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  • How can give validation on custom registration form in drupal?

    - by Nitz
    Hey Friends, I have created custom registration form in drupal 6. i have used changed the behavior of the drupal registration page by adding this code in themes. template file function earthen_theme($existing, $type, $theme, $path) { return array( // tell Drupal what template to use for the user register form 'user_register' => array( 'arguments' => array('form' => NULL), 'template' => 'user_register', // this is the name of the template ), ); } and my user_register.tpl.php file is looking like this... //php tag starts from here $forms['access'] = array( '#type' = 'fieldset', '#title' = t('Access log settings'), ); $form['my_text_field']=array( '#type' = 'textfield', '#default_value' = $node-title, '#size' = 30, '#maxlength' = 50, '#required' = TRUE ); <div id="registration_form"><br> <div class="field"> <?php print drupal_render($form['my_text_field']); // prints the username field ?> </div> <div class="field"> <?php print drupal_render($form['account']['name']); // prints the username field ?> </div> <div class="field"> <?php print drupal_render($form['account']['pass']); // print the password field ?> </div> <div class="field"> <?php print drupal_render($form['account']['email']); // print the password field ?> </div> <div class="field"> <?php print drupal_render($form['submit']); // print the submit button ?> </div> </div> How to make validation on "my_text_field" which is custmized. and exactly i want that as soon as user click on my_text_field then datetime picker should be open and whichever date user select, that date should be value in my_text_field. so guys help. Thanks in advance, nitish Panchjanya Corporation

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  • Which part of this simple script is breaking internet explorer?

    - by user961627
    I'm writing a simple virtual keyboard for Arabic (indic) digits. Just links that, when clicked, produce the corresponding Unicode Indic character. The following is my HTML, in the body tag: <a href="#" id='start'>Start</a> <div id='vkb' style='padding:20px;font-size:16pt; border:2px solid #eee; width:250px' dir='ltr'> <a class='key' href='#' id='0'>&#1632;</a> <a class='key' href='#' id='1'>&#1633;</a> <a class='key' href='#' id='2'>&#1634;</a> <a class='key' href='#' id='3'>&#1635;</a> <a class='key' href='#' id='4'>&#1636;</a><br /> <a class='key' href='#' id='5'>&#1637;</a> <a class='key' href='#' id='6'>&#1638;</a> <a class='key' href='#' id='7'>&#1639;</a> <a class='key' href='#' id='8'>&#1640;</a> <a class='key' href='#' id='9'>&#1641;</a> <br /> <a href="#" id='stop'>Stop</a> </div> <div id='output' /></div> This is my CSS: a { text-decoration:none; } .key { padding:7px; background-color:#fff; margin:5px; border:2px solid #eee; display:inline-block; } .key:hover { background-color:#eee; } And this is my javascript: <script type="text/javascript" src="js/jquery.js"></script> <script> $(document).ready(function(){ var toprint = ""; $('#vkb').hide(); $('#start').click(function(e){ toprint = ""; $('#vkb').show(); }); $('#stop').click(function(e){ $('#vkb').hide(); ret = ar2ind(toprint); $('#output').text(ret); toprint = ""; }); $('#vkb').click(function(e){ var $key = $(e.target).closest('.key'); var pressed = $key.attr('id'); if(pressed === undefined){ pressed = ""; } toprint = toprint + pressed; }); }); function ar2ind(str) { str = str.replace(/0/g, "?"); str = str.replace(/1/g, "?"); str = str.replace(/2/g, "?"); str = str.replace(/3/g, "?"); str = str.replace(/4/g, "?"); str = str.replace(/5/g, "?"); str = str.replace(/6/g, "?"); str = str.replace(/7/g, "?"); str = str.replace(/8/g, "?"); str = str.replace(/9/g, "?"); return str; } </script> It seems simple enough but it's crashing in IE9. (Might be crashing in earlier versions too but haven't been able to check.)

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  • SharedObject (Flex 3.2) behaving unexpectedly when query string present in URL

    - by rhtx
    Summary: The behavior detailed below seems to indicate that if your app at www.someplace.com sets/retrieves data via a SharedObject, there is some sort of .sol collision if the user hits your app at someplace.com, and then later at someplace.com?name=value. Can anyone confirm or refute this? I'm working on a Flex web app that presents the user with a login page. When the user has logged in, he/she is presented with a 'room' which is associated with a 'group'. We store the last-visited room/group combination in a SharedObject - so when a given user logs in, they are taken into the most recent room in which they were active. That works fine, but we also have an auto-login system which involves the user clicking on a link to the app url with a query string attached. There are two types of these links. 1) the query string includes username, groupId, and roomId 2) the query string includes only the username Because we are working fast and have only a few developers, the auto-login system is built on the last-vist system. During the auto-login process, the url is inspected and if groupId and roomId values are found in the query string, the SharedObject is opened and the last-visit group/room id values are overwritten by the param values. That works fine, also, when the app is hit with a query string of the second type (no groupId and roomId params), the app goes to the SharedObject to get the stored room and group id values, as it normally would. And here's the problem: The values it comes back with are whatever the last room/group param values were, not whatever the last last-visit room/group values are. And if the given user has never hit the app with query string that included group and room id values, the app gets null values from the SharedObject. It took some digging around, but what it looks like is happening is that a second set of data is being stored/expected in the SharedObject if a query string is present in the URL. Looking at the .sol file in a text editor I see more untranslated code, and additional group and room values, once I've hit the app with URLs that contain query strings. I'm not finding anything on the web about this, but that may just be due to a lack of necessary search skills. Has anyone else run into anything similar? Or do you know how to address this? I've tried setting Security.exactSettings to false, already - was really hoping that was going to work.

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  • Why does SFINAE not apply to this?

    - by Simon Buchan
    I'm writing some simple point code while trying out Visual Studio 10 (Beta 2), and I've hit this code where I would expect SFINAE to kick in, but it seems not to: template<typename T> struct point { T x, y; point(T x, T y) : x(x), y(y) {} }; template<typename T, typename U> struct op_div { typedef decltype(T() / U()) type; }; template<typename T, typename U> point<typename op_div<T, U>::type> operator/(point<T> const& l, point<U> const& r) { return point<typename op_div<T, U>::type>(l.x / r.x, l.y / r.y); } template<typename T, typename U> point<typename op_div<T, U>::type> operator/(point<T> const& l, U const& r) { return point<typename op_div<T, U>::type>(l.x / r, l.y / r); } int main() { point<int>(0, 1) / point<float>(2, 3); } This gives error C2512: 'point<T>::point' : no appropriate default constructor available Given that it is a beta, I did a quick sanity check with the online comeau compiler, and it agrees with an identical error, so it seems this behavior is correct, but I can't see why. In this case some workarounds are to simply inline the decltype(T() / U()), to give the point class a default constructor, or to use decltype on the full result expression, but I got this error while trying to simplify an error I was getting with a version of op_div that did not require a default constructor*, so I would rather fix my understanding of C++ rather than to just do what works. Thanks! *: the original: template<typename T, typename U> struct op_div { static T t(); static U u(); typedef decltype(t() / u()) type; }; Which gives error C2784: 'point<op_div<T,U>::type> operator /(const point<T> &,const U &)' : could not deduce template argument for 'const point<T> &' from 'int', and also for the point<T> / point<U> overload.

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  • OpenGL suppresses exceptions in MFC dialog-based application

    - by Mikhail
    Hello. I have an MFC-driven dialog-based application created with MSVS2005. Here is my problem step by step. I have button on my dialog and corresponding click-handler with code like this: int* i = 0; *i = 3; I'm running debug version of program and when I click on the button, Visual Studio catches focus and alerts "Access violation writing location" exception, program cannot recover from the error and all I can do is to stop debugging. And this is the right behavior. Now I add some OpenGL initialization code in the OnInitDialog() method: HDC DC = GetDC(GetSafeHwnd()); static PIXELFORMATDESCRIPTOR pfd = { sizeof(PIXELFORMATDESCRIPTOR), // size of this pfd 1, // version number PFD_DRAW_TO_WINDOW | // support window PFD_SUPPORT_OPENGL | // support OpenGL PFD_DOUBLEBUFFER, // double buffered PFD_TYPE_RGBA, // RGBA type 24, // 24-bit color depth 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, // color bits ignored 0, // no alpha buffer 0, // shift bit ignored 0, // no accumulation buffer 0, 0, 0, 0, // accum bits ignored 32, // 32-bit z-buffer 0, // no stencil buffer 0, // no auxiliary buffer PFD_MAIN_PLANE, // main layer 0, // reserved 0, 0, 0 // layer masks ignored }; int pixelformat = ChoosePixelFormat(DC, &pfd); SetPixelFormat(DC, pixelformat, &pfd); HGLRC hrc = wglCreateContext(DC); ASSERT(hrc != NULL); wglMakeCurrent(DC, hrc); Of course this is not exactly what I do, it is the simplified version of my code. Well now the strange things begin to happen: all initialization is fine, there are no errors in OnInitDialog(), but when I click the button... no exception is thrown. Nothing happens. At all. If I set a break-point at the *i = 3; and press F11 on it, the handler-function halts immediately and focus is returned to the application, which continue to work well. I can click button again and the same thing will happen. It seems like someone had handled occurred exception of access violation and silently returned execution into main application message-receiving cycle. If I comment the line wglMakeCurrent(DC, hrc);, all works fine as before, exception is thrown and Visual Studio catches it and shows window with error message and program must be terminated afterwards. I experience this problem under Windows 7 64-bit, NVIDIA GeForce 8800 with latest drivers (of 11.01.2010) available at website installed. My colleague has Windows Vista 32-bit and has no such problem - exception is thrown and application crashes in both cases. Well, hope good guys will help me :) PS The problem originally where posted under this topic.

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  • Accessing different connection strings at runtime in ASP.NET MVC 1

    - by Neil T.
    I'm trying to implement integration testing in my ASP.NET MVC 1.0 solution. The technologies in use are LINQ-to-SQL, NUnit and WatiN. I recently discovered a pattern that will allow me to create a testing version of the database on the fly without modifying the development version of the database. I needed this behavior in order to run my user interface tests in WatiN that may modify the database. The plan is to modify the connection string in the Web.config file, and pass that new connection string to the DataContext constructor. This way, I don't have to add routes or modify my URLs in order to perform the integration testing. I've set up the project so that the test setup can modify the connection string to point to the test database when the tests are running. The connection string is stored in web.config. The problem I'm having is that when I try to run the tests, I get a NullReferenceException when trying to access the HTTPContext. From everything that I have read so far, the HTTPContext is only available within the context of a controller. Here is the code for the property that is supposed to give me the reference to the Web.config file: private System.Configuration.Configuration WebConfig { get { ExeConfigurationFileMap fileMap = new ExeConfigurationFileMap(); // NullReferenceException occurs on this line. fileMap.ExeConfigFilename = HttpContext.Current.Server.MapPath("~\\web.config"); System.Configuration.Configuration config = ConfigurationManager.OpenMappedExeConfiguration(fileMap, ConfigurationUserLevel.None); return config; } } Is there something that I am missing in order to make this work? Is there a better way to accomplish what I'm trying to achieve? UPDATE: I decided to abandon the modification of Web.config in lieu of a "request-scoped DataContext" pattern that I found here. From the looks of it, I believe it should give me the results I'm looking for. However, during the TextFixtureSetUp, I try to create a new copy of the database for testing purposes, and it fails silently. When I get to the tests, the repository still uses the production database connection string to load data.

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  • How does NameScope in WPF works ?

    - by Nicolas Dorier
    I'm having a strange behavior with NameScopes in WPF, I have created a CustomControl called FadingPopup which is a child class of Window with nothing special inside. <Window.Resources> <local:FadingPopup> <Button Name="prec" Content="ahah"></Button> <Button Content="{Binding ElementName=prec, Path=Content}"></Button> </local:FadingPopup> </Window.Resources> In this snippet, the binding doesn't work (always empty). If I move these buttons from the resources to the content of the window like this : <Window ...> <Button Name="prec" Content="ahah"></Button> <Button Content="{Binding ElementName=prec, Path=Content}"></Button> </Window> The binding works as expected. Now, I have tried a mix between these two snippets : <Window...> <Window.Resources> <local:FadingPopup> <Button Name="prec" Content="Haha"></Button> </local:FadingPopup> </Window.Resources> <Button Content="{Binding ElementName=prec, Path=Content}"></Button> </Window> It works as well. Apparently, if the button prec is in the resources it registers itself in the NameScope of the Window. BUT, it seems that the Binding tries to resolve ElementName with the NameScope of the FadingPopup (which is null), thus the binding doesn't work... My first snipped works well if I specify a NameScope in my class FadingPopup : static FadingPopup() { NameScope.NameScopeProperty.OverrideMetadata(typeof(FadingPopup), new PropertyMetadata(new NameScope())); } But I don't like this solution because I don't understand why, in the first snippet, prec is registered in the NameScope of Window, but ElementName is resolved with the NameScope of FadingGroup (which is null by default)... Does someone can explain to me what is going on ? Why my first snippet doesn't work, if I don't specify a default NameScope for FadingGroup ?

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  • Unknown error sourcing a script containing 'typeset -r' wrapped in command substitution

    - by Bernard Assaf
    I wish to source a script, print the value of a variable this script defines, and then have this value be assigned to a variable on the command line with command substitution wrapping the source/print commands. This works on ksh88 but not on ksh93 and I am wondering why. $ cat typeset_err.ksh #!/bin/ksh unset _typeset_var typeset -i -r _typeset_var=1 DIR=init # this is the variable I want to print When run on ksh88 (in this case, an AIX 6.1 box), the output is as follows: $ A=$(. ./typeset_err.ksh; print $DIR) $ echo $A init When run on ksh93 (in this case, a Linux machine), the output is as follows: $ A=$(. ./typeset_err.ksh; print $DIR) -ksh: _typeset_var: is read only $ print $A ($A is undefined) The above is just an example script. The actual thing I wish to accomplish is to source a script that sets values to many variables, so that I can print just one of its values, e.g. $DIR, and have $A equal that value. I do not know in advance the value of $DIR, but I need to copy files to $DIR during execution of a different batch script. Therefore the idea I had was to source the script in order to define its variables, print the one I wanted, then have that print's output be assigned to another variable via $(...) syntax. Admittedly a bit of a hack, but I don't want to source the entire sub-script in the batch script's environment because I only need one of its variables. The typeset -r code in the beginning is the error. The script I'm sourcing contains this in order to provide a semaphore of sorts--to prevent the script from being sourced more than once in the environment. (There is an if statement in the real script that checks for _typeset_var = 1, and exits if it is already set.) So I know I can take this out and get $DIR to print fine, but the constraints of the problem include keeping the typeset -i -r. In the example script I put an unset in first, to ensure _typeset_var isn't already defined. By the way I do know that it is not possible to unset a typeset -r variable, according to ksh93's man page for ksh. There are ways to code around this error. The favorite now is to not use typeset, but just set the semaphore without typeset (e.g. _typeset_var=1), but the error with the code as-is remains as a curiosity to me, and I want to see if anyone can explain why this is happening. By the way, another idea I abandoned was to grep the variable I need out of its containing script, then print that one variable for $A to be set to; however, the variable ($DIR in the example above) might be set to another variable's value (e.g. DIR=$dom/init), and that other variable might be defined earlier in the script; therefore, I need to source the entire script to make sure I all variables are defined so that $DIR is correctly defined when sourcing.

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  • How can I capture the keystroke that triggers "CellEndEdit" on a DataGridView in C#?

    - by Andy Stampor
    I have a DataGridView that is set to EditOnF2. I do some special processing of data in the CellEndEdit eventhandler that sets the value of the cell. I still want the functionality of the EditOnKeystrokeOrF2 of reverting to the original value when the Esc key is pressed. Unfortunately, at the CellEndEdit eventhandler, I don't see a way to tell what caused the CellEndEdit event to be fired. I only want to change the value of the cell if the Esc key is not pressed. How can I tell if it was or not? Edit: It is worth noting that the KeyDown event does not get fired when the cell is being edited, nor for the final ending keystroke. Edit2: I have tried the KeyPreview suggestion, but the form still does not capture the Escape key being pressed. Edit3: I've been experimenting with trying to get this working. I originally posted some of the following as a separate post, but feel it might be more relevant to include it here. I have a cell in a DataGridView that is now set to EditProgrammatically. To capture the keystroke that starts an edit, I am setting the cell.Value equal to the keystroke. However, this ruins the "Escape" functionality of the cell - when you press escape, instead of reverting to the original value, it reverts to the keystroke that I programmatically inserted into the cell. I believe that if I could set the "EditedFormattedValue" on a cell, this would be where I want to put my keystroke value, however this appears to be read only. How can I accomplish what I am attempting? An example to clarify: If the cell has a value of "54.3" in it, and I press the "9" key, it begins editing the cell and places a "9" there. If I hit Escape, instead of reverting to "54.3" it reverts to "9". What I want is for it to return to its original value of "54.3". So, I am trying to tackle this issue from both the beginning and the end. I think the real problem is that I am overwriting the original value and have no way to determine if I should revert it or not. Edit4: It looks like CellValidating might be worth using, but I am seeing strange behavior when I experiment with it. In a new project, I create the DataGridView and register for the various events and see that CellValidating is fired before the CellEndEdit. However, in my project where I am trying to get this to work, CellEndEdit is firing BEFORE CellValidating. Any ideas on what the difference might be?

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  • Setting value for autocomplete search field linked to Google Places API

    - by user1653350
    I have a web page where people will be able to enter multiple destinations. When they state they want to enter a new destination, the current field values are stored in arrays. If they choose to go back to a previous destination, the relevant values are reinserted into the form fields. I am using the search field linked to autocomplete as the visible display of the destination. When I attempt to put a value into the linked search field, the value is presented as if it is a placeholder instead of a value. Enter the field and the value is removed by the onFocus() event of the Google Places autocomplete add-in. How can I reinsert the value and have it recognised as a value instead of placeholder. field definition in the form <label for="GoogleDestSrch" class="inputText">Destination: <span id="DestinationDisplay2">1</span> <span class="required"><font size="5"> * </font></span></label> <input id="GoogleDestSrch" type="text" size="50" placeholder="Please enter your destination" /> initialise code for Google Places API listener var input = document.getElementById('GoogleDestSrch'); var autocomplete = new google.maps.places.Autocomplete(input); google.maps.event.addListener(autocomplete, 'place_changed', function() { fillInAddress(); }); attempting to reinsert value into search field when prior destination reloaded form.GoogleDestSrch.value = GoogleDestSrch[index]; Issue With Google Places <script language="JavaScript" type="text/javascript"> function GotoDestination(index) { var domove = true; if (index == 0) { index = lastIndex + 1; } else { if (index == -1) { index = lastIndex - 1; if (index == 0) { index = 1; domove = false; } } } if (domove) { if (index != lastIndex) { var doc = window.document; var pdbutton = doc.getElementById("pdbutton"); var pdbutton1 = doc.getElementById("pdbutton1"); if ((index > lastIndex)) { // move to next destination saveDataF(lastIndex); loadDataF(index); lastIndex = index; } else if (index <= lastIndex) { // move to previous destination saveDataF(lastIndex); loadDataF(index); lastIndex = index; } } } } var input; var autocomplete; // fill in the Google metadata when a destination is selected function fillInAddress() { var strFullValue = ''; var strFullGeoValue = ''; var place = autocomplete.getPlace(); document.getElementById("GoogleType").value = place.types[0]; } function saveDataF(index) { var fieldValue; var blankSearch = "Please enter"; // placeholder text for Google Places fieldValue = document.getElementById("GoogleDestSrch").value; if (fieldValue.indexOf(blankSearch) > -1) { fieldValue = ""; } GoogleDestSrch[index] = fieldValue; } function loadDataF(index) { if ((GoogleDestSrch[index] + "") == "undefined") { document.getElementById("GoogleDestSrch").value = ""; } else { document.getElementById("GoogleDestSrch").value = GoogleDestSrch[index]; } } // -- Destination: 1 * Type of place // input = document.getElementById('GoogleDestSrch'); autocomplete = new google.maps.places.Autocomplete(input); google.maps.event.addListener(autocomplete, 'place_changed', function () { fillInAddress(); }); //]]

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  • Share a "deep link" from a Windows 8/WinRT application

    - by Dave Parker
    I have searched using many different terms and phrases, and waded through many pages of results, but I have (remarkably) not seen anyone else addressing, even asking, about, this issue. So here goes... Ultimate Goal: Allow a user viewing a content-based page (may contain both text and images) within a Windows Store app to share that content with someone else. Description I am working on taking a fair amount of content and making it available for browsing/navigating as a Windows 8/WinRT/Windows Store (we need a consistent name here) application. One of the desired features is to take advantage of the Share Charm, such that someone viewing a page could share that page with someone else. The ideal behavior is for the application to implement the Share Source contract which would share an email message that contained some explanatory text, a link to get the app from the Windows Store, and a "deep link" into the shared page in the application. Solutions Considered We had originally looked at just generating a PDF representation of the page, but there are very few external libraries that would work under WinRT, and having to include externally licensed code would be problematic as well. Writing our own PDF generation code would out of scope. We have also considered generating a Word document or PowerPoint slide using OpenXML, but again, we run up against the limitaions of WinRT. In this case, it is highly unlikely the OpenXML SDK is useable in a WinRT application. Another thought was to pre-generate all of the pages as .pdf files, store them as resources, and when the Share Charm is invoked, share the .pdf file associated with the current page. The problem here is the application will have at least 150 content pages, and depending on how we break the content down, up to over 600. This would likely cause serious bloat. Where We Are At Thus we have come to sharing URIs. From what I can tell, though, the "deep linking" feature is only intended for use on Secondary Tiles tied to your application. Another avenue I considered was registering a protocol like, "my-special-app:" with the OS and having it fire up the application but that would require HKCR registry access, which is outside the WinRT sandbox. If it matters, we are leaning towards an HTML/JS application, rather than XAML/C#, because the converted content will all be in HTML and the WebView control in WinRT is fairly limited. This decision is not yet final, though. Conclusion So, is this possible, and if so, how would it be done or where can I find documentation on it? Thanks, Dave Parker

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  • Excel UDF calculation should return 'original' value

    - by LeChe
    Hi all, I've been struggling with a VBA problem for a while now and I'll try to explain it as thoroughly as possible. I have created a VSTO plugin with my own RTD implementation that I am calling from my Excel sheets. To avoid having to use the full-fledged RTD syntax in the cells, I have created a UDF that hides that API from the sheet. The RTD server I created can be enabled and disabled through a button in a custom Ribbon component. The behavior I want to achieve is as follows: If the server is disabled and a reference to my function is entered in a cell, I want the cell to display Disabled If the server is disabled, but the function had been entered in a cell when it was enabled (and the cell thus displays a value), I want the cell to keep displaying that value If the server is enabled, I want the cell to display Loading Sounds easy enough. Here is an example of the - non functional - code: Public Function RetrieveData(id as Long) Dim result as String // This returns either 'Disabled' or 'Loading' result = Application.Worksheet.Function.RTD("SERVERNAME", "", id) RetrieveData = result If(result = "Disabled") Then // Obviously, this recurses (and fails), so that's not an option If(Not IsEmpty(Application.Caller.Value2)) Then // So does this RetrieveData = Application.Caller.Value2 End If End If End Function The function will be called in thousands of cells, so storing the 'original' values in another data structure would be a major overhead and I would like to avoid it. Also, the RTD server does not know the values, since it also does not keep a history of it, more or less for the same reason. I was thinking that there might be some way to exit the function which would force it to not change the displayed value, but so far I have been unable to find anything like that. Any ideas on how to solve this are greatly appreciated! Thanks, Che EDIT: By popular demand, some additional info on why I want to do all this: As I said, the function will be called in thousands of cells and the RTD server needs to retrieve quite a bit of information. This can be quite hard on both network and CPU. To allow the user to decide for himself whether he wants this load on his machine, he or she can disable the updates from the server. In that case, he or she should still be able to calculate the sheets with the values currently in the fields, yet no updates are pushed into them. Once new data is required, the server can be enabled and the fields will be updated. Again, since we are talking about quite a bit of data here, I would rather not store it somewhere in the sheet. Plus, the data should be usable even if the workbook is closed and loaded again.

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  • CLR 4.0 inlining policy? (maybe bug with MethodImplOptions.NoInlining)

    - by ControlFlow
    I've testing some new CLR 4.0 behavior in method inlining (cross-assembly inlining) and found some strage results: Assembly ClassLib.dll: using System.Diagnostics; using System; using System.Reflection; using System.Security; using System.Runtime.CompilerServices; namespace ClassLib { public static class A { static readonly MethodInfo GetExecuting = typeof(Assembly).GetMethod("GetExecutingAssembly"); public static Assembly Foo(out StackTrace stack) // 13 bytes { // explicit call to GetExecutingAssembly() stack = new StackTrace(); return Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly(); } public static Assembly Bar(out StackTrace stack) // 25 bytes { // reflection call to GetExecutingAssembly() stack = new StackTrace(); return (Assembly) GetExecuting.Invoke(null, null); } public static Assembly Baz(out StackTrace stack) // 9 bytes { stack = new StackTrace(); return null; } public static Assembly Bob(out StackTrace stack) // 13 bytes { // call of non-inlinable method! return SomeSecurityCriticalMethod(out stack); } [SecurityCritical, MethodImpl(MethodImplOptions.NoInlining)] static Assembly SomeSecurityCriticalMethod(out StackTrace stack) { stack = new StackTrace(); return Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly(); } } } Assembly ConsoleApp.exe using System; using ClassLib; using System.Diagnostics; class Program { static void Main() { Console.WriteLine("runtime: {0}", Environment.Version); StackTrace stack; Console.WriteLine("Foo: {0}\n{1}", A.Foo(out stack), stack); Console.WriteLine("Bar: {0}\n{1}", A.Bar(out stack), stack); Console.WriteLine("Baz: {0}\n{1}", A.Baz(out stack), stack); Console.WriteLine("Bob: {0}\n{1}", A.Bob(out stack), stack); } } Results: runtime: 4.0.30128.1 Foo: ClassLib, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null at ClassLib.A.Foo(StackTrace& stack) at Program.Main() Bar: ClassLib, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null at ClassLib.A.Bar(StackTrace& stack) at Program.Main() Baz: at Program.Main() Bob: ClassLib, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null at Program.Main() So questions are: Why JIT does not inlined Foo and Bar calls as Baz does? They are lower than 32 bytes of IL and are good candidates for inlining. Why JIT inlined call of Bob and inner call of SomeSecurityCriticalMethod that is marked with the [MethodImpl(MethodImplOptions.NoInlining)] attribute? Why GetExecutingAssembly returns a valid assembly when is called by inlined Baz and SomeSecurityCriticalMethod methods? I've expect that it performs the stack walk to detect the executing assembly, but stack will contains only Program.Main() call and no methods of ClassLib assenbly, to ConsoleApp should be returned.

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  • Postgresql: Implicit lock acquisition from foreign-key constraint evaluation

    - by fennec
    So, I'm being confused about foreign key constraint handling in Postgresql. (version 8.4.4, for what it's worth). We've got a couple of tables, mildly anonymized below: device: (id, blah, blah, blah, blah, blah x 50)… primary key on id whooooole bunch of other junk device_foo: (id, device_id, left, right) Foreign key (device_id) references device(id) on delete cascade; primary key on id btree index on 'left' and 'right' So I set out with two database windows to run some queries. db1> begin; lock table device in exclusive mode; db2> begin; update device_foo set left = left + 1; The db2 connection blocks. It seems odd to me that an update of the 'left' column on device_stuff should be affected by activity on the device table. But it is. In fact, if I go back to db1: db1> select * from device_stuff for update; *** deadlock occurs *** The pgsql log has the following: blah blah blah deadlock blah. CONTEXT: SQL statement "SELECT 1 FROM ONLY "public"."device" x WHERE "id" OPERATOR(pg_catalog.=) $1 FOR SHARE OF X: update device_foo set left = left + 1; I suppose I've got two issues: the first is that I don't understand the precise mechanism by which this sort of locking occurs. I have got a couple of useful queries to query pg_locks to see what sort of locks a statement invokes, but I haven't been able to observe this particular sort of locking when I run the update device_foo command in isolation. (Perhaps I'm doing something wrong, though.) I also can't find any documentation on the lock acquisition behavior of foreign-key constraint checks. All I have is a log message. Am I to infer from this that any change to a row will acquire an update lock on all the tables which it's foreign-keyed against? The second issue is that I'd like to find some way to make it not happen like that. I'm ending up with occasional deadlocks in the actual application. I'd like to be able to run big update statements that impact all rows on device_foo without acquiring a big lock on the device table. (There's a lot of access going on in the device table, and it's kind of an expensive lock to get.)

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  • Foreign Key Relationships and "belongs to many"

    - by jan
    I have the following model: S belongs to T T has many S A,B,C,D,E (etc) have 1 T each, so the T should belong to each of A,B,C,D,E (etc) At first I set up my foreign keys so that in A, fk_a_t would be the foreign key on A.t to T(id), in B it'd be fk_b_t, etc. Everything looks fine in my UML (using MySQLWorkBench), but generating the yii models results in it thinking that T has many A,B,C,D (etc) which to me is the reverse. It sounds to me like either I need to have A_T, B_T, C_T (etc) tables, but this would be a pain as there are a lot of tables that have this relationship. I've also googled that the better way to do this would be some sort of behavior, such that A,B,C,D (etc) can behave as a T, but I'm not clear on exactly how to do this (I will continue to google more on this) What do you think is the better solution? UML: Here's the DDL (auto generated). Just pretend that there is more than 3 tables referencing T. -- ----------------------------------------------------- -- Table `mydb`.`T` -- ----------------------------------------------------- CREATE TABLE IF NOT EXISTS `mydb`.`T` ( `id` INT NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT , PRIMARY KEY (`id`) ) ENGINE = InnoDB; -- ----------------------------------------------------- -- Table `mydb`.`S` -- ----------------------------------------------------- CREATE TABLE IF NOT EXISTS `mydb`.`S` ( `id` INT NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT , `thing` VARCHAR(45) NULL , `t` INT NOT NULL , PRIMARY KEY (`id`) , INDEX `fk_S_T` (`id` ASC) , CONSTRAINT `fk_S_T` FOREIGN KEY (`id` ) REFERENCES `mydb`.`T` (`id` ) ON DELETE NO ACTION ON UPDATE NO ACTION) ENGINE = InnoDB; -- ----------------------------------------------------- -- Table `mydb`.`A` -- ----------------------------------------------------- CREATE TABLE IF NOT EXISTS `mydb`.`A` ( `id` INT NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT , `T` INT NOT NULL , `stuff` VARCHAR(45) NULL , `bar` VARCHAR(45) NULL , `foo` VARCHAR(45) NULL , PRIMARY KEY (`id`) , INDEX `fk_A_T` (`T` ASC) , CONSTRAINT `fk_A_T` FOREIGN KEY (`T` ) REFERENCES `mydb`.`T` (`id` ) ON DELETE NO ACTION ON UPDATE NO ACTION) ENGINE = InnoDB; -- ----------------------------------------------------- -- Table `mydb`.`B` -- ----------------------------------------------------- CREATE TABLE IF NOT EXISTS `mydb`.`B` ( `id` INT NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT , `T` INT NOT NULL , `stuff2` VARCHAR(45) NULL , `foobar` VARCHAR(45) NULL , `other` VARCHAR(45) NULL , PRIMARY KEY (`id`) , INDEX `fk_A_T` (`T` ASC) , CONSTRAINT `fk_A_T` FOREIGN KEY (`T` ) REFERENCES `mydb`.`T` (`id` ) ON DELETE NO ACTION ON UPDATE NO ACTION) ENGINE = InnoDB; -- ----------------------------------------------------- -- Table `mydb`.`C` -- ----------------------------------------------------- CREATE TABLE IF NOT EXISTS `mydb`.`C` ( `id` INT NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT , `T` INT NOT NULL , `stuff3` VARCHAR(45) NULL , `foobar2` VARCHAR(45) NULL , `other4` VARCHAR(45) NULL , PRIMARY KEY (`id`) , INDEX `fk_A_T` (`T` ASC) , CONSTRAINT `fk_A_T` FOREIGN KEY (`T` ) REFERENCES `mydb`.`T` (`id` ) ON DELETE NO ACTION ON UPDATE NO ACTION) ENGINE = InnoDB;

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  • Unlocking a mutex from a different thread (C++)

    - by dan
    I'm using the C++ boost::thread library, which in my case means I'm using pthreads. Officially, a mutex must be unlocked from the same thread which locks it, and I want the effect of being able to lock in one thread and then unlock in another. There are many ways to accomplish this. One possibility would be to write a new mutex class which allows this behavior. For example: class inter_thread_mutex{ bool locked; boost::mutex mx; boost::condition_variable cv; public: void lock(){ boost::unique_lock<boost::mutex> lck(mx); while(locked) cv.wait(lck); locked=true; } void unlock(){ { boost::lock_guard<boost::mutex> lck(mx); if(!locked) error(); locked=false; } cv.notify_one(); } // bool try_lock(); void error(); etc. } I should point out that the above code doesn't guarantee FIFO access, since if one thread calls lock() while another calls unlock(), this first thread may acquire the lock ahead of other threads which are waiting. (Come to think of it, the boost::thread documentation doesn't appear to make any explicit scheduling guarantees for either mutexes or condition variables). But let's just ignore that (and any other bugs) for now. My question is, if I decide to go this route, would I be able to use such a mutex as a model for the boost Lockable concept. For example, would anything go wrong if I use a boost::unique_lock< inter_thread_mutex for RAII-style access, and then pass this lock to boost::condition_variable_any.wait(), etc. On one hand I don't see why not. On the other hand, "I don't see why not" is usually a very bad way of determining whether something will work. The reason I ask is that if it turns out that I have to write wrapper classes for RAII locks and condition variables and whatever else, then I'd rather just find some other way to achieve the same effect.

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  • Ruby on Rails is complaining about a method that doesn't exist that is built into Active Record. Wha

    - by grg-n-sox
    This will probably just be a simple problem and I am just blind or an idiot but I could use some help. So I am going over some basic guides in Rails, reviewing the basics and such for an upcoming exam. One of the guides included was the sort-of-standard getting started guide over at guide.rubyonrails.org. Here is the link if you need it. Also all my code is for my app is from there, so I have no problem releasing any of my code since it should be the same as shown there. I didn't do a copy paste, but I basically was typing with Vim in one half of my screen and the web page in the other half, typing what I see. http://guides.rubyonrails.org/getting_started.html So like I said, I am going along the guide when I noticed past a certain point in the tutorial, I was always getting an error on the site. To find the section of code, just hit Ctrl+f on the page (or whatever you have search/find set to) and enter "accepts_". This should immediately direct you to this chunk of code. class Post < ActiveRecord::Base validates_presence_of :name, :title validates_length_of :title, :minimum => 5 has_many :comments has_many :tags accepts_nested_attributes_for :tags, :allow_destroy => :true , :reject_if => proc { |attrs| attrs.all? { |k, v| v.blank? } } end So I tried putting this in my code. It is in ~/Rails/blog/app/models/post.rb in case you are wondering. However, even after all the other code I put in past that in the guide, hoping I was just missing some line of code that would come up later in the guide. But nothing, same error every time. This is what I get. NoMethodError in PostsController#index undefined method `accepts_nested_attributes_for' for #<Class:0xb7109f98> /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/activerecord-2.2.2/lib/active_record/base.rb:1833:in `method_missing' app/models/post.rb:7 app/controllers/posts_controller.rb:9:in `index' Request Parameters: None Response Headers: {"Content-Type"=>"", "cookie"=>[], "Cache-Control"=>"no-cache"} Now, I copied the above code from the guide. The two code sections I edited mentioned in the error message I will paste as is below. class PostsController < ApplicationController # GET /posts # GET /posts.xml before_filter :find_post, :only => [:show, :edit, :update, :destroy] def index @posts = Post.find(:all) # <= the line 9 referred to in error message respond_to do |format| format.html # index.html.erb format.xml { render :xml => @posts } end end class Post < ActiveRecord::Base validates_presence_of :name, :title validates_length_of :title, :minimum => 5 has_many :comments has_many :tags accepts_nested_attributes_for :tags, :allow_destroy => :true , # <= problem :reject_if => proc { |attrs| attrs.all? { |k, v| v.blank? } } end Also here is gem local gem list. I do note that they are a bit out of date, but the default Rails install any of the school machines (an environment likely for my exam) is basically 'gem install rails --version 2.2.2' and since they are windows machines, they come with all the normal windows ruby gems that comes with the ruby installer. However, I am running this off a Debian virtual machine of mine, but trying to set it up similarly and I figured the windows ruby gems wouldn't change anything in Rails. *** LOCAL GEMS *** actionmailer (2.2.2) actionpack (2.2.2) activerecord (2.2.2) activeresource (2.2.2) activesupport (2.2.2) gem_plugin (0.2.3) hpricot (0.8.2) linecache (0.43) log4r (1.1.7) ptools (1.1.9) rack (1.1.0) rails (2.2.2) rake (0.8.7) sqlite3-ruby (1.2.3) So any ideas on what the problem is? Thanks in advanced.

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  • Drawing text to <canvas> with @font-face does not work at the first time

    - by lemonedo
    Hi all, First try the test case please: http://lemon-factory.net/test/font-face-and-canvas.html I'm not good at English, so I made the test case to be self-explanatory. On the first click to the DRAW button, it will not draw text, or will draw with an incorrect typeface instead of the specified "PressStart", according to your browser. After then it works as expected. At the first time the text does not appear correctly in all browsers I've tested (Firefox, Google Chrome, Safari, Opera). Is it the standard behavior or something? Thank you. PS: Following is the code of the test case <!DOCTYPE html> <html> <head> <meta http-equiv=Content-Type content="text/html;charset=utf-8"> <title>@font-face and canvas</title> <style> @font-face { font-family: 'PressStart'; src: url('http://lemon-factory.net/css/fonts/prstart.ttf'); } canvas, pre { border: 1px solid #666; } pre { float: left; margin: .5em; padding: .5em; } </style> </head> <body> <div> <canvas id=canvas width=250 height=250> Your browser does not support the CANVAS element. Try the latest Firefox, Google Chrome, Safari or Opera. </canvas> <button>DRAW</button> </div> <pre id=style></pre> <pre id=script></pre> <script src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.4.2/jquery.min.js"></script> <script> var canvas = document.getElementById('canvas') var ctx = canvas.getContext('2d') var x = 30 var y = 10 function draw() { ctx.font = '12px PressStart' ctx.fillStyle = '#000' ctx.fillText('Hello, world!', x, y += 20) ctx.fillRect(x - 20, y - 10, 10, 10) } $('button').click(draw) $('pre#style').text($('style').text()) $('pre#script').text($('script').text()) </script> </body> </html>

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  • ASP.Net 4.0 - Response required in SiteMap building?

    - by Nick Craver
    I'm running into an issue upgrading a project to .Net 4.0...and having trouble finding any reason for the issue (or at least, the change causing it). Given the freshness of 4.0, not a lot of blogs out there for issues yet, so I'm hoping someone here has an idea. Preface: this is a Web Forms application, coming from 3.5 SP1 to 4.0. In the Application_Start event we're iterating through the SiteMap and constructing routes based off data there (prettifying URLs mostly with some utility added), that part isn't failing though...or at least isn't not getting that far. It seems that calling the SiteMap.RootNode (inside application_start) causes 4.0 to eat it, since the XmlSiteMapProvider.GetNodeFromXmlNode method has been changed, looking in reflector you can see it's hitting HttpResponse.ApplyAppPathModifier here: str2 = HttpContext.Current.Response.ApplyAppPathModifier(str2); HttpResponse wasn't used at all in this method in the 2.0 CLR, so what we had worked fine, in 4.0 though, that method is called as a result of this stack: [HttpException (0x80004005): Response is not available in this context.] System.Web.XmlSiteMapProvider.GetNodeFromXmlNode(XmlNode xmlNode, Queue queue) System.Web.XmlSiteMapProvider.ConvertFromXmlNode(Queue queue) System.Web.XmlSiteMapProvider.BuildSiteMap() System.Web.XmlSiteMapProvider.get_RootNode() System.Web.SiteMap.get_RootNode() Since Response isn't available here in 4.0, we get an error. To reproduce this, you can narrow the test case down to this in global: protected void Application_Start(object sender, EventArgs e) { var s = SiteMap.RootNode; //Kaboom! //or just var r = Context.Response; //or var r = HttpContext.Current.Response; //all result in the same "not available" error } Question: Am I missing something obvious here? Or, is there another event added in 4.0 that's recommended for anything related to SiteMap on startup? For anyone curious/willing to help, I've created a very minimal project (a default VS 2010 ASP.Net 4.0 site, all the bells & whistles removed and only a blank sitemap and the Application_Start code added). It's a small 10kb zip available here: http://www.ncraver.com/Test/SiteMapTest.zip Update: Not a great solution, but the current work-around is to do the work in Application_BeginRequest, like this: private static bool routesRegistered = false; protected void Application_BeginRequest(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (!routesRegistered) { Application.Lock(); if (!routesRegistered) RouteManager.RegisterRoutes(RouteTable.Routes); routesRegistered = true; Application.UnLock(); } } I don't like this particularly, feels like an abuse of the event to bypass the issue. Does anyone have at least a better work-around, since the .Net 4 behavior with SiteMap is not likely to change?

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  • Recommendations for a C++ polymorphic, seekable, binary I/O interface

    - by Trevor Robinson
    I've been using std::istream and ostream as a polymorphic interface for random-access binary I/O in C++, but it seems suboptimal in numerous ways: 64-bit seeks are non-portable and error-prone due to streampos/streamoff limitations; currently using boost/iostreams/positioning.hpp as a workaround, but it requires vigilance Missing operations such as truncating or extending a file (ala POSIX ftruncate) Inconsistency between concrete implementations; e.g. stringstream has independent get/put positions whereas filestream does not Inconsistency between platform implementations; e.g. behavior of seeking pass the end of a file or usage of failbit/badbit on errors Don't need all the formatting facilities of stream or possibly even the buffering of streambuf streambuf error reporting (i.e. exceptions vs. returning an error indicator) is supposedly implementation-dependent in practice I like the simplified interface provided by the Boost.Iostreams Device concept, but it's provided as function templates rather than a polymorphic class. (There is a device class, but it's not polymorphic and is just an implementation helper class not necessarily used by the supplied device implementations.) I'm primarily using large disk files, but I really want polymorphism so I can easily substitute alternate implementations (e.g. use stringstream instead of fstream for unit tests) without all the complexity and compile-time coupling of deep template instantiation. Does anyone have any recommendations of a standard approach to this? It seems like a common situation, so I don't want to invent my own interfaces unnecessarily. As an example, something like java.nio.FileChannel seems ideal. My best solution so far is to put a thin polymorphic layer on top of Boost.Iostreams devices. For example: class my_istream { public: virtual std::streampos seek(stream_offset off, std::ios_base::seekdir way) = 0; virtual std::streamsize read(char* s, std::streamsize n) = 0; virtual void close() = 0; }; template <class T> class boost_istream : public my_istream { public: boost_istream(const T& device) : m_device(device) { } virtual std::streampos seek(stream_offset off, std::ios_base::seekdir way) { return boost::iostreams::seek(m_device, off, way); } virtual std::streamsize read(char* s, std::streamsize n) { return boost::iostreams::read(m_device, s, n); } virtual void close() { boost::iostreams::close(m_device); } private: T m_device; };

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  • IQueryable and lazy loading

    - by Nelson
    I'm having a hard time determining the best way to handle this... With Entity Framework (and L2S), LINQ queries return IQueryable. I have read various opinions on whether the DAL/BLL should return IQueryable, IEnumerable or IList. Assuming we go with IList, then the query is run immediately and that control is not passed on to the next layer. This makes it easier to unit test, etc. You lose the ability to refine the query at higher levels, but you could simply create another method that allows you to refine the query and still return IList. And there are many more pros/cons. So far so good. Now comes Entity Framework and lazy loading. I am using POCO objects with proxies in .NET 4/VS 2010. In the presentation layer I do: foreach (Order order in bll.GetOrders()) { foreach (OrderLine orderLine in order.OrderLines) { // Do something } } In this case, GetOrders() returns IList so it executes immediately before returning to the PL. But in the next foreach, you have lazy loading which executes multiple SQL queries as it gets all the OrderLines. So basically, the PL is running SQL queries "on demand" in the wrong layer. Is there any sensible way to avoid this? I could turn lazy loading off, but then what's the point of having this "feature" that everyone was complaining EF1 didn't have? And I'll admit it is very useful in many scenarios. So I see several options: Somehow remove all associations in the entities and add methods to return them. This goes against the default EF behavior/code generation and makes it harder to do some composite (multiple entity) LINQ queries. It seems like a step backwards. I vote no. If we have lazy loading anyway which makes it hard to unit test, then go all the way and return IQueryable. You'll have more control farther up the layers. I still don't think this is a good option because IQueryable ties you to L2S, L2E, or your own full implementation of IQueryable. Lazy loading may run queries "on demand", but doesn't tie you to any specific interface. I vote no. Turn off lazy loading. You'll have to handle your associations manually. This could be with eager loading's .Include(). I vote yes in some specific cases. Keep IList and lazy loading. I vote yes in many cases, only due to the troubles with the others. Any other options or suggestions? I haven't found an option that really convinces me.

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  • How to measure a canvas that has auto height and with

    - by Wymmeroo
    Hi Folks, I'm a beginner in silverlight so i hope i can get an answer that brings me some more light in the measure process of silverlight. I found an interessting flap out control from silverlight slide control and now I try to use it in my project. So that the slide out is working proper, I have to place the user control on a canvas. The user control then uses for itself the height of its content. I just wanna change that behavior so that the height is set to the available space from the parent canvas. You see the uxBorder where the height is set. How can I measure the actual height and set it to the border? I tried it with Height={Binding ElementName=notificationCanvas, Path=ActualHeight} but this dependency property has no callback, so the actualHeight is never set. What I want to achieve is a usercontrol like the tweetboard per example on Jesse Liberty's blog Sorry for my English writing, I hope you understand my question. <Canvas x:Name="notificationCanvas" Background="Red"> <SlideEffectEx:SimpleSlideControl GripWidth="20" GripTitle="Task" GripHeight="100"> <Border x:Name="uxBorder" BorderThickness="2" CornerRadius="5" BorderBrush="DarkGray" Background="DarkGray" Padding="5" Width="300" Height="700" > <StackPanel> <TextBlock Text="Tasks"></TextBlock> <Button x:Name="btn1" Margin="5" Content="{Binding ElementName=MainBorder, Path=Height}"></Button> <Button x:Name="btn2" Margin="5" Content="Second Button"></Button> <Button x:Name="btn3" Margin="5" Content="Third Button"></Button> <Button x:Name="btn1_Copy" Margin="5" Content="First Button"/> <Button x:Name="btn1_Copy1" Margin="5" Content="First Button"/> <Button x:Name="btn1_Copy2" Margin="5" Content="First Button"/> <Button x:Name="btn1_Copy3" Margin="5" Content="First Button"/> <Button x:Name="btn1_Copy4" Margin="5" Content="First Button"/> <Button x:Name="btn1_Copy5" Margin="5" Content="First Button"/> <Button x:Name="btn1_Copy6" Margin="5" Content="First Button"/> </StackPanel> </Border> </SlideEffectEx:SimpleSlideControl>

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  • ASP.NET MVC 2 AJAX dilemma: Lose Models concept or create unmanageable JavaScript

    - by Slightly Frustrated
    Hi, Ok, let's assume we are working with ASP.NET MVC 2 (latest and greatest preview) and we want to create AJAX user interface with jQuery. So what are our real options here? Option 1 - Pass Json from the Controller to the view, and then the view submits Json back to the controller. This means (in the order given): User opens some View (let's say - /Invoices/January) which has to visualize a list of data (e.g. <IEnumerable<X.Y.Z.Models.Invoice>>) Controller retrieves the Model from the repository (assuming we are using repository pattern). Controller creates a new instance of a class which we will serialize to Json. The reasaon we do this, is because the model may not be serializable (circular reference ftl) Controller populates the soon-to-be-serialized class with data Controller serializes the class to Json and passes it the view. User does some change and submits the 'form' The View submits back Json to the controller The Controller now must 'manually' validate the input, because the Json passed does not bind to a Model See, if our View is communicating to the controller via Json, we lose the Model validation, which IMHO is incredible disadvantage. In this case, forget about data annotations and stuff. Option 2 - Ok, the alternative of the first approach is to pass the Models to the Views, which is the default behavior in the template when you start a new project. We pass a strong typed model to the view The view renders the appropriate html and javascript, sticking to the model property names. This is important! The user submits the form. If we stick to the model names, when we .serialize() the form and submit it to the controller it will map to a model. There is no Json mapping. The submitted form directly binds to a strongly typed model, hence, we can use the model validation. E.g. we keep the business logic where it should be. Problem with this approach is, if we refactor some of the Models (change property names, types, etc), the javascript we wrote would become invalid. We will have to manually refactor the scripting and hope we don't miss something. There is no way you can test it either. Ok, the question is - how to write an AJAX front end, which keeps the business logic validation in the model (e.g. controller passes and receives a Model type), but in the same time doesn't screw up the javascript and html when we refactor the model?

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  • Need help in displaying data insider marquee

    - by user59637
    Hi all, I want to display news inside the marquee markup in my banking application but its not happening.Please somebody help me what is the error in my code.Here is my code: <marquee bgcolor="silver" direction="left" id="marq1" runat="server" behavior="scroll" scrolldelay="80" style="height: 19px" width="565"> <% String se = Session["countnews"].ToString(); for (int i = 0; i < int.Parse("" +se); i++) { %> <strong><%Response.Write("&nbsp;&nbsp;" + Session["news"+i] + "&nbsp;&nbsp;"); %></strong> <% } %> </marquee> public class News { DataSet ds = new DataSet("Bank"); SqlConnection conn; String check; SqlDataAdapter sda; int i; public string News_Name; public int Count_News; public int newsticker() { conn = new SqlConnection(ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["BankingTransaction"].ConnectionString.ToString()); check = "Select NewsTitle from News where NewsStatus = 'A'"; sda = new SqlDataAdapter(check, conn); sda.Fill(ds, "News"); if (ds.Tables[0].Rows.Count > 0) { for (i = 0; i < ds.Tables[0].Rows.Count; i++) { News_Name =i+ ds.Tables[0].Rows[i].ItemArray[0].ToString(); } Count_News = ds.Tables[0].Rows.Count; } else { News_Name =0+ "Welcome to WestSide Bank Online Web site!"; Count_News = 1; } return int.Parse(Count_News.ToString()); } protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { News obj = new News(); try { obj.newsticker(); Session["news"] = obj.News_Name.ToString(); Session["countnews"] = obj.Count_News.ToString(); } catch (SqlException ex) { Response.Write("Error in login" + ex.Message); Response.Redirect("Default.aspx"); } finally { obj = null; } }

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  • Why might a System.String object not cache its hash code?

    - by Dan Tao
    A glance at the source code for string.GetHashCode using Reflector reveals the following (for mscorlib.dll version 4.0): public override unsafe int GetHashCode() { fixed (char* str = ((char*) this)) { char* chPtr = str; int num = 0x15051505; int num2 = num; int* numPtr = (int*) chPtr; for (int i = this.Length; i > 0; i -= 4) { num = (((num << 5) + num) + (num >> 0x1b)) ^ numPtr[0]; if (i <= 2) { break; } num2 = (((num2 << 5) + num2) + (num2 >> 0x1b)) ^ numPtr[1]; numPtr += 2; } return (num + (num2 * 0x5d588b65)); } } Now, I realize that the implementation of GetHashCode is not specified and is implementation-dependent, so the question "is GetHashCode implemented in the form of X or Y?" is not really answerable. I'm just curious about a few things: If Reflector has disassembled the DLL correctly and this is the implementation of GetHashCode (in my environment), am I correct in interpreting this code to indicate that a string object, based on this particular implementation, would not cache its hash code? Assuming the answer is yes, why would this be? It seems to me that the memory cost would be minimal (one more 32-bit integer, a drop in the pond compared to the size of the string itself) whereas the savings would be significant, especially in cases where, e.g., strings are used as keys in a hashtable-based collection like a Dictionary<string, [...]>. And since the string class is immutable, it isn't like the value returned by GetHashCode will ever even change. What could I be missing? UPDATE: In response to Andras Zoltan's closing remark: There's also the point made in Tim's answer(+1 there). If he's right, and I think he is, then there's no guarantee that a string is actually immutable after construction, therefore to cache the result would be wrong. Whoa, whoa there! This is an interesting point to make (and yes it's very true), but I really doubt that this was taken into consideration in the implementation of GetHashCode. The statement "therefore to cache the result would be wrong" implies to me that the framework's attitude regarding strings is "Well, they're supposed to be immutable, but really if developers want to get sneaky they're mutable so we'll treat them as such." This is definitely not how the framework views strings. It fully relies on their immutability in so many ways (interning of string literals, assignment of all zero-length strings to string.Empty, etc.) that, basically, if you mutate a string, you're writing code whose behavior is entirely undefined and unpredictable. I guess my point is that for the author(s) of this implementation to worry, "What if this string instance is modified between calls, even though the class as it is publicly exposed is immutable?" would be like for someone planning a casual outdoor BBQ to think to him-/herself, "What if someone brings an atomic bomb to the party?" Look, if someone brings an atom bomb, party's over.

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