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  • Design patterns for Caching Images in a MVC?

    - by Onema
    Hi, I'm designing an image cache system that will be used in an MVC CMS. The main purpose of the image cacher is to modify images: scale, crop, etc and cache them in the client site. I have created an image cache Model and Mapper that interact with the Database, to keep track of the images and know what kind of actions have been applied to them (scale, crop, etc). In addition to the Model and Mapper I have created a ImageCacher Class that is used by the API to manage the Model and image creation based on arguments passed by the client site, this class creates the images and generates the links to the images for the View. A coworker argued that I need to include the functionality of this last Class inside the Model, as the bulk of the logic should go in the model. I respectfully disagree with him since I feel the model's responsibility is to deal with the information about the images cached at the database level, and the responsibility of the ImageCacher Class is to create the url/image that we will be caching (keeping the single responsibility principle). In addition to this I believe that a model should not have Presentation-related features, like creating or showing images. Does anyone have any insight on this? is there a particular design pattern that would make this division of tasks clear and and the image cacher reusable? Should I add all the logic in the Model? Thank you.

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  • Draggable cards (touch enumeration) issue

    - by glitch
    I'm trying to let a player tap, drag and release a card from a fanned stack on the screen to a 4x4 field on the board. My cards are instantiated from a custom class that inherits from the UIImageView class. I started with the Touches sample app, and I modified the event handlers for touches to iterate over my player's card hand instead of the 3 squares the sample app allows you to move on screen. Everything works, until that is, I move the card I'm dragging near another card. I'm really drawing a blank here for the logic to get the cards to behave properly. Here's my code: - (void)touchesBegan:(NSSet *)touches withEvent:(UIEvent *)event { NSUInteger numTaps = [[touches anyObject] tapCount]; if(numTaps = 1) { for (UITouch *touch in touches) { [self dispatchFirstTouchAtPoint:[touch locationInView: self.boardCardView] forEvent:nil]; } } } -(void) dispatchFirstTouchAtPoint:(CGPoint)touchPoint forEvent:(UIEvent *)event { for (int i = 0; i<5; i++) { UIImageView *touchedCard = boardBuffer[i]; if (CGRectContainsPoint([touchedCard frame], touchPoint)) { [self animateFirstTouchAtPoint:touchPoint forView:touchedCard]; } } } - (void)touchesMoved:(NSSet *)touches withEvent:(UIEvent *)event { NSUInteger touchCount = 0; for (UITouch *touch in touches){ [self dispatchTouchEvent:[touch view] toPosition:[touch locationInView:self.boardCardView]]; touchCount++; } } My questions are: How do I get the touch logic to disallow other cards from being picked up by a dragging finger? Is there anyway I can only enumerate the objects that are directly below a player's finger and explicitly disable other objects from responding? Thanks!

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  • Mixing stored procedures and ORM

    - by Jason
    The company I work for develops a large application which is almost entirely based on stored procedures. We use classic ASP and SQL Server and the major part of the business logic is contained inside those stored procedures. For example, (I know, this is bad...) a single stored procedure can be used for different purposes (insert, update, delete, make some calculations, ...). Most of the time, a stored procedure is used for operations on related tables, but this is not always the case. We are planning to move to ASP.NET in a near future. I have read a lot of posts on StackOverflow recommending that I move the business logic outside the database. The thing is, I have tried to convince the people who takes the decisions at our company and there is nothing I can do to change their mind. Since I want to be able to use the advantages of object-oriented programming, I want to map the tables to actual classes. So far, my solution is to use an ORM (Entity Framework 4 or nHibernate) to avoid mapping the objects manually (mostly to retrieve the data) and use some kind of Data Access Layer to call the existing stored procedures (for saving). I want your advice on this. Do you think it is a good solution? Any ideas?

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  • LINQ2SQL: How to let a column accept null values as zero (0) in Self-Relation table

    - by Remon
    As described in the img, I got a parent-Children relation and since the ParentID not accepting null values (and I can't change to nullabel due to some restriction in the UI I have), how can I remove an existence relation between ReportDataSources in order to change the parent for them (here i want to set the parentId for one of them = 0) how could i do that since i cant change the ParentID directly and setting Parent = null is not valid public void SetReportDataSourceAsMaster(ReportDataSource reportDataSource) { //Some logic - not necessarily for this scenario //Reset Master this.ReportDataSources.ToList().ForEach(rds => rds.IsMaster = false); //Set Master reportDataSource.IsMaster = true; //Set Parent ID for the rest of the Reports data sources this.ReportDataSources.Where(rds => rds.ID != reportDataSource.ID).ToList().ForEach(rds => { //Change Parent ID rds.Parent = reportDataSource; //Remove filttering data rds.FilteringDataMembers.Clear(); //Remove Grouping Data rds.GroupingDataMembers.Clear(); }); //Delete parent HERE THE EXCEPTION THROWN AFTER CALLING SUBMITCHANGES() reportDataSource.Parent = null; //Other logic } Exception thrown after calling submitChanges An attempt was made to remove a relationship between a ReportDataSource and a ReportDataSource. However, one of the relationship's foreign keys (ReportDataSource.ParentID) cannot be set to null.

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  • is there a signal emiter/consumer engine (like in Django) for .NET (C#)

    - by user118657
    Has .NET (C#) anything like Django's Signals engine? Our business logic become really complicated over few years of adding new features. I'm going to re-architecture it. Currently all features are very coupled that makes regression errors while changing something one one place - some other place may be broken. I really like Django's apps idea where separate applications introduce new functionality and are absolutely separate. Communication between apps is implemented though signals. I wounder if there is something in .NET that allows to divide project business to many separated "apps" (plug-ins, zones, modules, you name it) and make communication using some kind of "signals". For example we have simple order flow. We can add "coupon app" that if exists in the project adds abilities to use discount coupon. We can add "cross sale" module that if exists adds abilities to offer cross-sale products Email notification module that if exists adds abilities to send order email notifications. But in the same time all this modules are "self-contained" means that communication between them is done using emitting signals (ORDER_PROCCESS_START, ORDER_SUCCESS, etcs) and other modules can subscribe to this signals and process them in required way. This architecture is not related to web, all business logic is processed on the server side like without working with HTTP directly. I wonder if it's good architecture from code maintaining and testing point of few, is it possible to do this in .NET? Any drawbacks that I don't realize now?

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  • Is it advisable to have an interface as the return type?

    - by wb
    I have a set of classes with the same functions but with different logic. However, each class function can return a number of objects. It is safe to set the return type as the interface? Each class (all using the same interface) is doing this with different business logic. protected IMessage validateReturnType; <-- This is in an abstract class public bool IsValid() <-- This is in an abstract class { return (validateReturnType.GetType() == typeof(Success)); } public IMessage Validate() { if (name.Length < 5) { validateReturnType = new Error("Name must be 5 characters or greater."); } else { validateReturnType = new Success("Name is valid."); } return validateReturnType; } Are there any pitfalls with unit testing the return type of an function? Also, is it considered bad design to have functions needing to be run in order for them to succeed? In this example, Validate() would have to be run before IsValid() or else IsValid() would always return false. Thank you.

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  • Turn based synchronization between threads

    - by Amarus
    I'm trying to find a way to synchronize multiple threads having the following conditions: * There are two types of threads: 1. A single "cyclic" thread executing an infinite loop to do cyclic calculations 2. Multiple short-lived threads not started by the main thread * The cyclic thread has a sleep duration between each cycle/loop iteration * The other threads are allowed execute during the inter-cycle sleep of the cyclic thread: - Any other thread that attempts to execute during an active cycle should be blocked - The cyclic thread will wait until all other threads that are already executing to be finished Here's a basic example of what I was thinking of doing: // Somewhere in the code: ManualResetEvent manualResetEvent = new ManualResetEvent(true); // Allow Externally call CountdownEvent countdownEvent = new CountdownEvent(1); // Can't AddCount a CountdownEvent with CurrentCount = 0 void ExternallyCalled() { manualResetEvent.WaitOne(); // Wait until CyclicCalculations is having its beauty sleep countdownEvent.AddCount(); // Notify CyclicCalculations that it should wait for this method call to finish before starting the next cycle Thread.Sleep(1000); // TODO: Replace with actual method logic countdownEvent.Signal(); // Notify CyclicCalculations that this call is finished } void CyclicCalculations() { while (!stopCyclicCalculations) { manualResetEvent.Reset(); // Block all incoming calls to ExternallyCalled from this point forward countdownEvent.Signal(); // Dirty workaround for the issue with AddCount and CurrentCount = 0 countdownEvent.Wait(); // Wait until all of the already executing calls to ExternallyCalled are finished countdownEvent.Reset(); // Reset the CountdownEvent for next cycle. Thread.Sleep(2000); // TODO: Replace with actual method logic manualResetEvent.Set(); // Unblock all threads executing ExternallyCalled Thread.Sleep(1000); // Inter-cycles delay } } Obviously, this doesn't work. There's no guarantee that there won't be any threads executing ExternallyCalled that are in between manualResetEvent.WaitOne(); and countdownEvent.AddCount(); at the time the main thread gets released by the CountdownEvent. I can't figure out a simple way of doing what I'm after, and almost everything that I've found after a lengthy search is related to producer/consumer synchronization which I can't apply here.

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  • Controlling race condition at startup.

    - by Will Hartung
    I have some code that I want to have some one time initialisation performed. But this code doesn't have a definite lifecycle, so my logic can be potentially invoked by multiple threads before my initialisation is done. So, I want to basically ensure that my logic code "waits" until initialisation is done. This is my first cut. public class MyClass { private static final AtomicBoolean initialised = new AtomicBoolean(false); public void initialise() { synchronized(initialised) { initStuff(); initialised.getAndSet(true); initialised.notifyAll(); } } public void doStuff() { synchronized(initialised) { if (!initialised.get()) { try { initialised.wait(); } catch (InterruptedException ex) { throw new RuntimeException("Uh oh!", ex); } } } doOtherStuff(); } } I basically want to make sure this is going to do what I think it's going to do -- block doStuff until the initialised is true, and that I'm not missing a race condition where doStuff might get stuck on a Object.wait() that will never arrive. Edit: I have no control over the threads. And I want to be able to control when all of the initialisation is done, which is why doStuff() can't call initialise(). I used an AtomicBoolean as it was a combination of a value holder, and an object I could synchronize. I could have also simply had a "public static final Object lock = new Object();" and a simple boolean flag. AtomicBoolean conveniently gave me both. A Boolean can not be modified. The CountDownLatch is exactly what I was looking for. I also considered using a Sempahore with 0 permits. But the CountDownLatch is perfect for just this task.

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  • Python threading question (Working with a method that blocks forever)

    - by Nix
    I am trying to wrap a thread around some receiving logic in python. Basically we have an app, that will have a thread in the background polling for messages, the problem I ran into is that piece that actually pulls the messages waits forever for a message. Making it impossible to terminate... I ended up wrapping the pull in another thread, but I wanted to make sure there wasn't a better way to do it. Original code: class Manager: def __init__(self): receiver = MessageReceiver() receiver.start() #do other stuff... class MessageReceiver(Thread): receiver = Receiver() def __init__(self): Thread.__init__(self) def run(self): #stop is a flag that i use to stop the thread... while(not stopped ): #can never stop because pull below blocks message = receiver.pull() print "Message" + message What I refectored to: class Manager: def __init__(self): receiver = MessageReceiver() receiver.start() class MessageReceiver(Thread): receiver = Receiver() def __init__(self): Thread.__init__(self) def run(self): pullThread = PullThread(self.receiver) pullThread.start() #stop is a flag that i use to stop the thread... while(not stopped and pullThread.last_message ==None): pass message = pullThread.last_message print "Message" + message class PullThread(Thread): last_message = None def __init__(self, receiver): Thread.__init(self, target=get_message, args=(receiver)) def get_message(self, receiver): self.last_message = None self.last_message = receiver.pull() return self.last_message I know the obvious locking issues exist, but is this the appropriate way to control a receive thread that waits forever for a message? One thing I did notice was this thing eats 100% cpu while waiting for a message... **If you need to see the stopping logic please let me know and I will post.

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  • How security of the systems might be improved using database procedures?

    - by Centurion
    The usage of Oracle PL/SQL procedures for controlling access to data often emphasized in PL/SQL books and other sources as being more secure approach. I'v seen several systems where all business logic related with data is performed through packages, procedures and functions, so application code becomes quite "dumb" and is only responsible for visualization part. I even heard some devs call such approaches and driving architects as database nazi :) because all logic code resides in database. I do know about DB procedure performance benefits, but now I'm interested in a "better security" when using thick client model. I assume such design mostly used when Oracle (and maybe MS SQL Server) databases are used. I do agree such approach improves security but only if there are not much users and every system user has a database account, so we might control and monitor data access through standard database user security. However, how such approach could increase the security for an average web system where thick clients are used: for example one database user with DML grants on all tables, and other users are handled using "users" and"user_rights" tables? We could use DB procedures, save usernames into context use that for filtering but vulnerability resides at the root - if the main database account is compromised than nothing will help. Of course in a real system we might consider at least several main users (for example frontend_db_user, backend_db_user).

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  • Custom Tile Layer Problem

    - by Myra
    Hi,I'm currently implementing logic on custom tile layers via OpenLayers function getTiles() { var res = this.map.getResolution(); var x = Math.round((bounds.left - this.maxExtent.left) / (res * this.tileSize.w)); var y = Math.round((this.maxExtent.top - bounds.top) / (res * this.tileSize.h)); var z = this.map.getZoom(); return ......; } What I need to is to carry this code in Google API v3. As I searched documentation I found this code to work with: var customtile = new google.maps.ImageMapType({ getTileUrl: function (coord, zoom) { .... .... } Unfortonately,I cannot convert logic in OpenLayers code to Google. As I know resolution is 180 * tileSize.w / Math.pow(2, zoom) //where tileSize is 256x256 Since Google projection is same with my tiles WGS84 boundary should be -180,-90,90,180 I need to calculate to extent coordinates,but in function getTileUrl,there are two arguments.One of which is zoom,but the other coord is some x,y pair which I dont understand what that is.What is that exactly ? How can I generalize formula for calculating tile numbers in Google Maps? Thank you Myra

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  • Help with HTTP Intercepting Proxy in Ruby?

    - by Philip
    I have the beginnings of an HTTP Intercepting Proxy written in Ruby: require 'socket' # Get sockets from stdlib server = TCPServer.open(8080) # Socket to listen on port 8080 loop { # Servers run forever Thread.start(server.accept) do |client| puts "** Got connection!" @output = "" @host = "" @port = 80 while line = client.gets line.chomp! if (line =~ /^(GET|CONNECT) .*(\.com|\.net):(.*) (HTTP\/1.1|HTTP\/1.0)$/) @port = $3 elsif (line =~ /^Host: (.*)$/ && @host == "") @host = $1 end print line + "\n" @output += line + "\n" # This *may* cause problems with not getting full requests, # but without this, the loop never returns. break if line == "" end if (@host != "") puts "** Got host! (#{@host}:#{@port})" out = TCPSocket.open(@host, @port) puts "** Got destination!" out.print(@output) while line = out.gets line.chomp! if (line =~ /^<proxyinfo>.*<\/proxyinfo>$/) # Logic is done here. end print line + "\n" client.print(line + "\n") end out.close end client.close end } This simple proxy that I made parses the destination out of the HTTP request, then reads the HTTP response and performs logic based on special HTML tags. The proxy works for the most part, but seems to have trouble dealing with binary data and HTTPS connections. How can I fix these problems?

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  • Manipulating data in sql / asp.net / c# - how?

    - by SLC
    Not sure how to word the question... Basically, so far all my SQL stuff has been stored procedures and dumped into a gridview. The odd case where I had to perform an action based on a value (such as highlighting a row green if a certain value was true) were done as the gridview was rendering in one of the overrides. Now however I have to do something far more complicated - pull three sets of data down, run a series of checks on all three and some date related checks and stuff, then populate a gridview with some of the items. In logic terms, I want to run three queries, and store the lists of results (presumably in Lists?) then run some logic, then populate the gridview. Specifically what I don't know how to do is: Best way of pulling the data, and putting it into a List or other datastructure that lets me easily run through it, and retrieve data based on column (myList.age, or more likely, myList["Age"]). One I have compared the data, I assume I create a new list that will be put into the gridview... how do I put the contents of a list INTO a gridview? How would I add other stuff such as buttons or checkboxes at the same time? Any nudge in the right direction would be appreciated! Particularly doing cool stuff with lists and sql (if there is anything cool you can do with them)

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  • Configuring ASP.NET MVC2 on Apache 2.2 using mod_aspdotnet

    - by user40684
    Trying to get an MVC2 website to run on Apache 2.2 web server (running on Windows) that utilizes the mod_aspdotnet module. Have several ASP.NET Virtual Hosts running, trying to add another. MVC2 has NO default page (like the first version of MVC had e.g default.aspx). I have tried various changes to the config: commented out 'DirectoryIndex', changed it to '/'. Set 'ASPNET' to 'Virtual', will not load first page, always get: '403 Forbidden, You don't have permission to access / on this server.' Below is from my http.conf: LoadModule aspdotnet_module "modules/mod_aspdotnet.so" AddHandler asp.net asax ascx ashx asmx aspx axd config cs csproj licx rem resources resx soap vb vbproj vsdisco webinfo <IfModule aspdotnet_module> # Mount the ASP.NET /asp application #AspNetMount /MyWebSiteName "D:/ApacheNET/MyWebSiteName.com" Alias /MyWebSiteName" D:/ApacheNET/MyWebSiteName.com" <VirtualHost *:80> DocumentRoot "D:/ApacheNET/MyWebSiteName.com" ServerName www.MyWebSiteName.com ServerAlias MyWebSiteName.com AspNetMount / "D:/ApacheNET/MyWebSiteName.com" # Other directives here <Directory "D:/ApacheNET/MyWebSiteName.com"> Options FollowSymlinks ExecCGI AspNet All #AspNet Virtual Files Directory Order allow,deny Allow from all DirectoryIndex default.aspx index.aspx index.html #default the index page to .htm and .aspx </Directory> </VirtualHost> # For all virtual ASP.NET webs, we need the aspnet_client files # to serve the client-side helper scripts. AliasMatch /aspnet_client/system_web/(\d+)_(\d+)_(\d+)_(\d+)/(.*) "C:/Windows /Microsoft.NET/Framework/v$1.$2.$3/ASP.NETClientFiles/$4" <Directory "C:/Windows/Microsoft.NET/Framework/v*/ASP.NETClientFiles"> Options FollowSymlinks Order allow,deny Allow from all </Directory> </IfModule> Has anyone successfully run MVC2 (or the first version of MVC) on Apache with the mod_aspdotnet module? Thanks !

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  • Windows 7 Backup not backing up custom library?

    - by James McMahon
    I have created a custom Library under Windows 7 64bit professional to handle my source code. When I tried Windows Backup and Restore for the first time I get the following error Backup encountered a problem while backing up file C:\Windows\System32\config\systemprofile\Source. Error:(The system cannot find the file specified. (0x80070002)) I've found a thread on the error on the Microsoft answers site. But it appears to be 404 (there is a version in Google's Cache) and the thread starter never gets an answer to his issue that works. The official Microsoft answer on this is This problem is due to one or more profiles under HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\SOFTWARE\Microsoft\WindowsNT\CurrentVersion\ProfileList with missing ProfileImagePath. To check whether you have missing profiles: Open regedit, navigate to the above registry key. (HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\SOFTWARE\Microsoft\Windows NT\CurrentVersion\ProfileList). Expand the list Click on each of the profiles listed. The first 3 profiles should have ProfileImagePath value of %SystemRoot%\System32\Config\SystemProfile, %SystemRoot%\ServiceProfiles\LocalService, and %SystemRoot%\ServiceProfiles\NetworkService respectively. Starting from the 4th profile, the ProfileImagePath should contain path to the user profiles on your machine, such as C:\users\Christine If one or more of the profile has no profile image, then you have missing profiles. To work around this, delete the profile in question (Caution: The registry contains critical settings that are necessary for your system to function properly. Take extra caution while making changes) First, export the ProfileList key for safekeeping. (Right click on the key, choose “Export”, and save it to the desktop.) Right click on the profile in question, choose delete. Try backup again. This does not work for me. Anyone have any idea what is going on here?

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  • No internet connection using Edimax routers

    - by idan315
    I have two computers connected to a router, connected to my ADSL modem by PPPoE. One of those computrs use Windows XP, the other uses Windows 7. The computer using Windows 7 keeps getting limited or no connectivity, and I can't use it to connect to the internet. Connecting the computer to the modem without the router 'in the way' worked, and I was able to use the internet - which led me to believe that the problem is with my router. However, I have changed my router, and the problem persists. I am really lost on how to approach this problem. Possible leads: when I view the network information, I see that my computer is connected to 'Multiple Networks'. One of those is "Network 4" (probably my router), and the other is Unidentified network. I don't know how to make the "Unidentified Network" disappear, or why is it even there in the first place. When I try using "ipconfig", I have two default gateway IPs. The first is 0.0.0.0, and the second is the IP of my router (192.168.2.1). The first router was Edimax BR-6204Wg. The second one I've tried connecting is BR-6424n. Any ideas?

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  • How can I install Satchmo?

    - by Jonathan Hayward
    I am trying to install Satchmo 0.9 on an Ubuntu 9.10 guest off of the instructions at http://bitbucket.org/chris1610/satchmo/downloads/Satchmo.pdf. I run into difficulties at 2.1.2: pip install -r http://bitbucket.org/chris1610/satchmo/raw/tip/scripts/requirements.txt pip install -e hg+http://bitbucket.org/chris1610/satchmo/@v0.9#egg=satchmo The first command fails because a compile error for how it's trying to build PIL. So I ran an "aptitude install python-imaging", locally copy the first line's requirements.text, and remove the line that's unsuccessfully trying to build PIL. The first line completes without error, as does the second. The next step tells me to change directory to the /path/to/new/store, and run: python clonesatchmo.py A little bit of trouble here; I am told that clonesatchmo.py will be in /bin by now, and it isn't there, but I put some Satchmo stuff under /usr/local, create a symlink in /bin, and run: python /bin/clonesatchmo.py This gives: jonathan@ubuntu:~/store$ python /bin/clonesatchmo.py Creating the Satchmo Application Traceback (most recent call last): File "/bin/clonesatchmo.py", line 108, in <module> create_satchmo_site(opts.site_name) File "/bin/clonesatchmo.py", line 47, in create_satchmo_site import satchmo_skeleton ImportError: No module named satchmo_skeleton A find after apparently checking out the repository reveals that there is no file with a name like satchmo*skeleton* on my system. I thought that bash might be prone to take part of the second pip invocation's URL as the beginning of a comment; I tried both: pip install -e hg+http://bitbucket.org/chris1610/satchmo/@v0.9\#egg=satchmo pip install -e hg+http://bitbucket.org/chris1610/satchmo/@v0.9#egg=satchmo Neither way of doing it seems to take care of the import error mentioned above. How can I get a Satchmo installation under Ubuntu, or at least enough of a Satchmo installation that I am able to start with a skeleton of a store and then flesh it out the way I want? Thanks, Jonathan

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  • Slow VM on esxi 4.1

    - by user57432
    We have a FreeBSD 64bit running on a esxi 4.1, the hardware platform is a DELL R710 with 2 x 56xx (intel 6core cpu) and 48 GB ram. The FreeBSD vm is very slow, when we compiles/builds something on it, it takes 5 minuts and it says "build time 18 seconds.". There's no vmtools installed on the vm. The same vm is installaed on another R710 running esxi 4.0 for dell and there's no problems with that one. Does anyone have any idea about what to look for? the VMs on the second server (ESXi 4.1) is a clone of the VMs running on the first VMserver (ESXi 4.0 Dell edition). It's not possible for me to move the VM back to the first server since the file contaning the vm is too big. We installed the new esxi with a datasore with 8mb blocks because 1mb blocks dident allow for the file size we needed. It looks like the www server on the new ESXi 4.1 works fine, but I havent really tested it. There's not installed vmtools on any of the VMs (FreeBSD). The block size on the second VM (ESXi 4.1) datastorage is 8mb and 1mb on the first (ESXi 4.0)

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  • Why did MAC-Adress Cloning Fix My Router?

    - by FranticPedantic
    I have a Belkin router, and about a year ago, I suddenly lost my internet connectivity from Comcast. The internet worked fine when I plugged it right into my laptop, so I just ignored it. When I moved to another apartmnet I eventually took the dive and called tech support. The tech told me to clone my MAC address which completely fixed the issue. Now I know what a MAC address is and I've read what MAC cloning is. What has bothered me since is that I don't see how this fixed the issue. As I have understood MAC address cloning, it has the router pretend it has the same MAC address as my computer. Here is why I don't understand why this fixes my issue: I have used several different computers with this router. Cloning the MAC address fixed it for ALL of my computers. The laptop I first used with my ISP was not the one that I eventually had connected when I cloned the address. Furthermore, I didn't have any problems for quite some time after I stopped using the first computer. It wasn't like the internet suddenly stopped working when I changed which laptop I was using Now it occurred to me that maybe there was some sort of expiration? Except... Which MAC address did it clone? It was just an option in the router administration page. Did it just pick whichever computer was connected to it? If my ISP still wanted the MAC of my first computer, how did some other computer's fix it? As mentioned earlier, why did this problem seemingly stem from nowhere? Anyway, I don't have any current problems so this is more just out of general curiosity. If anybody can explain it, it would be appreciated!

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  • How can I set my bootloader to load my primary (C:) partition?

    - by acidzombie24
    I created 4 partitions and want to use them to have seperate Windows XP, Windows 7, (possibly) Windows Vista installations, and "WinDummy" (to test applications in Vista, XP or another OS). I used Norton Ghost to install an OS to the drive in about 3 minutes. My problem is that I installed the spare first on the 4th partition, then Windows 7 on the second. I tried to set the bootloader (with easybcd) to use the first partition - but it doesn't want to. Heres my debug screen on easybcd As you can see, the device is set to H and i cant figure out how to change it. I can make my bootloader use Windows 7 first, but I can't make it use my C: install of XP instead of my spare H:. How would I fix this? Windows Boot Manager -------------------- identifier {9dea862c-5cdd-4e70-acc1-f32b344d4795} device partition=H: description Windows Boot Manager locale en-US inherit {7ea2e1ac-2e61-4728-aaa3-896d9d0a9f0e} default {bc2d8409-8640-11de-aa7e-a477d86453c4} resumeobject {bc2d8405-8640-11de-aa7e-a477d86453c4} displayorder {bc2d8409-8640-11de-aa7e-a477d86453c4} {bc2d8406-8640-11de-aa7e-a477d86453c4} {bc2d8404-8640-11de-aa7e-a477d86453c4} {466f5a88-0af2-4f76-9038-095b170dc21c} toolsdisplayorder {b2721d73-1db4-4c62-bf78-c548a880142d} timeout 3 Real-mode Boot Sector --------------------- identifier {bc2d8409-8640-11de-aa7e-a477d86453c4} device partition=C: path \NTLDR description Windows XP Windows Boot Loader ------------------- identifier {bc2d8406-8640-11de-aa7e-a477d86453c4} device partition=D: path \Windows\system32\winload.exe description Windows 7 locale en-US inherit {6efb52bf-1766-41db-a6b3-0ee5eff72bd7} recoverysequence {bc2d8407-8640-11de-aa7e-a477d86453c4} recoveryenabled Yes osdevice partition=D: systemroot \Windows resumeobject {bc2d8405-8640-11de-aa7e-a477d86453c4} nx OptIn Windows Boot Loader ------------------- identifier {bc2d8404-8640-11de-aa7e-a477d86453c4} device partition=E: path \Windows\system32\winload.exe description Blank osdevice partition=E: systemroot \Windows Windows Legacy OS Loader ------------------------ identifier {466f5a88-0af2-4f76-9038-095b170dc21c} device partition=H: path \ntldr description Windows XP Spare

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  • Help diagnosing Likewise Open Active Directory authentication problem

    - by purpletonic
    I have two servers which were up until recently authenticating against the companies Active Directory Domain controller. I believe a recent change to the Active Directory administrator password caused the servers to stop authenticating against AD. I tried to add the servers back to the domain using the command: domainjoin-cli join example.com adusername this seemed to work without complaints, but when I try to login via ssh with my domain account, I get an invalid password error. When I run the command: lw-enum-users it prints all of the domain users, and looking up my own account, I see that it is valid and my password hasn't expired. I also ran lw-get-status and received the following: LSA Server Status: Agent version: 5.0.0 Uptime: 0 days 3 hours 35 minutes 46 seconds [Authentication provider: lsa-activedirectory-provider] Status: Online Mode: Un-provisioned Domain: example.com Forest: example.com Site: Default-First-Site-Name Online check interval: 300 seconds \[Trusted Domains: 1\] \[Domain: EXAMPLE\] DNS Domain: example.com Netbios name: EXAMPLE Forest name: example.com Trustee DNS name: Client site name: Default-First-Site-Name Domain SID: S-1-5-24-1081533780-4562211299-822531512 Domain GUID: 057f0239-7715-4711-e64b-eb5eeed20e65 Trust Flags: \[0x001d\] \[0x0001 - In forest\] \[0x0004 - Tree root\] \[0x0008 - Primary\] \[0x0010 - Native\] Trust type: Up Level Trust Attributes: \[0x0000\] Trust Direction: Primary Domain Trust Mode: In my forest Trust (MFT) Domain flags: \[0x0001\] \[0x0001 - Primary\] \[Domain Controller (DC) Information\] DC Name: dc1.example.com DC Address: 10.11.0.103 DC Site: Default-First-Site-Name DC Flags: \[0x000003fd\] DC Is PDC: yes DC is time server: yes DC has writeable DS: yes DC is Global Catalog: yes DC is running KDC: yes [Authentication provider: lsa-local-provider] Status: Online Mode: Local system Anyone got any ideas what might be occurring? Thanks in advance!

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  • RPM Spec How to specify in package so that previous RPM is removed

    - by user123819
    Question: What do I put in the foo.spec file so that the rpm's will remove the previous rpm before installing? Description: I have created a spec file that creates rpm's for a few packages that use the same source and provide the same service, each with a slightly different configuration. E.g. they each provide the same "capability" Here's an example of the essentials that my .spec file looks like: %define version 1234 %define name foo %define release 1 %define pkgname %{name}-%{version}-%{release} Name: %{name} Version: %{version} Release: %{release} Provides: %{name} %package one Summary: Summary for foo-one Group: %{group} Obsoletes: %{name} <= %{version} Provides: %{name} = %{version} %description one Blah blah blah %package two Summary: Summary for foo-two Group: %{group} Obsoletes: %{name} <= %{version} Provides: %{name} = %{version} %description two Blah blah blah # %prep, %install, %build and %clean are pretty simple # and omitted here for brevity sake %files one %defattr(-,root,root,-) %{_prefix}/%{pkgname} %files two %defattr(-,root,root,-) %{_prefix}/%{pkgname} When I install the first one, it installs ok. I then remove the first one, and then install the second one, that works fine too. I then install the first one, followed immediately by installing the second one, and they both install, one over the other, but, I was expecting that the second one would be removed before installing the second. Example session: # rpmbuild foo and copy rpms to yum repo $ yum install foo-one ... $ yum list installed|grep foo foo-one.noarch 1234-1 @myrepo $ yum install foo-two ...[Should say that it is removing foo-one, but does not]... $ yum list installed|grep foo foo-one.noarch 1234-1 @myrepo foo-two.noarch 1234-1 @myrepo $ rpm -q --provides foo-one foo = 1234 foo-one = 1234-1 $ rpm -q --provides foo-two foo = 1234 foo-two = 1234-1 What do I put in the foo.spec file so that the rpm's will remove the previous rpm before installing? Thank you, .dave.

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  • Setting a time limit for a transaction in MySQL/InnoDB

    - by Trevor Burnham
    This sprang from this related question, where I wanted to know how to force two transactions to occur sequentially in a trivial case (where both are operating on only a single row). I got an answer—use SELECT ... FOR UPDATE as the first line of both transactions—but this leads to a problem: If the first transaction is never committed or rolled back, then the second transaction will be blocked indefinitely. The innodb_lock_wait_timeout variable sets the number of seconds after which the client trying to make the second transaction would be told "Sorry, try again"... but as far as I can tell, they'd be trying again until the next server reboot. So: Surely there must be a way to force a ROLLBACK if a transaction is taking forever? Must I resort to using a daemon to kill such transactions, and if so, what would such a daemon look like? If a connection is killed by wait_timeout or interactive_timeout mid-transaction, is the transaction rolled back? Is there a way to test this from the console? Clarification: innodb_lock_wait_timeout sets the number of seconds that a transaction will wait for a lock to be released before giving up; what I want is a way of forcing a lock to be released. Update: Here's a simple example that demonstrates why innodb_lock_wait_timeout is not sufficient to ensure that the second transaction is not blocked by the first: START TRANSACTION; SELECT SLEEP(55); COMMIT; With the default setting of innodb_lock_wait_timeout = 50, this transaction completes without errors after 55 seconds. And if you add an UPDATE before the SLEEP line, then initiate a second transaction from another client that tries to SELECT ... FOR UPDATE the same row, it's the second transaction that times out, not the one that fell asleep. What I'm looking for is a way to force an end to this transaction's restful slumber.

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  • Can't install NPM after installing Node on EC2 Linux instance?

    - by frequent
    I'm trying my first attempt on getting a node server set up on an amazon ec2 linux instance. I think I made it quite far. First problem I ran into was when trying to make Node the connection timed out after a while, so I need three attempts until I got this: LINK(target) /home/ec2-user/node/out/Release/node: Finished touch /home/ec2-user/node/out/Release/obj.target/node_dtrace_header.stamp touch /home/ec2-user/node/out/Release/obj.target/node_dtrace_provider.stamp touch /home/ec2-user/node/out/Release/obj.target/node_dtrace_ustack.stamp touch /home/ec2-user/node/out/Release/obj.target/node_etw.stamp make[1]: Leaving directory `/home/ec2-user/node/out' ln -fs out/Release/node node Which tells me, "Node is done", although I'm not sure it is also working as it should. Following this,this and this tutorial, I'm now stuck at installing npm. I think I first cloned into the wrong folder, which always gave me error 127, but even if I'm doing this: cd ~ git clone git://github.com/isaacs/npm.git cd npm sudo -s PATH=/usr/local/bin:$PATH make install I'm still getting this: #after cloning# make[1]: Entering directory `/root/npm' node cli.js install bash: node: command not found make[1]: *** [node_modules/.bin/ronn] Error 127 make[1]: Leaving directory `/root/npm' make: *** [man/man3/start.3] Error 2 Question:: Since I'm pretty much a newby at everything I'm trying here, can someone please tell me what I'm doing wrong and how to get npm to install? Also, in case I cloned into the wrong folder, is there a way to remove the "false clone" or is this not written to disk until I call make install and I don't need to worry? Thanks for helping out!

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  • How can I install Satchmo?

    - by Jonathan Hayward
    I am trying to install Satchmo 0.9 on an Ubuntu 9.10 32-bit guest off of the instructions at http://bitbucket.org/chris1610/satchmo/downloads/Satchmo.pdf. I run into difficulties at 2.1.2: pip install -r http://bitbucket.org/chris1610/satchmo/raw/tip/scripts/requirements.txt pip install -e hg+http://bitbucket.org/chris1610/satchmo/@v0.9#egg=satchmo The first command fails because a compile error for how it's trying to build PIL. So I ran an "aptitude install python-imaging", locally copy the first line's requirements.text, and remove the line that's unsuccessfully trying to build PIL. The first line completes without reported error, as does the second. The next step tells me to change directory to the /path/to/new/store, and run: python clonesatchmo.py A little bit of trouble here; I am told that clonesatchmo.py will be in /bin by now, and it isn't there, but I put some Satchmo stuff under /usr/local, create a symlink in /bin, and run: python /bin/clonesatchmo.py This gives: jonathan@ubuntu:~/store$ python /bin/clonesatchmo.py Creating the Satchmo Application Traceback (most recent call last): File "/bin/clonesatchmo.py", line 108, in <module> create_satchmo_site(opts.site_name) File "/bin/clonesatchmo.py", line 47, in create_satchmo_site import satchmo_skeleton ImportError: No module named satchmo_skeleton A find after apparently checking out the repository reveals that there is no file with a name like satchmo*skeleton* on my system. I thought that bash might be prone to take part of the second pip invocation's URL as the beginning of a comment; I tried both: pip install -e hg+http://bitbucket.org/chris1610/satchmo/@v0.9\#egg=satchmo pip install -e hg+http://bitbucket.org/chris1610/satchmo/@v0.9#egg=satchmo Neither way of doing it seems to take care of the import error mentioned above. How can I get a Satchmo installation under Ubuntu, or at least enough of a Satchmo installation that I am able to start with a skeleton of a store and then flesh it out the way I want? Thanks, Jonathan

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