Search Results

Search found 10719 results on 429 pages for 'temp tables'.

Page 334/429 | < Previous Page | 330 331 332 333 334 335 336 337 338 339 340 341  | Next Page >

  • SQL COUNT records in table 2 JOINS away

    - by Fred K
    Using MySQL, I have three tables: projects: ID name 1 "birthday party" 2 "soccer match" 3 "wine tasting evening" 4 "dig out garden" 5 "mountainbiking" 6 "making music" batches: ID projectID templateID when 1 1 1 7 days before 2 1 1 1 day before 3 4 2 21 days before 4 4 1 7 days before 5 5 1 7 days before 6 3 5 7 days before 7 3 3 14 days before 8 5 1 14 days before templates: ID message 1 "Hi, I'd like to invite ..." 2 "Dear Sir, Madam, ..." 3 "Can you please ..." 4 "Would you like to ..." 5 "To all dear friends ..." 6 "Does any of you guys ..." I would like to display a table of templates and the number of projects they're used in. So, the result should be: templateID projectCount 1 3 2 1 3 1 4 0 5 1 6 0 I've tried all kinds of SQL queries using various JOINs, but I guess this is too complicated for me. Is it possible to get this result using a single SQL statement?

    Read the article

  • is it possible to write data to a collection in wpf?

    - by randyc
    Hello. In looking through samples I have seen a number of examples where it is possible to present data within a wpf applicaiton by binding to collections. However I was wondering is it possible to write to a collection from an applicaiton. Say for example i have 2 or more fields such as names and I wanted to have hte ability to add up to three names in my application ( all stored in memory). Will collections serve this purpose. In the past with asp.net I have done this by creating data tables and storing values on the fly or during the session. I am trying to learn WPF and I was wondering if collections work in the same fashion? If so could you please post an example or point me to references that show examples of this? Thank you in advance.

    Read the article

  • deleting a large number of rows from a table

    - by Azeem
    We have a requirement to delete rows in the order of millions from multiple tables as a batch job (note that we are not deleting all the rows, we are deleting based on a timestamp stored in an indexed column). Obviously a normal DELETE takes forever (because of logging, referential constraint checking etc.). I know in the LUW world, we have ALTER TABLE NOT LOGGED INITIALLY but I can't seem to find the an equivalent SQL statement for DB2 v8 z/OS. Any one has any ideas on how to do this really fast? Also, any ideas on how to avoid the referential checks when deleting the rows? Please let me know.

    Read the article

  • sql query with alias name

    - by Ranjana
    i have a table with this columns--- Or orgid ispaid validity noofthingstoTake 1 yes 2010-06-05 20 2 yes 2010-06-09 7 i have used this query(to join two more tableS): select distinct B.RequirementID,A.OrganizationID from Organization A,RequirementsDetailsforOrganization B,validityorgdet F where A.OrganizationID=B.OrganizationID and F.orgid=A.OrganizationID and F.ispaid=1 and F.validity>=GETDATE() and F.noofthingstoTake> ?? but i dont know how to check the (noofthingstaken) over here. it should not exceed 20. im passing this query from my code behind page to the Sql. how to get the query excute to check it should not exceed the noofthingstaken pls help me out....????

    Read the article

  • Monitoring Log Shipped Databases

    - by Registered User
    I need a consistent way to monitor databases that are read-only log shipped copies of production databases. In the past I have relied on the following methods: Set the job that restores logs to the database kick off another job as its last step. Set the job that restores logs to the database to insert a record in a control table as its last step. Query the msdb database to check the status of the job that restores logs to the database. Query a control table inside the database itself that gets a value immediately before transaction logs are backed up. Query MAX values from tables inside the database to see if it has recent changes. Although the above methods work, they can't be implemented for every log shipped database that I query for various reasons. What is the best method for monitoring the "data as of" date for a log shipped database?

    Read the article

  • What is the best way to keep database data encrypted with user passwords?

    - by Dan Sosedoff
    Let's say an application has really specific data which belongs to a user, and nobody is supposed to see it except the owner. I use MySQL database with DataMapper ORM mapper. The application is written in Ruby on Sinatra. Application behavior: User signs up for an account. Creates username and password. Logs into his dashboard. Some fields in specific tables must be protected. Basically, I'm looking for auto-encryption for a model properties. Something like this: class Transaction include DataMapper::Resource property :id, Serial property :value, String, :length => 1024, :encrypted => true ... etc ... belongs_to :user end I assume that encryption/decryption on the fly will cause performance problems, but that's ok. At least if that works - I'm fine. Any ideas how to do this?

    Read the article

  • Is it possible to run a SQL-only file from a "rake db:create"?

    - by Somebody still uses you MS-DOS
    I'm trying to install a software called Teambox in my Dreamhost shared account. I have no experience with Rails. I just want to install the software in the shared hosting. In this shared hosting, all dependencies are ok, but I have to create the dabatase from their panel. I can't create in command line (ssh). So, when I run "rake db:create" these's an error, because the db already exists (because I created in panel). I've already contacted support. They can't change this policy. How do I populate my tables "by hand" in this case? Which files should I look inside Teambox's folder... Thanks!

    Read the article

  • 'cross-referencing' DataTable's

    - by Lee
    I have a DataGridView that is being filled with data from a table. Inside this table is a column called 'group' that has the ID of an individual group in another table. What I would like to do, is when the DataGridView is filled, instead of showing the ID contained in 'group', I'd like it to display the name of the group. Is there some type of VB.net 'magic' that can do this, or do I need to cross-reference the data myself? Here is a breakdown of what the 2 tables look like: table1 id group (this holds the value of column id in table 2) weight last_update table2 id description (this is what I would like to be displayed in the DGV.) BTW - I am using Visual Studio Express.

    Read the article

  • PHP - MySQL - Select runs indefinitely

    - by John
    I have three tables listings: id, pid, beds, baths, etc, etc, etc, db locations: id, pid, zip, lat, lon, etc, etc, etc, db images id, pid, height, width, raw, etc, etc, db id, pid & db are indexed. db just references the mls provider a particular item came from. in images the raw column holds raw image data there are about 15k rows in listings/locations, and about 120k rows in images so there are multiple rows that have the same pid. when i do "select pid from listings" or "select pid from locations" the query completes successfully in about 100ms. when i do "select pid from images" it just hangs in sqlyog and never completes... i was thinking since the raw column contains alot of information that it might be trying to select that too, but my query doesn't try to select that so I can't imagine why it's taking so long... any idea why this is happening??

    Read the article

  • Creating custom ribbon with SQL Server linked Access application

    - by andy
    I'm just learning about creating custom ribbons in Access 2010, but I'm running into an issue. The Access application I'm working with is connected to a SQL Server backend (connected, not just linked tables). As I understand it, the USysRibbons table needs to exist in the Access application itself, and not in a connected SQL Server. How does one go about creating a table in an Access application that is already linked to a SQL Server? I tried creating the table in a blank database and then importing it into the Access application without any luck.

    Read the article

  • Display two images side by side on an HTML Page

    - by user77735
    I am trying to place two images of the same size side-by-side. If I use a "table" then I am able to display both images side-by-side. But in my CSS Stylesheet I am using a custom format for the table and this shows on the page containing the images too. But I want to just display both images without any custom background or border etc. I tried using "div", "span", "ul" & "li" etc. but failed in each case. How can I place two images (of same size) in a single line, without using a "table"? If I have to use "table" for the same, then how can I use two (or more) different formatting for my tables using CSS? Thank you. Lalit Kumar Barik

    Read the article

  • Preventing entire JOINed MYSQL query from failing when one field is missing within a WHERE clause

    - by filip o
    I am doing a couple of joins with a variable in the WHERE clause. I'm not sure if I am doing everything as efficiently as I could, or even using the best practices but my issue is that half my tables have data for when tableC.type=500, and the other half don't resulting in the entire query failing. SELECT tableA.value1 , tableB.value2, tableC.value3 FROM tableA JOIN tableB ON tableB.id=tableA.id JOIN tableC ON tableC.id=tableB.id WHERE tableA.category=$var && tableC.type=500; What I would like to happen is to still get tableA.value1 and tableB.value2 even if there is no field in tableC with a type=500. any thoughts? i'm totally stumped as how to approach this...

    Read the article

  • Truncating a table referenced by a foreign key

    - by born to hula
    Hey, We have two tables in a SQL Server 2005 database, A and B.There is a service which truncates table A every day. Recently, a foreign key constraint was added to table B, referencing table A. As a result, it isn't possible truncating table A anymore, even if table B is empty. Is there any workaround to get the same result as truncating table A? I've already tried the approach below but the identity wasn't reset. DBCC CHECKIDENT (TABLENAME, RESEED, 0) PS. before anyone points this as a duplicate, the different thing here is that I'm not allowed to drop constraints, nor creating any.

    Read the article

  • MS Sync framework - Identity crisis resolution by partitioning the primary key.

    - by user326136
    Hello, We implementing offline feature to an existing application. We have implemented the syn with SQL Server internal change tracking and over WCF using MS Sync Framework (http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/sync/default.aspx) All of our tables have primary key as integer, we cannot move to GUID. So as you are thinking we will have identity crises between applications. So we decided to go with the way Merge replication does(http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/aa179416(SQL.80).aspx) partition the primary key range. Below is the example scenario - Server Table A - ID Range - 0 to 100 Client 1 Table A - ID Range - 101 to 200 Client 2 Table A - ID Range - 201 to 300 how to implement this ? i know we can use BCC CHECKIDENT (yourtable, reseed, value) CHECK (([ID]<=(100))) but this does not solve the issue.... Merge replication provides an option of "Not for replication"(http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/aa237102(SQL.80).aspx) to achieve insert form clients and still maintain the set range.. can i use that somehow here? please help...

    Read the article

  • How big can a SQL Server row be before it's a problem?

    - by John Leidegren
    Occasionally I run into this limitation using SQL Server 2000 that a row size can not exceed 8K bytes. SQL Server 2000 isn't really state of the art, but it's still in production code and because some tables are denormalized that's a problem. However, this seems to be a non issue with SQL Server 2005. At least, it won't complain that row sizes are bigger than 8K, but what happens instead and why was this a problem in SQL Server 2000? Do I need to care about my rows growing? Should I try and avoid large rows? Are varchar(max) and varbinary(max) a solution or expensive, in terms of size in database and/or CPU time? Why do I care at all about specifying the length of a particular column, when it seems like it's just a matter of time before someones going to hit that upper limit?

    Read the article

  • Complicated Order By Clause?

    - by Todd
    Hi. I need to do what to me is an advanced sort. I have this two tables: Table: Fruit fruitid | received | basketid 1 20100310 2 2 20091205 3 3 20100220 1 4 20091129 2 Table: Basket id | name 1 Big Discounts 2 Premium Fruit 3 Standard Produce I'm not even sure I can plainly state how I want to sort (which is probably a big part of the reason I can't seem to write code to do it, lol). I do a join query and need to sort so everything is organized by basketid. The basketid that has the oldest fruit.received date comes first, then the other rows with the same basketid by date asc, then the basketid with the next earliest fruit.received date followed by the other rows with the same basketid, and so on. So the output would look like this: Fruitid | Received | Basket 4 20091129 Premuim Fruit 1 20100310 Premuim Fruit 2 20091205 Standard Produce 3 20100220 Big Discounts Any ideas how to accomplish this in a single execution?

    Read the article

  • Django Forms save_m2m

    - by John
    Hi I have a model which has 2 many to many fields in it. one is a standard m2m field which does not use any through tables whereas the other is a bit more complecated and has a through table. I am using the Django forms.modelform to display and save the forms. The code I have to save the form is if form.is_valid(): f = form.save(commit=False) f.modified_by = request.user f.save() form.save_m2m() When i try to save the form I get the following error: Cannot set values on a ManyToManyField which specifies an intermediary model. I know this is happening when I do the form.save_m2m() because of the through table. What I'd liek to do is tell Django to ignore the m2m field with the through table but still save the m2m field without the through table. I can then go on to manually save the data for the through table field. Thanks

    Read the article

  • Doctrine: Mixing YAML markup and db manager (navicat) editing?

    - by ropstah
    I think the answer to this question should be: No. However I hope to be corrected. I'd like to edit our database using a mixture of YAML markup + Doctrine createTables() and Navicat editing. Can I maintain the inheritance which is marked up? Example (4 steps, at step 4, Doctrine is in no way able to re-create the inheritance schema... or is it?): Step 1: Create YAML with inheritance --- Entity: columns: username: string(20) password: string(16) created_at: timestamp updated_at: timestamp User: inheritance: extends: Entity type: column_aggregation keyField: type keyValue: 1 Group: inheritance: extends: Entity type: column_aggregation keyField: type keyValue: 2 Step 2: Create tables using Doctrine (and drop/create db if nessecary) Created sql: CREATE TABLE entity (id BIGINT AUTO_INCREMENT, username VARCHAR(20), password VARCHAR(16), created_at DATETIME, updated_at DATETIME, type VARCHAR(255), PRIMARY KEY(id)) ENGINE = INNODB Step 3: Edit table using Navicat Step 4: Refresh YAML file because of 'external' edits...

    Read the article

  • Caching result of SELECT statement for reuse in multiple queries

    - by Andrew
    I have a reasonably complex query to extract the Id field of the results I am interested in based on parameters entered by the user. After extracting the relevant Ids I am using the resulting set of Ids several times, in separate queries, to extract the actual output record sets I want (by joining to other tables, using aggregate functions, etc). I would like to avoid running the initial query separately for every set of results I want to return. I imagine my situation is a common pattern so I am interested in what the best approach is. The database is in MS SQL Server and I am using .NET 3.5.

    Read the article

  • Stored Procedure - forcing execution order

    - by meepmeep
    I have a stored procedure that itself calls a list of other stored procedures in order: CREATE PROCEDURE [dbo].[prSuperProc] AS BEGIN EXEC [dbo].[prProc1] EXEC [dbo].[prProc2] EXEC [dbo].[prProc3] --etc END However, I sometimes have some strange results in my tables, generated by prProc2, which is dependent on the results generated by prProc1. If I manually execute prProc1, prProc2, prProc3 in order then everything is fine. It appears that when I run the top-level procedure, that Proc2 is being executed before Proc1 has completed and committed its results to the db. It doesn't always go wrong, but it seems to go wrong when Proc1 has a long execution time (in this case ~10s). How do I alter prSuperProc such that each procedure only executes once the preceding procedure has completed and committed? Transactions?

    Read the article

  • Help in setting the setClientInfo with JPA

    - by enrique
    i am trying to set to jpa the new JDBC method which allows the application to be identified with a name it is the setClientInfo() and i could do it using pure JDBC using the lines Properties jdbcProperties = new Properties(); jdbcProperties.put("user", "system"); jdbcProperties.put("password", "sw01"); jdbcProperties.put("v$session.program", "Clients"); Connection connection = DriverManager.getConnection(url,jdbcProperties); However i have new requirements and i need to make it with JPA EclipseLink i have been googling and could not find something substantial on how to set this property out in JPA i guess it is by annotating something but i do not know what, i was trying to setting the persistence unit by putting the following in the persistence unit: <properties> <property name="toplink.ddl-generation" value="create-tables"/> <property name="v$session.program" value="Clients"/> </properties> but no lucky ...does somebody know how to do it or any idea...? thanks in advanced.-

    Read the article

  • Is there a best practice for maintaining history in a database?

    - by Pete
    I don't do database work that often so this is totally unfamiliar territory for me. I have a table with a bunch of records that users can update. However, I now want to keep a history of their changes just in case they want to rollback. Rollback in this case is not the db rollback but more like revert changes two weeks later when they realized that they made a mistake. The distinction being that I can't have a transaction do the job. Is the current practice to use a separate table, or just a flag in the current table? It's a small database, 5 tables each with < 6 columns, < 1000 rows total.

    Read the article

  • SQL query: Number of comments posted in last 24 hours by people a user is following

    - by bflora
    I've got a site where users follow users they like and can read their latest updates. I'd like to show my users a simple count of how many comments the people they follow have posted in the last 24 hours. I'm having trouble figuring out the query. I have two tables. comment -cid (comment id) -timestamp -uid (id of person who posted the comment) -comment (content of the comment) user_relationships -requester_id (id of the user who followed the person) -requestee_id (id of the person who was followed) In plain english, I think the query is something like this: COUNT the cid.comment from the comments table where uid.comment is equal to requestee_id.user_relationships associated with requester_id.user_relationships value of X. I need to get all the UIDs of people being followed by a given UID from the user_relationship table. Then count up how many comments those people have posted in the last 24 hours and spit that number out. What would this query look like?

    Read the article

  • How to get notified of changes on a read only table? (I.e., Price drop notifications.)

    - by mirthlab
    Let's say I have these tables/models: Product - id - last_updated_date - name - price User - id - name Wishlist - id - user_id - product_id The Product table has a few million records and is being updated automatically each night via a data import (inserting into a new table, dropping the old one). I basically have read-only access to that table/model. If a product is on a user's wishlist and the price drops, I'd like to be able to notify that user. What methods can be used to do this? I have a couple of ideas: Keep track of the Product.last_updated_date in the wishlist model and periodically poll the product table to see if it has been updated. This sounds like a horrible/non-scaleable solution. Some sort of Postgres View or Function that triggers when the Product table is updated? I'm new to postgres so I'm not yet sure if this is even possible. Something amazing that you will suggest that I haven't thought of :) Any help in the right direction is greatly appreciated!

    Read the article

  • Is there any free, open source php CMS\framework for described case?

    - by Ole Jak
    I want that cms\framework to create me tables like "Users" "Cameras" and so on and declare classes and simple default methods for them (like paged sql relults and so on). I mean I say to it: I want Users to have ID, SpecialNumber and Name Flilds. and I want to get from it class for table generation (to call it once) and class containing methods such as Search by ID, SpecialNumber and Name, Create User, Delit User and so on functions. Is there any framework/cms like this for working with CODE not ui's and so on... so to say PHP generator or something... The result should be as that framework free as possible. So Is there any free, open source php CMS\framework for described case?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 330 331 332 333 334 335 336 337 338 339 340 341  | Next Page >