threads; } #... My specific questions: Is there an alternative to POSIX::mkfifo that is cross-platform? Win32 named pipes don't work, as you can't open those as regular files, neither do sockets, for the same reasons. The above doesn't quite work; the two threads get spawned correctly, but nothing flows across the pipe. I suppose that might have something to do with pipe deadlocking or output buffering. What throws me off is that when I run those two commands in the actual shell, everything works as expected.

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  • Fastest way to copy a set (100+) of related SQLAlchemy objects and change attribute on each one

    - by rebus
    I am developing an app that keeps track of items going in and out of factory. For example, lets say you have 3 kinds of plastic coming in, they are mixed in various ratios and then sent out as a new product. So to keep track of this I've created following database structure: This is very simplified overview of my SQLAlchemy models: IN <- RATIO <- OUT <- REPORT ITEMS -> REPORT IN are products coming in, RATIO is various information on measurements, and OUT is a final product. REPORT is basically a header model which has a lot of REPORT ITEMS attached to it, which in turn relate it to OUT products. This would all work perfectly, but IN and RATION values can change. These changes ultimately change the OUT product which would mean the REPORT values would change. So in order to change an attribute on IN object for example I should copy that object with that attribute changed. I would think this is basically a question about database normalization, because i didn't want to duplicate all the IN, RATIO and OUT information by writing it in REPORT ITEMS table for example, but I've came across this problem (well not really a problem but rather a feature I'd like for a user to have). When the attribute on IN object is changed I want related objects (RATIO and OUT) automatically copied and related to a new IN object. So I was thinking something like: Take an existing instance of model IN that needs to change (call it old_in) Create a new one out of it with some attributes changed (call it new_in) Collect all the RATIO objects that are related to old_in Copy each RATIO and relate them to a new_in Collect all the OUT objects that are related to old RATIO Copy each OUT and relate them to a new RATIO Few questions pop to mind when i look at this problem: Should i just duplicate the data, does all this copying even make sense? If it does, should i rather do it in plain SQL? If no what would be the best approach to do it with Python and SQLAlchemy? Any general answer would suffice really, at least a pointer in right direction. I really want to free then end user for hassle of having create new ratios and out products.

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  • Problem persisting inheritance tree

    - by alaiseca
    I have a problem trying to map an inheritance tree. A simplified version of my model is like this: @MappedSuperclass @Embeddable public class BaseEmbedded implements Serializable { @Column(name="BE_FIELD") private String beField; // Getters and setters follow } @MappedSuperclass @Embeddable public class DerivedEmbedded extends BaseEmbedded { @Column(name="DE_FIELD") private String deField; // Getters and setters follow } @MappedSuperclass public abstract class BaseClass implements Serializable { @Embedded protected BaseEmbedded embedded; public BaseClass() { this.embedded = new BaseEmbedded(); } // Getters and setters follow } @Entity @Table(name="MYTABLE") @Inheritance(strategy=InheritanceType.SINGLE_TABLE) @DiscriminatorColumn(name="TYPE", discriminatorType=DiscriminatorType.STRING) public class DerivedClass extends BaseClass { @Id @Column(name="ID", nullable=false) private Long id; @Column(name="TYPE", nullable=false, insertable=false, updatable=false) private String type; public DerivedClass() { this.embedded = new DerivedClass(); } // Getters and setters follow } @Entity @DiscriminatorValue("A") public class DerivedClassA extends DerivedClass { @Embeddable public static NestedClassA extends DerivedEmbedded { @Column(name="FIELD_CLASS_A") private String fieldClassA; } public DerivedClassA() { this.embedded = new NestedClassA(); } // Getters and setters follow } @Entity @DiscriminatorValue("B") public class DerivedClassB extends DerivedClass { @Embeddable public static NestedClassB extends DerivedEmbedded { @Column(name="FIELD_CLASS_B") private String fieldClassB; } public DerivedClassB() { this.embedded = new NestedClassB(); } // Getters and setters follow } At Java level, this model is working fine, and I believe is the appropriate one. My problem comes up when it's time to persist an object. At runtime, I can create an object which could be an instance of DerivedClass, DerivedClassA or DerivedClassB. As you can see, each one of the derived classes introduces a new field which only makes sense for that specific derived class. All the classes share the same physical table in the database. If I persist an object of type DerivedClass, I expect fields BE_FIELD, DE_FIELD, ID and TYPE to be persisted with their values and the remaining fields to be null. If I persist an object of type DerivedClass A, I expect those same fields plus the FIELD_CLASS_A field to be persisted with their values and field FIELD_CLASS_B to be null. Something equivalent for an object of type DerivedClassB. Since the @Embedded annotation is at the BaseClass only, Hibernate is only persisting the fields up to that level in the tree. I don't know how to tell Hibernate that I want to persist up to the appropriate level in the tree, depending on the actual type of the embedded property. I cannot have another @Embedded property in the subclasses since this would duplicate data that is already present in the superclass and would also break the Java model. I cannot declare the embedded property to be of a more specific type either, since it's only at runtime when the actual object is created and I don't have a single branch in the hierarchy. Is it possible to solve my problem? Or should I resignate myself to accept that there is no way to persist the Java model as it is? Any help will be greatly appreciated.

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  • Meshing different systems of keys together in XML Schema

    - by Tom W
    Hello SO, I'd like to ask people's thoughts on an XSD problem I've been pondering. The system I am trying to model is thus: I have a general type that represents some item in a hypothetical model. The type is abstract and will be inherited by all manner of different model objects, so the model is heterogeneous. Furthermore, some types exist only as children of other types. Objects are to be given an identifier, but the scope of uniqueness of this identifier varies. Some objects - we will call them P (for Parent) objects - must have a globally unique identifier. This is straightforward and can use the xs:key schema element. Other objects (we can call them C objects, for Child) are children of a P object and must have an identifier that is unique only in the scope of that parent. For example, object P1 has two children, object C1 and C2, and object P2 has one child, object C3. In this system, the identifiers given could be as follows: P1: 1 (1st P object globally) P2: 2 (2nd P object globally) C1: 1 (1st C object of P1) C2: 2 (2nd C object of P1) C3: 1 (1st C object of P2) I want the identity syntax of every model object to be identical if possible, therefore my first pass at implementing is to define a single type: <xs:complexType name="ModelElement"> <xs:attribute name="IDMode" type="IdentityMode"/> <xs:attribute name="Identifier" type="xs:string"/> </xs:complexType> where the IdentityMode is an enumerated value: <xs:simpleType name="IdentityMode"> <xs:restriction base="xs:string"> <xs:enumeration value="Identified"/> <xs:enumeration value="Indexed"/> <xs:enumeration value="None"/> </xs:restriction> </xs:simpleType> Here "Identified" signifies a global identifier, and "Indexed" indicates an identifier local only to the parent. My question is, how do I enforce these uniqueness conditions using unique, key or other schema elements based on the IdentityMode property of the given subtype of ModelElement?

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  • Any suggestions for improvement on this style for BDD/TDD?

    - by Sean B
    I was tinkering with doing the setups with our unit test specifciations which go like Specification for SUT when behaviour X happens in scenario Y Given that this thing And also this other thing When I do X... Then It should do ... And It should also do ... I wrapped each of the steps of the GivenThat in Actions... any feed back whether separating with Actions is good / bad / or better way to make the GivenThat clear? /// <summary> /// Given a product is setup for injection /// And Product Image Factory Is Stubbed(); /// And Product Size Is Stubbed(); /// And Drawing Scale Is Stubbed(); /// And Product Type Is Stubbed(); /// </summary> protected override void GivenThat() { base.GivenThat(); Action givenThatAProductIsSetupforInjection = () => { var randomGenerator = new RandomGenerator(); this.Position = randomGenerator.Generate<Point>(); this.Product = new Diffuser { Size = new RectangularProductSize( 2.Inches()), Position = this.Position, ProductType = Dep<IProductType>() }; }; Action andProductImageFactoryIsStubbed = () => Dep<IProductBitmapImageFactory>().Stub(f => f.GetInstance(Dep<IProductType>())).Return(ExpectedBitmapImage); Action andProductSizeIsStubbed = () => { Stub<IDisplacementProduct, IProductSize>(p => p.Size); var productBounds = new ProductBounds(Width.Feet(), Height.Feet()); Dep<IProductSize>().Stub(s => s.Bounds).Return(productBounds); }; Action andDrawingScaleIsStubbed = () => Dep<IDrawingScale>().Stub(s => s.PixelsPerFoot).Return(PixelsPerFoot); Action andProductTypeIsStubbed = () => Stub<IDisplacementProduct, IProductType>(p => p.ProductType); givenThatAProductIsSetupforInjection(); andProductImageFactoryIsStubbed(); andProductSizeIsStubbed(); andDrawingScaleIsStubbed(); andProductTypeIsStubbed(); }

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  • IE dynamic image caching issue?

    - by rdevitt
    I have an html page that is loading multiple iframes into which are embedded dynamic images created from a Tomcat server page (.jsp). This works as expected from Chrome and Firefox, but for some reason IE displays all of the images the same (as the first image). I've created an example: http://coupondiscounts.com/dev/jsImageTest.html jsImageTest.html -- This page simply loads 6 instances of the testImageFrame.html page in separate iframes one-at-a-time, using Javascript. testImageFrame.html -- This is the page loaded in all the iframes. It contains only a JavaScript block that writes out the current time and an img tag. The img is dynamically generated by a .jsp page on a different server. It should be a white box on a black background. In the box are the current time (from the Tomcat server using Java) and a randomly created double between 0 & 1. What happens (in IE): The page almost instantly loads four identical iframes. Depending on the speed of your machine, the JavaScript times may vary by a second or two. The images' times will all be the same as will be the random number. This holds true even for the last two iframes which are loaded 5 and 10 seconds after the others (using JavaScript setTimeout()). What should happen (as it does in Chrome and FF): The page loads the same 4 iframes, but the random numbers in the images will be different. The times in the images occasionally span a second as well. Anyone have a clue as to what's going on here? Is IE doing some strange caching? The image header has "no-cache," "no-store" and all that. I've tried it on IE6 and 7. You can use the "Next" button to create another iframe. In IE, the images are always the same. Notes: I don't really need iframes, just the images, but if I only use img tags, the problem appears in Chrome and FF as well. I also don't really need to load these iframes dynamically, I was just trying to abstract the issue further and allow a delayed load for the latter 2 images.

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  • How to properly mix generics and inheritance to get the desired result?

    - by yamsha
    My question is not easy to explain using words, fortunately it's not too difficult to demonstrate. So, bear with me: public interface Command<R> { public R execute();//parameter R is the type of object that will be returned as the result of the execution of this command } public abstract class BasicCommand<R> { } public interface CommandProcessor<C extends Command<?>> { public <R> R process(C<R> command);//this is my question... it's illegal to do, but you understand the idea behind it, right? } //constrain BasicCommandProcessor to commands that subclass BasicCommand public class BasicCommandProcessor implements CommandProcessor<C extends BasicCommand<?>> { //here, only subclasses of BasicCommand should be allowed as arguments but these //BasicCommand object should be parameterized by R, like so: BasicCommand<R> //so the method signature should really be // public <R> R process(BasicCommand<R> command) //which would break the inheritance if the interface's method signature was instead: // public <R> R process(Command<R> command); //I really hope this fully illustrates my conundrum public <R> R process(C<R> command) { return command.execute(); } } public class CommandContext { public static void main(String... args) { BasicCommandProcessor bcp = new BasicCommandProcessor(); String textResult = bcp.execute(new BasicCommand<String>() { public String execute() { return "result"; } }); Long numericResult = bcp.execute(new BasicCommand<Long>() { public Long execute() { return 123L; } }); } } Basically, I want the generic "process" method to dictate the type of generic parameter of the Command object. The goal is to be able to restrict different implementations of CommandProcessor to certain classes that implement Command interface and at the same time to able to call the process method of any class that implements the CommandProcessor interface and have it return the object of type specified by the parametarized Command object. I'm not sure if my explanation is clear enough, so please let me know if further explanation is needed. I guess, the question is "Would this be possible to do, at all?" If the answer is "No" what would be the best work-around (I thought of a couple on my own, but I'd like some fresh ideas)

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  • Spring OpenSessionInViewFilter with @Transactional annotation

    - by Gautam
    This is regarding Spring OpenSessionInViewFilter using with @Transactional annotation at service layer. i went through so many stack overflow post on this but still confused about whether i should use OpenSessionInViewFilter or not to avoid LazyInitializationException It would be great help if somebody help me find out answer to below queries. Is it bad practice to use OpenSessionInViewFilter in application having complex schema. using this filter can cause N+1 problem if we are using OpenSessionInViewFilter does it mean @Transactional not required? Below is my Spring config file <context:component-scan base-package="com.test"/> <context:annotation-config/> <bean id="messageSource" class="org.springframework.context.support.ReloadableResourceBundleMessageSource"> <property name="basename" value="resources/messages" /> <property name="defaultEncoding" value="UTF-8" /> </bean> <bean id="propertyConfigurer" class="org.springframework.beans.factory.config.PropertyPlaceholderConfigurer" p:location="/WEB-INF/jdbc.properties" /> <bean id="dataSource" class="org.apache.commons.dbcp.BasicDataSource" destroy-method="close" p:driverClassName="${jdbc.driverClassName}" p:url="${jdbc.databaseurl}" p:username="${jdbc.username}" p:password="${jdbc.password}" /> <bean id="sessionFactory" class="org.springframework.orm.hibernate3.LocalSessionFactoryBean"> <property name="dataSource" ref="dataSource" /> <property name="configLocation"> <value>classpath:hibernate.cfg.xml</value> </property> <property name="configurationClass"> <value>org.hibernate.cfg.AnnotationConfiguration</value> </property> <property name="hibernateProperties"> <props> <prop key="hibernate.dialect">${jdbc.dialect}</prop> <prop key="hibernate.show_sql">true</prop> <!-- <prop key="hibernate.hbm2ddl.auto">create</prop> --> </props> </property> </bean> <tx:annotation-driven /> <bean id="transactionManager" class="org.springframework.orm.hibernate3.HibernateTransactionManager"> <property name="sessionFactory" ref="sessionFactory" /> </bean>

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  • NHibernate and MySql is inserting and Selecting, not updating

    - by Chris Brandsma
    Something strange is going on with NHibernate for me. I can select, and I can insert. But I can't do and update against MySql. Here is my domain class public class UserAccount { public virtual int Id { get; set; } public virtual string UserName { get; set; } public virtual string Password { get; set; } public virtual bool Enabled { get; set; } public virtual string FirstName { get; set; } public virtual string LastName { get; set; } public virtual string Phone { get; set; } public virtual DateTime? DeletedDate { get; set; } public virtual UserAccount DeletedBy { get; set; } } Fluent Mapping public class UserAccountMap : ClassMap<UserAccount> { public UserAccountMap() { Table("UserAccount"); Id(x => x.Id); Map(x => x.UserName); Map(x => x.Password); Map(x => x.FirstName); Map(x => x.LastName); Map(x => x.Phone); Map(x => x.DeletedDate); Map(x => x.Enabled); } } Here is how I'm creating my Session Factory var dbconfig = MySQLConfiguration .Standard .ShowSql() .ConnectionString(a => a.FromAppSetting("MySqlConnStr")); FluentConfiguration config = Fluently.Configure() .Database(dbconfig) .Mappings(m => { var mapping = m.FluentMappings.AddFromAssemblyOf<TransactionDetail>(); mapping.ExportTo(mappingdir); }); and this is my NHibernate code: using (var trans = Session.BeginTransaction()) { var user = GetById(userId); user.Enabled = false; user.DeletedDate = DateTime.Now; user.UserName = "deleted_" + user.UserName; user.Password = "--removed--"; Session.Update(user); trans.Commit(); } No exceptions are being thrown. No queries are being logged. Nothing.

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  • Starting jetty with spring xml as a background process/thread

    - by compass
    My goal is to set up a jetty test server and inject a custom servlet to test some REST classes in my project. I was able to launch the server with spring xml and run tests against that server. The issue I'm having is sometimes after the server started, the process stopped at the point before running the tests. It seems jetty didn't go to background. It works every time on my computer. But when I deployed to my CI server, it doesn't work. It also doesn't work when I'm on VPN. (Strange.) The server should be completed initialized as when the tests stuck, I was able to access the server using a browser. Here is my spring context xml: .... <bean id="servletHolder" class="org.eclipse.jetty.servlet.ServletHolder"> <constructor-arg ref="courseApiServlet"/> </bean> <bean id="servletHandler" class="org.eclipse.jetty.servlet.ServletContextHandler"/> <!-- Adding the servlet holders to the handlers --> <bean id="servletHandlerSetter" class="org.springframework.beans.factory.config.MethodInvokingFactoryBean"> <property name="targetObject" ref="servletHandler"/> <property name="targetMethod" value="addServlet"/> <property name="arguments"> <list> <ref bean="servletHolder"/> <value>/*</value> </list> </property> </bean> <bean id="httpTestServer" class="org.eclipse.jetty.server.Server" init-method="start" destroy-method="stop" depends-on="servletHandlerSetter"> <property name="connectors"> <list> <bean class="org.eclipse.jetty.server.nio.SelectChannelConnector"> <property name="port" value="#{settings['webservice.server.port']}" /> </bean> </list> </property> <property name="handler"> <ref bean="servletHandler" /> </property> </bean> Running latest Jetty 8.1.8 server and Spring 3.1.3. Any idea?

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  • Rails requires Rubygems but I have the gems

    - by fogonthedowns
    Update I notice that which ruby and whereis ruby are different locations which ruby /opt/local/bin/ruby whereis ruby /usr/bin/ruby I recently upgraded ruby to ruby 1.8.7 (2009-06-12 patchlevel 174) [i686-darwin10] and I think I broke rails. When I attempt to load rails. I get an odd message. Please help! $ ruby script/server Rails requires RubyGems = 1.3.2. Please install RubyGems and try again: http://rubygems.rubyforge.org $ rails -v Rails 3.0.0.beta $ gem -v 1.3.6 $ which gem /usr/bin/gem $ whereis gem /usr/bin/gem $ which rails /usr/bin/rails $ whereis rails /usr/bin/rails $ /usr/bin/gem -v 1.3.6 $ /usr/bin/rails -v Rails 3.0.0.beta $ ruby script/console Rails requires RubyGems >= 1.3.2. Please install RubyGems and try again: http://rubygems.rubyforge.org $ gem list rails *** LOCAL GEMS *** rails (3.0.0.beta, 2.3.5, 2.2.2, 1.2.6) $ gem list *** LOCAL GEMS *** abstract (1.0.0) actionmailer (3.0.0.beta, 2.3.5, 2.2.2, 1.3.6) actionpack (3.0.0.beta, 2.3.5, 2.2.2, 1.13.6) actionwebservice (1.2.6) activemerchant (1.4.1) activemodel (3.0.0.beta) activerecord (3.0.0.beta, 2.3.5, 2.2.2, 1.15.6) activerecord-tableless (0.1.0) activeresource (3.0.0.beta, 2.3.5, 2.2.2) activesupport (3.0.0.beta, 2.3.5, 2.2.2, 1.4.4) acts_as_ferret (0.4.3) arel (0.2.pre) authlogic (2.1.3) builder (2.1.2) bundler (0.9.3) calendar_date_select (1.15) capistrano (2.5.2) cgi_multipart_eof_fix (2.5.0) chronic (0.2.3) columnize (0.3.1) compass (0.8.17) daemons (1.0.10) dnssd (0.6.0) erubis (2.6.5) fastercsv (1.5.0) fastthread (1.0.1) fcgi (0.8.7) ferret (0.11.6) flay (1.4.0) flog (2.4.0) gbarcode (0.98.16) gem_plugin (0.2.3) git (1.2.5) haml (2.2.15) haml-edge (2.3.100) highline (1.5.0) hoe (2.4.0) hpricot (0.6.164) i18n (0.3.3) javan-whenever (0.3.7) jeweler (1.4.0) jscruggs-metric_fu (1.1.5) json_pure (1.2.0) libxml-ruby (1.1.2) linecache (0.43) mail (2.1.2) mechanize (0.9.3) memcache-client (1.7.8) mime-types (1.16) mislav-will_paginate (2.3.11) mocha (0.9.7) mojombo-chronic (0.3.0) mongrel (1.1.5) needle (1.3.0) net-scp (1.0.1) net-sftp (2.0.1, 1.1.1) net-ssh (2.0.4, 1.1.4) net-ssh-gateway (1.0.0) nifty-generators (0.3.0) nokogiri (1.4.0) openrain-action_mailer_tls (1.1.3) passenger (2.2.5) polyglot (0.2.9) prawn (0.6.3) prawn-core (0.6.3) prawn-format (0.2.3) prawn-layout (0.3.2) prawn-security (0.1.1) rack (1.1.0, 1.0.1) rack-mount (0.4.5) rack-test (0.5.3) rails (3.0.0.beta, 2.3.5, 2.2.2, 1.2.6) railties (3.0.0.beta) rake (0.8.7, 0.8.3) rake-compiler (0.6.0) RedCloth (4.1.1) reek (1.2.6) relevance-rcov (0.9.2.1) rmagick (2.12.2) roodi (2.1.0) rsl-stringex (1.0.3) rspec (1.2.9) rspec-rails (1.2.9) ruby-debug (0.10.3) ruby-debug-base (0.10.3) ruby-openid (2.1.2) ruby-yadis (0.3.4) ruby2ruby (1.2.4) ruby_parser (2.0.4) rubyforge (2.0.3) rubygems-update (1.3.6, 1.3.5) rubynode (0.1.5) searchlogic (2.3.9) sexp_processor (3.0.3) spree (0.9.4) sqlite3-ruby (1.2.5, 1.2.4) termios (0.9.4) test-unit (2.0.5) text-format (1.0.0) text-hyphen (1.0.0) thor (0.13.0) tlsmail (0.0.1) topfunky-gruff (0.3.5) treetop (1.4.3) tzinfo (0.3.16) xmpp4r (0.4)

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  • How to manipulate default document with rewrite module on IIS7?

    - by eugeneK
    Until few month ago i've been using IIS 6 where i could add different Default Documents to each websites which are physically same directory. Since II7 which adds Default Document value to web config i couldn't use such technique as web.config was changed for all the directory. So I've found simple solution with rewrite module to change Default Document for each domain <defaultDocument enabled="false" /> <rewrite> <rewriteMaps> <rewriteMap name="ResolveDefaultDocForHost"> <add key="site1.com" value="Default1.aspx" /> <add key="site2.com" value="Default2.aspx" /> </rewriteMap> </rewriteMaps> <rules> <rule name="DefaultDoc Redirect If No Trailing Slash" stopProcessing="true"> <match url=".*[^/]$" /> <conditions> <add input="{REQUEST_FILENAME}" matchType="IsDirectory" /> </conditions> <action type="Redirect" url="{R:0}/" /> </rule> <rule name="PerHostDefaultDocSlash" stopProcessing="true"> <match url="$|.*/$" /> <conditions> <add input="{REQUEST_FILENAME}" matchType="IsDirectory" /> <add input="{ResolveDefaultDocForHost:{HTTP_HOST}}" pattern="(.+)" /> </conditions> <action type="Rewrite" url="{R:0}{C:1}" appendQueryString="true" /> </rule> </rules> </rewrite> Now i've got two other issues. first of all i can't use canonical url rewrite, if i set one then site1.com and site2.com redirected to www.site1.com instead of having www. for each. second problem is that there is a directory within site1' and site2' physical directory called members in which Default.aspx is always a Default Document doesn't matter which domain name was used. It doesn't work as well. Please help me with this issue because i've never thought i will get such problem with supposed to be better IIS7...

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  • Some DHCP clients end up with wrong DNS server

    - by Nic Waller
    The scenario: DC running Windows Server 2008 R2 providing DNS + DHCP Cisco 1811 Router as the gateway 30 Windows XP DHCP clients on the LAN The problem: Some workstations are spontaneously switching to an incorrect DNS server. Specifically, ipconfig /all shows that they start using the gateway as a DNS server. This happens about 5-10 times a day to various computers, sometimes more than once per day. The workaround: Repairing the connection on the XP client always fixes the problem, and the correct DNS server address is obtained. We lost our main DNS/DHCP machine a week ago, and had to bring this one online as a spare. We've been having this issue since then. DHCP leases on the old and new servers are configured for "wired" (8 day) duration. There are definitely no other DHCP servers active on the LAN. So far there is no discernible pattern about which clients will show this problem, or when. When I ran DCDIAG /test:DNS it came back clean. Manual inspection of the DNS zone shows that all the records are appearing as expected, with no traces of the previous machine in there. Update Feb 27: Added screenshots. Here is a screenshot of the DHCP scope options on the 2008 R2 server. And here is a screenshot of ipconfig /all running on a healthy host. I don't have any ailing hosts at the moment, but will grab a screencap next time it happens. Update Feb 28: More screenshots. Here's a screenshot of DHCP and DNS traffic from a healthy client when repairing the local area connection. There's definitely only one server responding, but it does seem strange that the negotiation takes place twice. I'll try to get a similar capture from a sick machine this coming week. Update Mar 01: Caught a bad ipconfig. Here's a screenshot of ipconfig /all from a client that had this issue. It says the lease was issued this morning, but it doesn't even have an entry for the secondary DNS I set up yesterday. Both DNS servers were discovered properly when repairing the connection. Update Mar 01: It even got the sysadmin! This issue finally affected my personal workstation this morning. Unfortunately I had just rebooted and wasn't running a packet dump at the time. I set up a secondary server yesterday, and was logging all DNS traffic to it. My machine had not contacted the secondary DNS in over half an hour, so that says to me that it's just spontaneously reverting to the gateway without even failing over to secondary DNS first. Today I swapped the order of the DNS servers in DHCP, so the secondary is primary and vice versa. I will update again once I know how that goes.

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  • apache mod_cache in v2.2 - enable cache based on url

    - by Janning
    We are using apache2.2 as a front-end server with application servers as reverse proxies behind apache. We are using mod_cache for some images and enabled it like this: <IfModule mod_disk_cache.c> CacheEnable disk / CacheRoot /var/cache/apache2/mod_disk_cache CacheIgnoreCacheControl On CacheMaxFileSize 2500000 CacheIgnoreURLSessionIdentifiers jsessionid CacheIgnoreHeaders Set-Cookie </IfModule> The image urls vary completely and have no common start pattern, but they all end in ".png". Thats why we used the root in CacheEnable / If not served from the cache, the request is forwarded to an application server via reverse proxy. So far so good, cache is working fine. But I really only need to cache all image request ending in ".png". My above configuration still works as my application server send an appropriate Cache-Control: no-cache header on the way back to apache. So most pages send a no-cache header back and they get not cached at all. My ".png" responses doesn't send a Cache-Control header so apache is only going to cache all urls with ".png". Fine. But when a new request enters apache, apache does not know that only .png requests should be considered, so every request is checking a file on disk (recorded with strace -e trace=file -p pid): [pid 19063] open("/var/cache/apache2/mod_disk_cache/zK/q8/Kd/g6OIv@woJRC_ba_A.header", O_RDONLY|O_CLOEXEC) = -1 ENOENT (No such file or directory) I don't want to have apache going to disk every request, as the majority of requests are not cached at all. And we have up to 10.000 request/s at peak time. Sometimes our read IO wait spikes. It is not getting really slow, but we try to tweak it for better performance. In apache 2.4 you can say: <LocationMatch .png$> CacheEnable disk </LocationMatch> This is not possible in 2.2 and as I see no backports for debian I am not going to upgrade. So I tried to tweak apache2.2 to follow my rules: <IfModule mod_disk_cache.c> SetEnvIf Request_URI "\.png$" image RequestHeader unset Cache-Control RequestHeader append Cache-Control no-cache env=!image CacheEnable disk / CacheRoot /var/cache/apache2/mod_disk_cache #CacheIgnoreCacheControl on CacheMaxFileSize 2500000 CacheIgnoreURLSessionIdentifiers jsessionid CacheIgnoreHeaders Set-Cookie </IfModule> The idea is to let apache decide to serve request from cache based on Cache-control header (CacheIgnoreCacheControl default to off). And before simply set a RequestHeader based on the request. If it is not an image request, set a Cache-control header, so it should bypass the cache at all. This does not work, I guess because of late processing of RequestHeader directive, see https://httpd.apache.org/docs/2.2/mod/mod_headers.html#early I can't add early processing as "early" keyword can't be used together with a conditional "env=!image" I can't change the url requesting the images and I know there are of course other solutions. But I am only interested in configuring apache2.2 to reach my goal. Does anybody has an idea how to achieve my goal?

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  • OS X Snow Leopard 10.6 Refuses to Load Websites the first time intermittently

    - by Brandon
    Many times when I am browsing the web, Snow Leopard will sit and load a site for 20 seconds or more, until it times out and says it cannot be displayed. If I refresh, it loads RIGHT away, every time. The issue is intermittent but happens from once every couple of days to a few times a day. So the long and short of it is this: Aluminum MacBook (Non-Pro) 2.4GHz Core2Duo, 4GB DDR3 I am using 10.6.6 but I have had this issue since 10.6.0 It happens in Firefox, Chrome, and Safari I have flushed my DNS (using the command 'blablabla flush') I am using custom DNS servers which I hoped would fix it but it had no effect* I am running Apache currently but haven't been for most of the time I've reformatted multiple times, always experiencing the issue I am on Cox cable internet, with a Motorola Surfboard & a Belkin F6D4230-4 v1 (Pre?) N wireless router. I've put the router in G only & N only & G+N to no effect It seems to be domain dependant as I can sometimes load the Google cache right away, and sometimes other sites will load but Google will refuse My Powerbook G4 with Leopard, other Windows XP laptops, & my wired Win7 desktop do not suffer from the issue. *I recently started using these to escape the awful Cox redirect page on timeouts I'm almost positive the issue has happened on other networks but I can't recall a specific instance (I have a terrible memory). The problem is intermittent and fixable enough (I just have to wait until it times out and hit refresh one time) but incredibly annoying since I'm constantly reading documentation from a large variety of sites. EDIT: To clarify, this happens with ALL sites, not only specific sites. I haven't been able to detect any pattern to the failures, but one day Google.com will refuse to load while reddit.com will, and the next day vice versa. Keep in mind that waiting for a timeout and hitting refresh loads the page right away, every time. If I don't wait for the timeout, opening more links, hitting refresh, and clicking the link a billion times have no effect. It seems to be domain neutral, affecting sites seemingly at random. It doesn't seem to have anything to do with connection inactivity either, because I will be SSHed into different servers, uploading files, browsing, downloading, etc, and it will just quit loading Jquery.com (for example) until I sit and wait for a timeout. /EDIT This is my last resort. Please, someone, tell me what is happening. Thank you.

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  • Weird random application hang problem

    - by haridsv
    I am trying to understand an application hang problem that started up lately on my windows xp system. The system runs fine for days (sometimes) without ever shutting down or putting it to sleep, but the problem first shows up as one of the apps hanging. The application's UI stops responding or one or more background threads hang, so even though the GUI is responding, it is not doing anything (e.g., in VirtualDub's case, the UI responds fine, but the job doesn't progress and I won't even be able to abort it). The weirdness part comes from the fact that if I try to kill such an app, the program that is used to kill it goes into the same mode (i.e, that hangs instead of the original). E.g., if I use Process Explorer to kill it, the original program exits, but procexp now hangs. If I use another instance of procexp to kill the one that is hanging, this repeats, so there is always at least one program hanging in that state. This is not specific to procexp, I tried the native task manager and even the "End Process" dialog from windows explorer that shows up when you try to close a non-responsive GUI (in this case, the explorer itself hangs). The only program that didn't hang after the kill, is the command line taskkill. However, in this case, explorer hangs instead of taskkill. Also, once this problem starts manifesting, it soon ends up freezing the whole system to the extent that even a clean shutdown is not possible, so I have learned to reboot as soon as I notice this problem, however this is very inconvenient, as I often have encoding batch jobs going on which can't continue the job after the restart. The longer I leave the system running after seeing this problem, the more applications get into this state. I have tried to do a repair install but that didn't make any difference. I also uninstalled some of the newer installs, but again no difference. I tried to search online, but got inundating results for generic hang and crash related problems. Though I couldn't notice any pattern, it seems as though the problem is more frequent if I have some video encoding going on at that time. I had the system running for days when I only do browsing and internet audio/video chat before I decide to start encoding something and the problem starts to show up. I am not too sure if it is the encoding program that first hangs, though I almost always noticed that too hanging (like the VirtualDub stopping to make progress). I also had to reboot 3 times on one day when I was heavily experimenting with encoding. I would appreciate any help in narrowing down this problem and save me the trouble of reinstalling. I don't especially want to loose my gotd installs.

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  • Messages stuck in SMTP queue - Exchange 2003

    - by Diav
    I need your help people ;-) I have a problem with messages coming into our Exchange Server and ones going out through it. Basically, the messages are stuck in the SMTP queue. A message will come into the server, I can see it listed under "Exchange System Manager", but if you list the properties of the message queue it says something like 00:10 SMTP Message queued for local delivery 00:10 SMTP Message delivered locally to [email protected] 00:10 SMTP Message scheduled to retry local delivery 00:11 SMTP Message delivered locally to [email protected] 00:11 SMTP Message scheduled to retry local delivery etc etc For outgoing message list looks like this: 10:55 SMTP: Message Submitted to Advanced Queuing 10:55 SMTP: Started Message Submission to Advanced Queue 10:55 SMTP: Message Submitted to Categorizer 10:55 SMTP: Message Categorized and Queued for Routing 10:55 SMTP: Message Routed nad Queued for Remote Delivery And the end - since then status didn't change, message is in queue, I am forcing connection from time to time but without an effect. I checked connection with smarthost (used telnet for that) and everything seems to work correctly, so the problem is probably on exchange side. I am using Exchange Server 2003 running on Small Business Server 2003. I don't have any antivirus installed on server. Remaining free space on each partition is over 3Gb, on partition with data bases - it is over 12Gb. All was working good and without problems since 2005, problems started in half of this june - messages started going out and being stuck almost randomly (I don't see a pattern yet, some are going out, some are not, some are going after several hours). I don't know what to do, what to check more, so please, any ideas? Best regards, D. edit Priv1.edb has 14,5GB and priv1.stm 2,6GB - together those files have more than 16GB - can it be the reason? If yes, then what? Indeed, I haven't thought that it can have something in common with my problem, but several users reported recent problems with Outlook Web Access - they can log in, they see the list of their mails, but they can't see the content of their emails. Although when they are connecting with Outlook 2003/2007 - there is no such problem, only with OWA there is. edit2 So,.. It works now, and I have to admit that I am not really sure what the problem was (hope it won't come back). What have I done: Cleaned up some mailboxes to reduce size of them Dismounted Information Store Defragmentated data base files ( I used eseutil: c:\program files\exchsrvr\bin eseutil /d g:\data base\Exchsrvr\MDBDATA\priv1.edb ) Mounted Information Store back ..and before I managed to do anything else - my queue started moving, elements which were kept there already for days - started moving and after few minutes everything was sent, both, outside and locally. But: priv1.edb is still big (13 884 203 008), priv1.stm as well (2 447 384 576), so this is probably not the issue of size of the file. And if not this, so what was that? And if that was issue of size of the file, then soon it will repeat - is there something I can do to avoid it ?

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  • How to specify what network interface to use with TTCP or IPERF?

    - by Sammy
    The PC has two Gigabit Ethernet ports. They function as two separate network adapters. I'm trying to do a simple loopback test between the two. I've tried TTCP and IPERF. They're giving me hard time because I'm using the same physical PC. Using pcattcp... On the receiver end: C:\PCATTCP-0114>pcattcp -r PCAUSA Test TCP Utility V2.01.01.14 (IPv4/IPv6) IP Version : IPv4 Started TCP Receive Test 0... TCP Receive Test Local Host : GIGA ************** Listening...: On TCPv4 0.0.0.0:5001 Accept : TCPv4 0.0.0.0:5001 <- 10.1.1.1:33904 Buffer Size : 8192; Alignment: 16384/0 Receive Mode: Sinking (discarding) Data Statistics : TCPv4 0.0.0.0:5001 <- 10.1.1.1:33904 16777216 bytes in 0.076 real seconds = 215578.95 KB/sec +++ numCalls: 2052; msec/call: 0.038; calls/sec: 27000.000 C:\PCATTCP-0114> On the transmitter end: C:\PCATTCP-0114>PCATTCP.exe -t 10.1.1.1 PCAUSA Test TCP Utility V2.01.01.14 (IPv4/IPv6) IP Version : IPv4 Started TCP Transmit Test 0... TCP Transmit Test Transmit : TCPv4 0.0.0.0 -> 10.1.1.1:5001 Buffer Size : 8192; Alignment: 16384/0 TCP_NODELAY : DISABLED (0) Connect : Connected to 10.1.1.1:5001 Send Mode : Send Pattern; Number of Buffers: 2048 Statistics : TCPv4 0.0.0.0 -> 10.1.1.1:5001 16777216 bytes in 0.075 real seconds = 218453.33 KB/sec +++ numCalls: 2048; msec/call: 0.037; calls/sec: 27306.667 C:\PCATTCP-0114> It's responding alright. But why does it say 0.0.0.0? Is it passing through only one of the network adapters? I want 10.1.1.1 to be the server (receiver) and 10.1.1.2 to be the client (transmitter). These are the IP addresses assigned manually to each network adapter. How do I specify these addresses in TTCP? There is also the IPERF tool which has the -B option. Unfortunately I've been only able to use this option to bind the server to the 10.1.1.1 address. I was unable to bind the client to the 10.1.1.2 address. I might be doing it wrong. Can the -B option be used for both the server as well as the client side? What does the syntax look like for the client?

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