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  • What's your take on this Javascript thingy?

    - by Nischal
    We've been having a discussion at our workplace on this with some for and some against the behavior. Wanted to hear views from you guys : <html> <body> <div> Test! <script> document.body.removeChild(document.getElementsByTagName('div')[0]); </script> </div> </body> </html> Should the above script work and do what it's supposed to do? First, let's see what's happening here : I have a javascript that's inside the <div> element. This javascript will delete the child node within body which happens to hold the div inside which the script itself exists. Now, the above script works fine in Firefox, Opera and IE8. But IE6 and IE7 give an alert saying they cannot open the page. Let's not debate on how IE should have handled this (they've accepted it as a bug and hence fixed it in IE8). The point here is since the 'SCRIPT' tag itself is a part of DOM, should it be allowed to do something like this? Should it even exist after such an operation?

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  • CodeIgniter - the right way to create "block" elements on web page

    - by kikkoman90
    Hello. I've been searching for a solutions for this problem a while but haven't seen any "valid mvc" solution for this. I hope I can explain my problem clearly enough for you guys. I need to create a dynamic block of HTML on my website. (eg. a block containing user's latest blog comments). I have a template view file (a file containing header, content container and a footer) where I need to add some content AND this block element. The problem is that I don't want to duplicate this block code on every controller. It just feels stupid and I'm sure there's a better way to do this than just duplicating same stuff all over again on all the controller files? I can add view inside another view just fine, but what bugs me is how to actually generate that dynamic content to this block's view-file. I can't call controller from view file, controller from controller filem or model from view file because what I understand that just isn't the "mvc" way? Anyone got any tricks or tips for this?

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  • jQuery: Preventing an event from being attached more than once?

    - by Evan Carroll
    Essentially, I have an element FOO that I want when clicked to attach a click event to a completely separate set of elements BAR, so that when they're clicked they can revert FOO to its previous content. I only want this event attached once. When FOO is clicked, its content is cached away in $back_up, and a trigger is added on the BAR set so that when clicked they can revert FOO back to its previous state. Is there a clever way to do this? Like to only .bind() if the event doesn't already exist? $('<div class="noprint little check" />').click( function () { var $warranty_explaination = $(this).closest('.page').children('.warranty_explaination'); var $back_up = $warranty_explaination.clone(true); $(this).closest('.page').find('.warranties .check:not(.noprint)').click( function () { /* This is the code I don't want to fire more than once */ /*, I just want it to be set to whatever is in the $back_up */ alert('reset'); $warranty_explaination.replaceWith( $back_up ) } ); $warranty_explaination.html('asdf') } ) Currently, the best way I can think to do this is to attach a class, and select where that class doesn't exist.

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  • Performing an action on Parent/Child elements independently.

    - by Matt Weldon
    I have HTML similar to the following in my page <div id="someDiv"> <img src="foo.gif" class="someImg" /> </div> The wrapper div is set up such that when it is clicked, it's background-color changes using the following jQuery code. $("div").click(function(event){ $(this).css("background-color", "blue"); }); I also have some jQuery associated with my img that will do some other function (for the sake of argument I am going to display and alert box) like so: $("img[class=someImg]").click(function(event){ alert("Image clicked"); }); The issue I have come across is that when I click on the img, the event associated with the div is also triggered. I'm pretty sure that this is due to the way that jQuery (or indeed JavaScript) is handling the two DOM elements - clicking the img would require you to also technically click the div, thus triggering both events. Two questions then really: Is my understanding of the DOM/JavaScript flawed in some way or is this actually how things are occurring? Are there any jQuery methods that would allow me to perform actions on a child element without invoking those associated with its parent?

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  • Parallelize or vectorize all-against-all operation on a large number of matrices?

    - by reve_etrange
    I have approximately 5,000 matrices with the same number of rows and varying numbers of columns (20 x ~200). Each of these matrices must be compared against every other in a dynamic programming algorithm. In this question, I asked how to perform the comparison quickly and was given an excellent answer involving a 2D convolution. Serially, iteratively applying that method, like so list = who('data_matrix_prefix*') H = cell(numel(list),numel(list)); for i=1:numel(list) for j=1:numel(list) if i ~= j eval([ 'H{i,j} = compare(' char(list(i)) ',' char(list(j)) ');']); end end end is fast for small subsets of the data (e.g. for 9 matrices, 9*9 - 9 = 72 calls are made in ~1 s). However, operating on all the data requires almost 25 million calls. I have also tried using deal() to make a cell array composed entirely of the next element in data, so I could use cellfun() in a single loop: # who(), load() and struct2cell() calls place k data matrices in a 1D cell array called data. nextData = cell(k,1); for i=1:k [nextData{:}] = deal(data{i}); H{:,i} = cellfun(@compare,data,nextData,'UniformOutput',false); end Unfortunately, this is not really any faster, because all the time is in compare(). Both of these code examples seem ill-suited for parallelization. I'm having trouble figuring out how to make my variables sliced. compare() is totally vectorized; it uses matrix multiplication and conv2() exclusively (I am under the impression that all of these operations, including the cellfun(), should be multithreaded in MATLAB?). Does anyone see a (explicitly) parallelized solution or better vectorization of the problem?

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  • Conflict with @Html.LabelFor and W3C Validator?

    - by Tyler
    I have a model that I am using to present an index of a model from a database and have given a display name to some of the rows that may need spaces in them, (I.e. "weekstarting" in a db would be given a display name of "Week Starting"). So I set the display name for my model like this: [DisplayName("Week Starting")] public DateTime WeekStarting { get; set; } and then in the table headers for my table I use the following line of code to display the field name using its given display name: @Html.LabelFor(x => x.First().WeekStarting) The above all works fine. But I am using the W3C validator and it is giving me the following error for the example I have given: The for attribute of the label element must refer to a form control. Forgive me if it is obvious but what am I doing wrong here? I am not using a form I am simply displaying an index of items in a table. I have tried to look for an answer and saw someone suggest that the form controls being referred to need ids (even though I'm not using a form) but this would not be applicable in this instance because if I tried to set an id in the index it would be duplicated with each item in the index: foreach (var item in Model.Tbms) { <tr><td>@item.value</td><tr>.... would be repeated for each item, and also unsure where I would put the id in any case, the td? } Or is there a better way to label the field header, with my preferred display name in the first place? I guess I could just swap @Html.LabelFor... for Hard code field name but do I have to?

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  • Why am I needing to click twice on a WPF listbox item in order to fire a command?

    - by Donal
    Hi, I'm trying to make a standard WPF listbox be dynamically filled, and for each item in the list box to launch a command when clicked. Currently I have a working listbox, which can be filled and each item will fire the correct command, but in order to fire the command I have to click the list item twice. i.e, Click once to select the item, then click on the actual text to fire the command. As the list is dynamically created, I had to create a data template for the list items: <ListBox.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <TextBlock Margin="4,2,4,2"> <Hyperlink TextDecorations="None" Command="MyCommands:CommandsRegistry.OpenPanel"> <TextBlock Text="{Binding}" Margin="4,2,4,2"/> </Hyperlink> </TextBlock> </DataTemplate> </ListBox.ItemTemplate> Basically, how do I remove the need to click twice? I have tried to use event triggers to fire the click event on the hyperlink element when the list box item is selected, but I can't get it to work. Or, is there a better approach to dynamically fill a listbox and attach commands to each list item? Thanks

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  • call function inside a nested jquery plugin

    - by tchoesang
    There are many topics related to my question and i have been through most of them, but i haven't got it right. The closest post to my question is the following: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1042072/how-to-call-functions-that-are-nested-inside-a-jquery-plugin Below is the jquery plugin i am using. On resize, the element sizes are recalculated. I am now trying to call the function resizeBind() from outside of the jquery plugin and it gives me error I tried the following combinations to call the function $.fn.splitter().resizeBind() $.fn.splitter.resizeBind() Any ideas, where i am getting wrong? ;(function($){ $.fn.splitter = function(args){ //Other functions ...... $(window).bind("resize", function(){ resizeBind(); }); function resizeBind(){ var top = splitter.offset().top; var wh = $(window).height(); var ww = $(window).width(); var sh = 0; // scrollbar height if (ww <0 && !jQuery.browser.msie ) sh = 17; var footer = parseInt($("#footer").css("height")) || 26; splitter.css("height", wh-top-footer-sh+"px"); $("#tabsRight").css("height", splitter.height()-30+"px"); $(".contentTabs").css("height", splitter.height()-70+"px"); } return this.each(function() { }); }; })(jQuery);

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  • Python: How to transfer varrying length arrays over a network connection

    - by Devin
    Hi, I need to transfer an array of varying length in which each element is a tuple of two integers. As an example: path = [(1,1),(1,2)] path = [(1,1),(1,2),(2,2)] I am trying to use pack and unpack, however, since the array is of varying length I don't know how to create a format such that both know the format. I was trying to turn it into a single string with delimiters, such as: msg = 1&1~1&2~ sendMsg = pack("s",msg) or sendMsg = pack("s",str(msg)) on the receiving side: path = unpack("s",msg) but that just prints 1 in this case. I was also trying to send 4 integers as well, which send and receive fine, so long as I don't include the extra string representing the path. sendMsg = pack("hhhh",p.direction[0],p.direction[1],p.id,p.health) on the receive side: x,y,id,health = unpack("hhhh",msg) The first was for illustration as I was trying to send the format "hhhhs", but either way the path doesn't come through properly. Thank-you for your help. I will also be looking at sending a 2D array of ints, but I can't seem to figure out how to send these more 'complex' structures across the network. Thank-you for your help.

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  • Shrink a cell (in an absolutely-positioned ASP.NET table) to fit its contents?

    - by Giffyguy
    My webpage currently looks like this: <asp:Table runat="server" style="position: absolute; left: 0%; top: 82%; right: 0%; bottom: 0%; width: 100%; height: 18%" CellPadding="0" CellSpacing="0" GridLines="Both"> <asp:TableRow> <asp:TableCell> Content1 </asp:TableCell> <asp:TableCell Width="2.5%"> </asp:TableCell> <asp:TableCell > Content2 </asp:TableCell> </asp:TableRow> </asp:Table> But I need it to look like this: "Content1" is of unknown size, and the table will have to adjust to fit it in, but without taking any unnecessary space away from "Content2." I can't use "display: table" because it isn't supported in IE7 and such, so I'm pretty much stuck using a regular table element unless there is something better out there that is supported in older browsers. Does anyone know how this can be accomplished?

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  • Selenium problem locating by DOM

    - by bartonlee
    Hi, I'm trying to use the DOM to locate a form element in Selenium but I can't get it to work. Even if I use the example in the Selenium documentation it still fails, for example with this html... <html> <body> <form id="loginForm"> <input name="username" type="text" /> <input name="password" type="password" /> <input name="continue" type="submit" value="Login" /> <input name="continue" type="button" value="Clear" /> </form> </body> <html> and this command in the Selenium IDE... verifyElementPresent with target... dom=document.forms['loginForm'] I get [error] false in the log. The 'getElementById' example in the documentation does work, but none of the others. Can someone explain what I'm doing wrong here? Thanks.

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  • jQuery plugin design pattern for using `this` in private methods?

    - by thebossman
    I'm creating jQuery plugins using the pattern from the Plugins Authoring page: (function($) { $.fn.myPlugin = function(settings) { var config = {'foo': 'bar'}; if (settings) $.extend(config, settings); this.each(function() { // element-specific code here }); return this; }; })(jQuery); My code calls for several private methods that manipulate this. I am calling these private methods using the apply(this, arguments) pattern. Is there a way of designing my plugin such that I don't have to call apply to pass this from method to method? My modified plugin code looks roughly like this: (function($) { $.fn.myPlugin = function(settings) { var config = {'foo': 'bar'}; if (settings) $.extend(config, settings); this.each(function() { method1.apply(this); }); return this; }; function method1() { // do stuff with $(this) method2.apply(this); } function method2() { // do stuff with $(this), etc... } })(jQuery);

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  • Java - Image encoding in XML

    - by Hoopla
    Hi everyone, I thought I would find a solution to this problem relatively easily, but here I am calling upon the help from ye gods to pull me out of this conundrum. So, I've got an image and I want to store it in an XML document using Java. I have previously achieved this in VisualBasic by saving the image to a stream, converting the stream to an array, and then VB's xml class was able to encode the array as a base64 string. But, after a couple of hours of scouring the net for an equivalent solution in Java, I've come back empty handed. The only success I have had has been by: import it.sauronsoftware.base64.*; import java.awt.image.BufferedImage; import org.w3c.dom.*; ... BufferedImage img; Element node; ... java.io.ByteArrayOutputStream os = new java.io.ByteArrayOutputStream(); ImageIO.write(img, "png", os); byte[] array = Base64.encode(os.toByteArray()); String ss = arrayToString(array, ","); node.setTextContent(ss); ... private static String arrayToString(byte[] a, String separator) { StringBuffer result = new StringBuffer(); if (a.length > 0) { result.append(a[0]); for (int i=1; i<a.length; i++) { result.append(separator); result.append(a[i]); } } return result.toString(); } Which is okay I guess, but reversing the process to get it back to an image when I load the XML file has proved impossible. If anyone has a better way to encode/decode an image in an XML file, please step forward, even if it's just a link to another thread that would be fine. Cheers in advance, Hoopla.

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  • question about permutation problem

    - by davit-datuashvili
    i have posted similar problem here http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2920315/permutation-of-array but i want following we know that with length n there is n! possible permutation from which one such that all element are in order they are in sorted variant so i want break permutation when array is in order and print result but something is wrong i think that problem is repeated of permutation here is my code import java.util.*; public class permut{ public static Random r=new Random(); public static void display(int a[],int n){ for (int i=0;i<n;i++){ System.out.println(a[i]); } } public static void Permut(int a[],int n){ int j=0; int k=0; while (j<fact(n)){ int s=r.nextInt(n); for (int i=0;i<n;i++){ k=a[i]; a[i]=a[s]; a[s]=k; } j++; if (sorted(a,n)) display(a,n); break; } } public static void main(String[]args){ int a[]=new int[]{3,4,1,2}; int n=a.length; Permut(a,n); } public static int fact(int n){ if (n==0 || (n==1) ) return 1; return n*fact(n-1); } public static boolean sorted(int a[],int n ){ boolean flag=false; for (int i=0;i<n-1;i++){ if (a[i]<a[i+1]){ flag=true; } else{ flag=false; } } return flag; } } can anybody help me? result is nothing

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  • Accessing items at deeper levels using children() in jQuery

    - by favo
    Hi, I want to access a simple button in an unknown nested level of a container. Using container.children('button') allows me to access buttons in the first level, i.e.: <div> <button>test</button> </div> Trying to use the same with the following construct: <div> <div> <button>test</button> </div> </div> .. fails, because the button is not a direct children. I could use element.children().children('button') but the depth of the button can change and this feels too strange. I can also write my own function to iterate thru all children to find what I need, but I guess jQuery does already have selectors for this. So the question is: How can I access children in an unknown depth using jQuery selectors? Thank you all in advance for your feedback!

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  • Finding out inside which iframe a script is executing

    - by juandopazo
    I have a page with several iframes. One of this iframes has a page from a different domain. Inside this iframe there's another iframe with a page from the parent domain. my page from mydomain.com -> an iframe -> iframe "#foo" from another-domain.com> -> iframe "#bar" from mydomain.com -> another iframe I need to get a reference to the "#foo" node inside the main page. The security model should allow me to do that because "#bar" has the same domain as the main page. So what I'm doing is iterating through the window.top array and comparing each element to the window object which is currently the "#bar" window object. My test code looks like: for (var i = 0; i < top.length; i++) { for (var j = 0; j < top[i].length; j++) { if (top[i][j] == window) { alert("The iframe number " + i + " contains me"); } } } This works fine in all browsers, but Internet Explorer 6 throws a security error when accesing top[i][j]. Any ideas on how to solve this on IE6? Thanks!

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  • Single-entry implementation gone wrong

    - by user745434
    I'm doing my first single-entry site and based on the result, I can't see the benefit. I've implemented the following: .htaccess redirects all requests to index.php at the root Url is parsed and each /segment/ is stored as an element in an array First segment indicates which folder to include (e.g. "users" » "/pages/users/index.php"). index.php file of each folder parses the remaining elements in the segments array until array is empty. content.php file of each folder is included if there are no more elements in the segments array, indicating that the destination file is reached Sample File structure ( folders in [] ): [root] index.php [pages] [users] index.php content.php [profile] index.php content.php [edit] index.php content.php [other-page] index.php content.php Request: http://mysite.com/users/profile/ .htaccess redirects request to http://mysite.com/index.php URL is parsed and segments array contains: [1] users, [2] profile index.php maps [1] to "pages/users/index.php", so includes that file pages/users/index.php maps [2] to pages/users/profile/index.php, so includes that file Since no other elements in the segments array, the contents.php file in the current folder (pages/users/profile) is included. I'm not really seeing the benefit of doing this over having functions that include components of the site (e.g. include_header(), include_footer(), etc.), so I conclude that I'm doing something terribly wrong. I'm just not sure what it is.

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  • Does std::vector change its address? How to avoid

    - by kunigami
    Since vector elements are stored contiguously, I guess it may not have the same address after some push_back's , because the initial allocated space could not suffice. I'm working on a code where I need a reference to an element in a vector, like: int main(){ vector<int> v; v.push_back(1); int *ptr = &v[0]; for(int i=2; i<100; i++) v.push_back(i); cout << *ptr << endl; //? return 0; } But it's not necessarily true that ptr contains a reference to v[0], right? How would be a good way to guarantee it? My first idea would be to use a vector of pointers and dynamic allocation. I'm wondering if there's an easier way to do that? PS.: Actually I'm using a vector of a class instead of int, but I think the issues are the same.

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  • jQuery .height() property not working

    - by Andrew
    I'm attempting to get the height of an element using jQuery, but am receiving some unexpected results. Here's the code: $(function() { var contentheight = $('#subpage-content-small').height; alert(contentheight); }); Where #subpage-content-small has these CSS properties: #subpage-content-small { width: 400px; float: left; margin: 30px 10px 0 0; padding-bottom: 45px; } What I'm getting as an output for my alert is the following: function (f) { var e = this[0]; if (!e) { return f == null ? null : this; } if (c.isFunction(f)) { return this.each(function (j) {var i = c(this);i[d](f.call(this, j, i[d]()));}); } return "scrollTo" in e && e.document ? e.document.compatMode === "CSS1Compat" && e.document.documentElement["client" + b] || e.document.body["client" + b] : e.nodeType === 9 ? Math.max(e.documentElement["client" + b], e.body["scroll" + b], e.documentElement["scroll" + b], e.body["offset" + b], e.documentElement["offset" + b]) : f === w ? c.css(e, d) : this.css(d, typeof f === "string" ? f : f + "px"); } Any idea why I'm getting this as opposed to an integer of the height? Thanks in advance!

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  • Java Swing: How to add a CellRenderer for displaying a Date?

    - by HansDampf
    I have a Table: public class AppointmentTableModel extends AbstractTableModel { private int columns; private int rows; ArrayList<Appointment> appointments;... So each row of the table contains one Appointment. public class Appointment { private Date date; private Sample sample; private String comment; private ArrayList<Action> history; public Appointment(Date date, Sample sample, String comment) { this.date = date; this.sample = sample; this.comment = comment; this.history = new ArrayList<Action>(); } public Object getByColumn(int columnIndex) { switch (columnIndex) { case 0: return date;//Date: dd:mm:yyyy case 1: return date;//Time mm:hh case 2: return sample;//sample.getID() int (sampleID) case 3: return sample;//sample.getNumber string (telephone number) case 4: return sample;//sample.getName string (name of the person) case 5: return history;//newst element in history as a string case 6: return comment;//comment as string } return null; I added in comments what this one is going to mean. How would I create CellRenderers to display it like this. table.getColumnModel().getColumn(1).setCellRenderer(new DateRenderer()); I also want to add the whole row to be painted in red when the date is later then the current date. And then another column that holds a JButton to open up another screen with the corresponding Appointment as parameter.

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  • Array Assignment

    - by Mahesh
    Let me explain with an example - #include <iostream> void foo( int a[2], int b[2] ) // I understand that, compiler doesn't bother about the // array index and converts them to int *a, int *b { a = b ; // At this point, how ever assignment operation is valid. } int main() { int a[] = { 1,2 }; int b[] = { 3,4 }; foo( a, b ); a = b; // Why is this invalid here. return 0; } Is it because, array decays to a pointer when passed to a function foo(..), assignment operation is possible. And in main, is it because they are of type int[] which invalidates the assignment operation. Doesn't a,b in both the cases mean the same ? Thanks. Edit 1: When I do it in a function foo, it's assigning the b's starting element location to a. So, thinking in terms of it, what made the language developers not do the same in main(). Want to know the reason.

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  • How to import properties of an external API into Script#

    - by AndrewDotHay
    I'm using Script# inside Visual Studio 2010 to import the API for the HTML5 Canvas element. Its working great for things like FillRect(), MoveTo(), LineTo() and so on. I've declared the following interface and then I can code against it in C#. Then, Script# converts it to JavaScript nicely. public interface CanvasContext { void FillRect(int x, int y, int width, int height); void BeginPath(); void MoveTo(int x, int y); void LineTo(int x, int y); void Stroke(); void FillText(string text, int x, int y); } I want to include the StrokeStyle property that takes a simple string. The following interface definition produces a prefix in the JavaScript, which causes it to fail. string StrokeStyle { get; set; } string Font { get; set; } The previous property will create this JavaScript: ctx.set_strokeStyle('#FF0'); How can I get Script# to generate the simple assignment properties of the canvas context without the get_/set_ prefix?

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  • How to override jquery's show() and hide() functions

    - by Max Williams
    hi all Short version of question: see title Long version of question: I've used jquery's show() and hide() functions extensively in my code and just encountered a bit of a problem: they work by changing the display attribute of the element to 'block' or 'none' respectively, so that if you have somethin that has display: inline and then hide and show it, you've changed its display to block, which screws up the layout in a couple of cases. In my code, whenever i want something to be hidden initially i give it a class 'hidden'. This class is simply {display: none}. I'd like the change show and hide to remove or add this class, instead of directly changing the display attribute, so that if you add the hidden class and then remove it again (ie hide and show something) then it's back to exactly how it was to start off with (since adding a class overrides the attributes rather than directly changing them). Something like this (this is a little pseucodey as i don't know how to set the function up properly - let's assume that 'this' is the object that show/hide was called on) function show(){ this.removeClass("hidden"); } function hide(){ this.addClass("hidden"); } how and where would i go about overriding the jquery methods? (I'm not a javascript expert) thanks - max

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  • Javascript object properties access functions in parent constructor?

    - by Bob Spryn
    So I'm using this pretty standard jquery plugin pattern whereby you can grab an api after applying the jquery function to a specific instance. This API is essentially a javascript object with a bunch of methods and data. So I wanted to essentially create some private internal methods for the object only to manipulate data etc, which just doesn't need to be available as part of the API. So I tried this: // API returned with new $.TranslationUI(options, container) $.TranslationUI = function (options, container) { // private function? function monkey(){ console.log("blah blah blah"); } // extend the default settings with the options object passed this.settings = $.extend({},$.TranslationUI.defaultSettings,options); // set a reference for the container dom element this.container = container; // call the init function this.init(); }; The problem I'm running into is that init can't call that function "monkey". I'm not understanding the explanation behind why it can't. Is it because init is a prototype method?($.TranslationUI's prototype is extended with a bunch of methods including init elsewhere in the code) $.extend($.TranslationUI, { prototype: { init : function(){ // doesn't work monkey(); // editing flag this.editing = false; // init event delegates here for // languagepicker $(this.settings.languageSelector, this.container).bind("click", {self: this}, this.selectLanguage); } } }); Any explanations would be helpful. Would love other thoughts on creating private methods with this model too. These particular functions don't HAVE to be in prototype, and I don't NEED private methods protected from being used externally, but I want to know how should I have that requirement in the future.

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  • Override one css class with another?

    - by user246114
    Hi, I have a list, with an li style defined. I want to replace the style of an individual element, but it doesn't seem to have any visual effect. Example: .myList li { background-color: yellow; } .foo { background-color: green; } <ul class='myList'> <li>Hello</li> </ul> When I add an item to the list, it has the .myList li style applied properly. I try now to remove all styles and apply the foo style to a single item (using jquery): $(item).removeClass(); $(item).addClass("foo"); the item does not change color to green though, but this reports the class is set to 'foo': alert($(item).attr('class')); so I guess I'm not understanding css rules here, looks like the li class definition is just overriding whatever else I do, however I want the reverse to be true, I want to override the li style definition with foo. How do we do this? Thanks

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