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  • Security Exception when using Custom ASP.NET Healthmonitoring event in medium trust

    - by Elementenfresser
    Hi, I'm using custom healthmonitoring events in ASP.NET We recently moved to a new server with default High Trust Permissions. Literature says that healthmonitoring and custom events should work under Medium or higher trust (http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb398933.aspx). Problem is - it doesn't. In less than full trust I get a SecurityException saying The application attempted to perform an operation not allowed by the security policy It works in Full trust or when I remove the inheritance of System.Web.Management.WebErrorEvent. Any suggestions anyone? Here is the super simple code behind with a custom event defined: public partial class Default : System.Web.UI.Page { protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { try { CallCustomEvent(); } catch (Exception ex) { Response.Write(ex.Message); throw ex; } } /// <summary> /// this metho is never called due to lacking permissions... /// </summary> private void CallCustomEvent() { try { //do something useful here } catch (Exception) { //code to instantiate the forbidden inheritance... WebBaseEvent.Raise(new CustomEvent()); } } } /// <summary> /// custom error inheriting WebErrorEvent which is not allowed in high trust? can't believe that... /// </summary> public class CustomEvent : WebErrorEvent { public CustomEvent() : base("test", HttpContext.Current.Request, 100001, new ApplicationException("dummy")) { } } and the Web Config excerpt for high trust: <system.web> <trust level="High" originUrl="" />

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  • new Stateful session bean instance without calling lookup

    - by kislo_metal
    Scenario: I have @Singleton UserFactory (@Stateless could be) , its method createSession() generating @Stateful UserSession bean by manual lookup. If I am injecting by DI @EJB - i will get same instance during calling fromFactory() method(as it should be) What I want - is to get new instance of UserSession without preforming lookup. Q1: how could I call new instance of @Stateful session bean? Code: @Singleton @Startup @LocalBean public class UserFactory { @EJB private UserSession session; public UserFactory() { } @Schedule(second = "*/1", minute = "*", hour = "*") public void creatingInstances(){ try { InitialContext ctx = new InitialContext(); UserSession session2 = (UserSession) ctx.lookup("java:global/inferno/lic/UserSession"); System.out.println("in singleton UUID " +session2.getSessionUUID()); } catch (NamingException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } } @Schedule(second = "*/1", minute = "*", hour = "*") public void fromFactory(){ System.out.println("in singleton UUID " +session.getSessionUUID()); } public UserSession creatSession(){ UserSession session2 = null; try { InitialContext ctx = new InitialContext(); session2 = (UserSession) ctx.lookup("java:global/inferno/lic/UserSession"); System.out.println("in singleton UUID " +session2.getSessionUUID()); } catch (NamingException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } return session2; } } As I understand, calling of session.getClass().newInstance(); is not a best idea Q2 : is it true? I am using glassfish v3, ejb 3.1.

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  • What VC++ compiler/linker does when building a C++ project with Managed Extension

    - by ???
    The initial problem is that I tried to rebuild a C++ project with debug symbols and copied it to test machine, The output of the project is external COM server(.exe file). When calling the COM interface function, there's a RPC call failre: COMException(0x800706BE): The remote procedure call failed. According to the COM HRESULT design, if the FACILITY code is 7, it's actually a WIN32 error, and the win32 error code is 0x6BE, which is the above mentioned "remote procedure call failed". All I do is replace the COM server .exe file, the origin file works well. When I checked into the project, I found it's a C++ project with Managed Extension. When I checking the DLL with reflector, it shows there's 2 additional .NET assembly reference. Then I checked the project setting and found nothing about the extra 2 assembly reference. I turned on the show includes option of compiler and verbose library of linker, and try to analyze whether the assembly is indirectly referenced via .h file. I've collect all the .h file and grep all the files with '#using' '#import' and the assembly file itself. There really is a '#using ' in one of the .h file but not-relevant to the referenced assembly. And about the linked .lib library files, only one of the .lib file is a side-product of another managed-extension-enabled C++ project, all others are produced by a pure, traditional C++ project. For the managed-extension-enabled C++ project, I checked the output DLL assembly, it did NOT reference to the 2 assembly. I even try to capture the access of the additional assembly file via sysinternal's filemon and procmon, but the rebuild process does NOT access these file. I'm very confused about the compile and linking process model of a VC++/CLI project, where the additional assembly reference slipped into the final assembly? Thanks in advance for any of your help.

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  • can javascript process binary data?

    - by Johnny
    admit me describe my questions in situation-oriented way: assume IE is still the dominate web browser(the firefox have document for binary processing): the XMLHttpRequest.responseText or XMLHttpRequest.responseXML in ie desire txt or xml/xhtml/html,but what about the server response the xmlHttprequest whith MIME TYPE application/octet ? would the response string all little than 256 ?(every char of that string < 256), thanks very much for a straight answer, i have no webserver env,so i don't know how to test it out. because use txt or xml have a issue of character set encode, and i don't know how to process #[[[CDDATA node of one encoded xml(ex : utf-8,ascii,gb18030) with javascript, when i getNodeText, does the docObj return me byte or decoded char ? if it was decoded char which according to the header indicated charSet in the httpresponse , it would be all wrong. to avoid mess up with charSet ,i would like the server to response octet data and force strings data to be encoded as utf-8 but another charSet in the binary format. if the response is octal, so i guess the browser would not try to decode the response"txt" does this weird? or miss understanding the fundamental things? EDIT: I believe the question is asking this: Can Javascript safely process strings that aren't encoded in Unicode? What are the problems with trying to do so? EDIT: no no no , i means if http-header: content-type is "application/octet" , would the ie try to decoded it as (16bits Unicode | ie local setting charset ) when i get XMLHttpRequestobj.responseText use javascript ? or it(ie) just wrap every single byte of the response body as a javascript string, then every char in that string little than or equal 256 (char<=256), am i talking Mars language? sadly, if i were Marsizen,i would come as tourist without fuzzy questions. however i am in a country which share at least one property with Mars : RED

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  • how to release object from thid party dll?

    - by Mohamed
    hi all, i'm developing a program to convert RTF to html i'm using the DLLs found here http://www.codeproject.com/KB/recipes/RtfConverter.aspx?fid=1458864&df=90&mpp=25&noise=3&sort=Position&view=Quick&select=3427424&fr=1#xx0xx this dll saves a jpg file from html to a specific folder, when i run the program, it cinverts the rtf for the first time and saves the images to the folder perfectly but when i try to convert it again i hace this error "error a generic error occured in GDI+" i think this dll use SaveImage method and to avoid this you must release the Image object you created but i can't modify the DLL, is there is any way to release the object i've created from this dll? this is my code RtfVisualImageAdapter imageAdapter = new RtfVisualImageAdapter( @Application.StartupPath + "\\Program Data\\temp\\{0}{1}", System.Drawing.Imaging.ImageFormat.Jpeg); RtfImageConvertSettings imageConvertSettings = new RtfImageConvertSettings(imageAdapter); RtfImageConverter imageConverter = new RtfImageConverter(imageConvertSettings); try { IRtfDocument rtfDocument = RtfInterpreterTool.BuildDoc( ConversionText, imageConverter); RtfHtmlConverter htmlConverter = new RtfHtmlConverter(rtfDocument); htmlConverter.Settings.ConvertVisualHyperlinks = true; htmlConverter.Settings.UseNonBreakingSpaces = true; this.richTextBoxPrintCtrl2.Text = htmlConverter.Convert(); } catch (Exception exception) { MessageBox.Show(this, "Error " + exception.Message, this.Text, MessageBoxButtons.OK, MessageBoxIcon.Error); }

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  • How can I read the value of a radio button in JavaScript?

    - by Corey
    <html> <head> <title>Tip Calculator</title> <script type="text/javascript"><!-- function calculateBill(){ var check = document.getElementById("check").value; /* I try to get the value selected */ var tipPercent = document.getElementById("tipPercent").value; /* But it always returns the value 15 */ var tip = check * (tipPercent / 100) var bill = 1 * check + tip; document.getElementById('bill').innerHTML = bill; } --></script> </head> <body> <h1 style="text-align:center">Tip Calculator</h1> <form id="f1" name="f1"> Average Service: 15% <input type="radio" id="tipPercent" name="tipPercent" value="15" /> <br /> Excellent Service: 20% <input type="radio" id="tipPercent" name="tipPercent" value="20" /> <br /><br /> <label>Check Amount</label> <input type="text" id="check" size="10" /> <input type="button" onclick="calculateBill()" value="Calculate" /> </form> <br /> Total Bill: <p id="bill"></p> </body> </html> I try to get the value selected with document.getElementById("tipPercent").value, but it always returns the value 15.

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  • Looping through a file in VB.NET

    - by Ousman
    I am writing a VB.NET program and I'm trying to accomplish the following: Read and loop through a text file line by line Show the event of the loop on a textbox or label until a button is pressed The loop will then stop on any number that happened to be at the loop event and When a button is pressed again the loop will continue. Code Imports System.IO Public Class Form1 'Dim nFileNum As Integer = FreeFile() ' Get a free file number Dim strFileName As String = "C:\scb.txt" Dim objFilename As FileStream = New FileStream(strFileName, _ FileMode.Open, FileAccess.Read, FileShare.Read) Dim objFileRead As StreamReader = New StreamReader(objFilename) 'Dim lLineCount As Long 'Dim sNextLine As String Private Sub btStart_Click(ByVal sender As System.Object, _ ByVal e As System.EventArgs) _ Handles btStart.Click Try If objFileRead.ReadLine = Nothing Then MsgBox("No Accounts Available to show!", _ MsgBoxStyle.Information, _ MsgBoxStyle.DefaultButton2 = MsgBoxStyle.OkOnly) Return Else Do While (objFileRead.Peek() > -1) Loop lblAccounts.Text = objFileRead.ReadLine() 'objFileRead.Close() 'objFilename.Close() End If Catch ex As Exception MessageBox.Show(ex.Message) Finally 'objFileRead.Close() 'objFilename.Close() End Try End Sub Private Sub Form1_Load(ByVal sender As System.Object, _ ByVal e As System.EventArgs) _ Handles MyBase.Load End Sub End Class Problem I'm able to read the text file but my label will only loop if I hit the start button. It goes to the next line, but I want it to continue to loop through the entire file until I hit a button telling it to stop.

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  • Generated HTML word document not displaying image correctly

    - by spiderdijon
    I'm trying to add an image to a generated html word document that is embedded in a classic ASP page. The code looks something like this: <% Response.ContentType = "application/msword" %> <html xmlns:v="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:vml" xmlns:o="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:office:office" xmlns:w="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:office:word"> ... <v:shape id="_x0000_s1030" type="#_x0000_t75" style='position:absolute; left:0;text-align:left;margin-left:0;margin-top:17.95pt;width:7in;height:116.85pt; z-index:2;mso-position-horizontal:center;mso-position-horizontal-relative:page; mso-position-vertical-relative:page'> <v:imagedata src="http://xxx/image001.gif" o:title="image001"/> <w:wrap anchorx="page" anchory="page"/> <w:anchorlock/> </v:shape><![endif]--><![if !vml]><span style='mso-ignore:vglayout;position: absolute;z-index:0;left:0px;margin-left:0px;margin-top:24px;width:672px; height:156px'><img width=672 height=156 src="http://xxx/image001.gif" v:shapes="_x0000_s1030"></span><![endif]> The image URL is correct and can be viewed through a browser, however when the word document opens, the image has a red x, with the error message: The image cannot be displayed. Your computer may not have enough memory to open the image, or the image may be corrupted. Restart your computer, and then open the file again. If the red x still appears, you may have to delete the image and then insert it again. If i copy the html code and try to open the word document on my local machine, it displays the image correctly. It just doesn't work when retrieving the document from the server. This happens for any images I try to add. Is there another way to add images to html-generated word documents that can be output from an asp page? Thanks.

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  • Membership.Updateuser not really updating the database.

    - by Shimrod
    Hi everybody, I'm currently working on a membership system for my web application, which is based on forms authentication from the framework. I created some users with the integrated tool, and the login is perfectly working. But now what I want to do is to give administrator the capability to create, modify, delete users. So here is what I've got right now: Protected Sub Page_Load(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles Me.Load Dim muc As MembershipUserCollection = Membership.GetAllUsers() ComboBox1.DataSource = muc ComboBox1.DataValueField = "UserName" ComboBox1.DataTextField = "UserName" ComboBox1.DataBind() End Sub Protected Sub ComboBox1_SelectedIndexChanged(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As EventArgs) Handles ComboBox1.SelectedIndexChanged Dim userName As String = ComboBox1.SelectedValue Dim mu As MembershipUser = Membership.GetUser(userName) Dim userRoles As String() = Roles.GetRolesForUser(userName) tbComments.Text = mu.Comment tbEmail.Text = mu.Email lblUserName.Text = mu.UserName End Sub Protected Sub Button1_Click(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As EventArgs) Handles Button1.Click Dim userName As String = ComboBox1.SelectedValue Dim mu As MembershipUser = Membership.GetUser(userName) If Not mu Is Nothing Then Try mu.Comment = tbComments.Text Membership.UpdateUser(mu) mu.Email = tbEmail.Text Membership.UpdateUser(mu) mu.IsApproved = True Membership.UpdateUser(mu) mu = Nothing Catch ex As Exception Console.WriteLine(ex.ToString()) End Try End If DetailPanel.Visible = False End Sub The problem is that the record doesn't seem to be updated in the database. I made the multiple calls to Membership.UpdateUser after reading this blog entry, but it didn't change anything. A strange think I noticed while debugging, is that when I enter the Button1_Click method, Membership.GetUser(userName) returns me values from my precedent attempt ! I don't really understand what I'm missing. Does someone have a clue ? Thanks in advance !

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  • How can I differentiate a manual scroll (via mousewheel/scrollbar) from a Javascript/jQuery scroll?

    - by David Murdoch
    UPDATE: Here is a jsbin example demonstrating the problem. Basically, I have the following javascript which scrolls the window to an anchor on the page: // get anchors with href's that start with "#" $("a[href^=#]").live("click", function(){ var target = $($(this).attr("href")); // if the target exists: scroll to it... if(target[0]){ // If the page isn't long enough to scroll to the target's position // we want to scroll as much as we can. This part prevents a sudden // stop when window.scrollTop reaches its maximum. var y = Math.min(target.offset().top, $(document).height() - $(window).height()); // also, don't try to scroll to a negative value... y=Math.max(y,0); // OK, you can scroll now... $("html,body").stop().animate({ "scrollTop": y }, 1000); } return false; }); It works perfectly......until I manually try to scroll the window. When the scrollbar or mousewheel is scrolled I need to stop the current scroll animation...but I'm not sure how to do this. This is probably my starting point... $(window).scroll(e){ if(IsManuallyScrolled(e)){ $("html,body").stop(); } } ...but I'm not sure how to code the IsManuallyScrolled function. I've checked out e (the event object) in Google Chrome's console and AFAIK there is not way to differentiate between a manual scroll and jQuery's animate() scroll. How can I differentiate between a manual scroll and one called via jQuery's $.fn.animate function?

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  • Java - Thread problem

    - by Yatendra Goel
    My question is related to all those methods(including Thread.sleep(...)) which throw InterruptedException. I found a statement on Sun's tutorial saying InterruptedException is an exception that sleep throws when another thread interrupts the current thread while sleep is active. Is that means that the interrupt will be ignored if the sleep is not active at the time of interrupt? Suppose I have two threads: threadOne and threadTwo. threadOne creates and starts threadTwo. threadTwo executes a runnable whose run method is something like: public void run() { : : try { Thread.sleep(10 * 1000); } catch (InterruptedException e) { return; } : : : // In the middle of two sleep invocations : : try { Thread.sleep(10 * 1000); } catch (InterruptedException e) { return; } : : } After thread creation, threadOne interrupts threadTwo. Suppose the threadTwo is in the middle of two sleep invocations at the time of interrupt (when no sleep method was active), then will the second sleep method throw InterrupteException as soon as it is invoked? If not, then will this interrupt will be ignored forever? How to be sure that threadTwo will always know about the interrupt (doesn't matter whether its one of the sleep method is active or not)?

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  • Rails 4, not saving @user.save when registering new user

    - by Yuichi
    When I try to register an user, it does not give me any error but just cannot save the user. I don't have attr_accessible. I'm not sure what I am missing. Please help me. user.rb class User < ActiveRecord::Base has_secure_password validates :email, presence: true, uniqueness: true, format: { with: /\A([^@\s]+)@((?:[-a-z0-9]+\.)+[a-z]{2,})\Z/i } validates :password, presence: true, length: {minimum: 6} validates :nickname, presence: true, uniqueness: true end users_controller.rb class UsersController < ApplicationController def new @user = User.new end def create @user = User.new(user_params) # Not saving @user ... if @user.save flash[:success] = "Successfully registered" redirect_to videos_path else flash[:error] = "Cannot create an user, check the input and try again" render :new end end private def user_params params.require(:user).permit(:email, :password, :nickname) end end Log: Processing by UsersController#create as HTML Parameters: {"utf8"=>"?", "authenticity_token"=>"x5OqMgarqMFj17dVSuA8tVueg1dncS3YtkCfMzMpOUE=", "user"=>{"email"=>"[email protected]", "password"=>"[FILTERED]", "nickname"=>"example"}, "commit"=>"Register"} (0.1ms) begin transaction User Exists (0.2ms) SELECT 1 AS one FROM "users" WHERE "users"."email" = '[email protected]' LIMIT 1 User Exists (0.1ms) SELECT 1 AS one FROM "users" WHERE "users"."nickname" = 'example' LIMIT 1 (0.1ms) rollback transaction

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  • linux raw socket programming question

    - by user194420
    Hi all, I am trying to create a raw socket which send and receive message with ip/tcp header under linux. I can successfully binds to a port and receive tcp message(ie:syn) However, the message seems to be handled by the os, but not mine. I am just a reader of it(like wireshark). My raw socket binds to port 8888, and then i try to telnet to that port . In wireshark, it shows that the port 8888 reply a "rst ack" when it receive the "syn" request. In my program, it shows that it receive a new message and it doesnot reply with any message. Any way to actually binds to that port?(prevent os handle it) Here is part of my code, i try to cut those error checking for easy reading sockfd = socket(AF_INET, SOCK_RAW, IPPROTO_TCP); int tmp = 1; const int *val = &tmp; setsockopt (sockfd, IPPROTO_IP, IP_HDRINCL, val, sizeof (tmp)); servaddr.sin_family = AF_INET; servaddr.sin_addr.s_addr = htonl(INADDR_ANY); servaddr.sin_port = htons(8888); bind(sockfd, (struct sockaddr*)&servaddr, sizeof(servaddr)); //call recv in loop

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  • Ruby on Rails Associations

    - by Eef
    Hey all, I am starting to create my sites in Ruby on Rails these days instead of PHP. I have picked up the language easily but still not 100% confident with associations :) I have this situation: User Model has_and_belongs_to_many :roles Roles Model has_and_belongs_to_many :users Journal Model has_and_belongs_to_many :roles So I have a roles_users table and a journals_roles table I can access the user roles like so: user = User.find(1) User.roles This gives me the roles assigned to the user, I can then access the journal model like so: journals = user.roles.first.journals This gets me the journals associated with the user based on the roles. I want to be able to access the journals like so user.journals In my user model I have tried this: def journals self.roles.collect { |role| role.journals }.flatten end This gets me the journals in a flatten array but unfortunately I am unable to access anything associated with journals in this case, e.g in the journals model it has: has_many :items When I try to access user.journals.items it does not work as it is a flatten array which I am trying to access the has_many association. Is it possible to get the user.journals another way other than the way I have shown above with the collect method? Hope you guys understand what I mean, if not let me know and ill try to explain it better. Cheers Eef

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  • Class unloading in java

    - by java_geek
    When a classloader is garbage collected, are the classes loaded by it unloaded? When the JVM is running is verbose mode, all the loaded classes are o/p. Similarly will the JVM log when it unloads a class? I wrote a custom class loader to test this, but could not see any verbose log for unloading of the classes. CustomClassLoader loader = new CustomClassLoader(new URL[]{}, CustomClassLoader.class.getClassLoader()); loader.addURL("D:\workspace\ClassLoaderTest\implementation.jar"); Class c = null; try { c = Class.forName("Horse",false,loader); if (c != null) { try { Animal animal = (Animal)c.newInstance(); animal.eat(); } catch(Exception ex) { ex.printStackTrace(); } } } catch(Exception e) { e.printStackTrace(); } loader = null; byte[] b = new byte[58*1024*1024]; System.gc(); ClassLoadingMXBean clBean = ManagementFactory.getClassLoadingMXBean(); System.out.println("Number of classes currently loaded " + clBean.getLoadedClassCount()); System.out.println("Number of classes loaded totally " + clBean.getTotalLoadedClassCount()); System.out.println("Number of classes unloaded " + clBean.getUnloadedClassCount()); Even the ClassLoadingMXBean gives number of unloaded classes as 0. How can i know that a class is unloaded when the class loader is GCed?

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  • Unit test project doesn't recognize the classes it was generated from

    - by DougLeary
    I have a fairly simple file-system website consisting of one aspx page and several classes in separate .cs files. Everything is on my own HD. The web app itself builds and runs fine. Out of curiosity I decided to try out Visual Studio's nifty, easy-to-use unit test feature. So I opened each class file and clicked Create Unit Tests. VS generated a test project containing a set of test classes and some other files. Easy! But when I try to build or run the test project it throws a series of build errors, one for every class: The type or namespace name 'class-name' could not be found (are you missing a using directive or an assembly reference?). Somebody asked if my test project has a reference to the original project. Well no, because the original project is a file-system website. It has no bin folder and no DLL, so there's nothing to reference as far as I can tell. I would think that since VS generated these unit tests it would generate whatever references it needs, but apparently not. Is generating unit tests for file-system web apps an undocumented no-no, or is there a magic trick to getting it to work?

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  • Trying to create a .NET DLL to be used with Non-.NET Application

    - by Changeling
    I am trying to create a .NET DLL so I can use the cryptographic functions with my non .NET application. I have created a class library so far with this code: namespace AESEncryption { public class EncryptDecrypt { private static readonly byte[] optionalEntropy = { 0x21, 0x05, 0x07, 0x08, 0x27, 0x02, 0x23, 0x36, 0x45, 0x50 }; public interface IEncrypt { string Encrypt(string data, string filePath); }; public class EncryptDecryptInt:IEncrypt { public string Encrypt(string data, string filePath) { byte[] plainKey; try { // Read in the secret key from our cipher key store byte[] cipher = File.ReadAllBytes(filePath); plainKey = ProtectedData.Unprotect(cipher, optionalEntropy, DataProtectionScope.CurrentUser); // Convert our plaintext data into a byte array byte[] plainTextBytes = Encoding.ASCII.GetBytes(data); MemoryStream ms = new MemoryStream(); Rijndael alg = Rijndael.Create(); alg.Mode = CipherMode.CBC; alg.Key = plainKey; alg.IV = optionalEntropy; CryptoStream cs = new CryptoStream(ms, alg.CreateEncryptor(), CryptoStreamMode.Write); cs.Write(plainTextBytes, 0, plainTextBytes.Length); cs.Close(); byte[] encryptedData = ms.ToArray(); return Convert.ToString(encryptedData); } catch (Exception ex) { return ex.Message; } } } } } In my VC++ application, I am using the #import directive to import the TLB file created from the DLL, but the only available functions are _AESEncryption and LIB_AES etc I don't see the interface or the function Encrypt. When I try to instantiate so I can call the functions in my VC++ program, I use this code and get the following error: HRESULT hr = CoInitialize(NULL); IEncryptPtr pIEncrypt(__uuidof(EncryptDecryptInt)); error C2065: 'IEncryptPtr': undeclared identifier error C2146: syntax error : missing ';' before identifier 'pIEncrypt'

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  • Skipping the BufferedReader readLine() method in java

    - by DDP
    Is there a easy way to skip the readLine() method in java if it takes longer than, say, 2 seconds? Here's the context in which I'm asking this question: public void run() { boolean looping = true; while(looping) { for(int x = 0; x<clientList.size(); x++) { try { Comm s = clientList.get(x); String str = s.recieve(); // code that does something based on the string in the line above } // other stuff like catch methods } } } Comm is a class I wrote, and the receive method, which contains a BufferedReader called "in", is this: public String recieve() { try { if(active) return in.readLine(); } catch(Exception e) { System.out.println("Comm Error 2: "+e); } return ""; } I've noticed that the program stops and waits for the input stream to have something to read before continuing. Which is bad, because I need the program to keep looping (as it loops, it goes to all the other clients and asks for input). Is there a way to skip the readLine() process if there's nothing to read? I'm also pretty sure that I'm not explaining this well, so please ask me questions if I'm being confusing.

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  • Transaction to find an entity - locks all entities of that type?

    - by user246114
    Hi, Reading the docs for transactions: http://code.google.com/appengine/docs/java/datastore/transactions.html An example provided shows one way to make an instance of an object: try { tx.begin(); Key k = KeyFactory.createKey("SalesAccount", id); try { account = pm.getObjectById(Employee.class, k); } catch (JDOObjectNotFoundException e) { account = new SalesAccount(); account.setId(id); } ... When the above transaction gets executed, it will probably block all other write attempts on Account objects? I'm wondering because I'd like to have a user signup which checks for a username or email already in use: tx.begin(); "select from User where mUsername == str1 LIMIT 1"; if (count > 0) { throw new Exception("username already in use!"); } "select from User where mEmail == str1 LIMIT 1"; if (count > 0) { throw new Exception("email already in use!"); } pm.makePersistent(user(username, email)); // ok. tx.commit(); but the above would be even more time consuming I think, making an even worse bottleneck? Am I understanding what will happen correctly? Thanks

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  • C# Fun with Generics - Mutual Dependencies

    - by Kenneth Cochran
    As an experiment I'm trying to write a generic MVP framework. I started with: public interface IPresenter<TView> where TView: IView<IPresenter<... { TView View { get; set;} } public interface IView<TPresenter> where TPresenter:IPresenter<IView<... { TPresenter Presenter { get; set; } } Obviously this can't work because the types of TView and TPresenter can't be resolved. You'd be writing Type<Type<... forever. So my next attempt looked like this: public interface IView<T> where T:IPresenter { ... } public interface IView:IView<IPresenter> { } public interface IPresenter<TView> where TView: IView { ... } public interface IPresenter: IPresenter<IView> { ... } This actually compiles and you can even inherit from these interfaces like so: public class MyView : IView, IView<MyPresenter> { ... } public class MyPresenter : IPresenter, IPresenter<MyView> { ... } The problem is in the class definition you have to define any members declared in the generic type twice. Not ideal but it still compiles. The problem's start creeping up when you actually try to access the members of a Presenter from a View or vice versa. You get an Ambiguous reference when you try to compile. Is there any way to avoid this double implementation of a member when you inherit from both interfaces? Is it even possible to resolve two mutually dependent generic types at compile time?

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  • Can't create new "enterprise" project in netbeans

    - by Danny
    I'm running netbeans 6.7.1 on Ubuntu Karmic. On the services tab I added a new glassfish v3 prelude server, I installed it to my home directory using the download button. I started the server and opened localhost:4848 to verify I can get into the admin panel. Then I did file-new projct and created a new java web-web application. On the configuration step of the wizard it preselected glassfish v3 prelude and java ee 5. I accepted and did a test run. I ran the project just fine. So now I did file-new projecct and attempted to create a Java EE-ejb module. When I arrive to the server configuration stage of the wizard, it doesn't show any servers on the server dropdown list (so it's empty), it also doesn't see any version of java on the "java ee version" dropdown list. This also happens for the other "Java EE" project types. I can't seem to get my head around why I can make a new web application but not an ejb module. Can anyone provide any insight to why it might not be seeing that I have java or glassfish installed when I try to make a new java ee project but I see it when I try to make a java web project?

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  • python global variable not working in apache

    - by Suhail
    I am facing issue with the global variable, when i run in the django development server it works fine, but in apache it doesn't work here is the code below: red= "/foodfolio3/test/" def showAddRecipe(request): #global objc if "userid" in request.session: objc["ErrorMsgURL"]= "" try: urlList= request.POST URL= str(urlList['url']) URL= URL.strip('http://') URL= "http://" + URL recipe= __addRecipeUrl__(URL) if (recipe == 'FailToOpenURL') or (recipe == 'Invalid-website-URL'): #request.session["ErrorMsgURL"]= "Kindly check URL, Please enter a valid URL" objc["ErrorMsgURL"]= "Kindly check URL, Please enter a valid URL" print "here global_context =", objc arurl= HttpResponseRedirect("/foodfolio3/add/import/") arurl['ErrorMsgURL']= objc["ErrorMsgURL"] #return HttpResponseRedirect("/foodfolio3/add/import/") #return render_to_response('addRecipeUrl.html', objc, context_instance = RequestContext(request)) return (arurl) else: objc["recipe"] = recipe return render_to_response('addRecipe.html', objc, context_instance = RequestContext(request)) except: objc["recipe"] = "" return render_to_response('addRecipe.html', objc, context_instance = RequestContext(request)) else: global red red= "/foodfolio3/add/" return HttpResponseRedirect("/foodfolio3/login") def showAddRecipeUrl(request): if "userid" in request.session: return render_to_response('addRecipeUrl.html', objc, context_instance = RequestContext(request)) else: global red red= "/foodfolio3/add/import/" return HttpResponseRedirect("/foodfolio3/login") def showLogin(request): obj = {} obj["error_message"] = "" obj["registered"] = "" if request.method == "POST": if (red == "/foodfolio3/test"): next= '/foodfolio3/recipes' else: next= red try: username = request.POST['username'] password = request.POST['password'] user = authenticate(username=username, password=password) except: user = authenticate(request=request) if user is not None: if user.is_active: login(request, user) request.session["userid"] = user.id # Redirect to a success page. return HttpResponseRedirect(next) this code works fine in django development server, but in apache, the url is getting redirected to '/foodfolio3/recipes'

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  • why the main method are not covered? urgent, please help me

    - by Mike.Huang
    main method: public static void main(String[] args) throws Exception { if (args.length != EXPECTED_NUMBER_OF_ARGUMENTS) { System.err.println("Usage - java XFRCompiler ConfigXML PackageXML XFR"); } String configXML = args[0]; String packageXML = args[1]; String xfr = args[2]; AutoConfigCompiler compiler = new AutoConfigCompiler(); compiler.setConfigDocument(loadDocument(configXML)); compiler.setPackageInfoDoc(loadDocument(packageXML)); // compiler.setVisiblityDoc(loadDocument("VisibilityFilter.xml")); compiler.compileModel(xfr); } private static Document loadDocument(String fileName) throws Exception { TXDOMParser parser = (TXDOMParser) ParserFactory.makeParser(TXDOMParser.class.getName()); InputSource source = new InputSource(new FileInputStream(fileName)); parser.parse(source); return parser.getDocument(); } testcase: @Test public void testCompileModel() throws Exception { // construct parameters URL configFile = Thread.currentThread().getContextClassLoader().getResource("Ford_2008_Mustang_Config.xml"); URL packageFile = Thread.currentThread().getContextClassLoader().getResource("Ford_2008_Mustang_Package.xml"); File tmpFile = new File("Ford_2008_Mustang_tmp.xfr"); if(!tmpFile.exists()) { tmpFile.createNewFile(); } String[] args = new String[]{configFile.getPath(),packageFile.getPath(),tmpFile.getPath()}; try { // test main method XFRCompiler.main(args); } catch (Exception e) { assertTrue(true); } try { // test args length is less than 3 XFRCompiler.main(new String[]{"",""}); } catch (Exception e) { assertTrue(true); } tmpFile.delete(); } coverage outputs displayed as the lines from “String configXML = args[0];" in main method are not covered

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  • [jquery] multiple resizables acting strange

    - by Noweem
    Hi there everyone, I'm trying to place multiple resizable and draggable div's on one page that move (vertically) inside their own parent div. you can take a look at http://bit.ly/bCutBE However, these div's act really strange when I want to resize them, especially from the north side, they kind of move out of the screen very fast, while they shouldn't be able to get outside the parent div. I only want the div to be able to move and resize vertically inside it's parent, the dragging-part works pretty good, but the resize part give this problem. I can't really describe it better than this, but take a look for yourself and it will be clear immediately when you try to resize one of the coloured div's: move it a little downwards and try to resize it from the north side. the problem seems to be caused by the containment: 'parent', line of the resizable. when I delete this line it works fine, but then the coloured blocks don't stay in their parent, and I want them to stay inside their parent. I hope someone can help me with this... the jquery code I used: $(document).ready(function(){ $(".move") .draggable({ containment: 'parent', grid: [50,50], axis: 'y' }) .resizable({ containment: 'parent', grid: [50,50], handles: 'n, s', minHeight: 50 }); });

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  • Assemblies mysteriously loaded into new AppDomains

    - by Eric
    I'm testing some code that does work whenever assemblies are loaded into an appdomain. For unit testing (in VS2k8's built-in test host) I spin up a new, uniquely-named appdomain prior to each test with the idea that it should be "clean": [TestInitialize()] public void CalledBeforeEachTestMethod() { AppDomainSetup appSetup = new AppDomainSetup(); appSetup.ApplicationBase = @"G:\<ProjectDir>\bin\Debug"; Evidence baseEvidence = AppDomain.CurrentDomain.Evidence; Evidence evidence = new Evidence( baseEvidence ); _testAppDomain = AppDomain.CreateDomain( "myAppDomain" + _appDomainCounter++, evidence, appSetup ); } [TestMethod] public void MissingFactoryCausesAppDomainUnload() { SupportingClass supportClassObj = (SupportingClass)_testAppDomain.CreateInstanceAndUnwrap( GetType().Assembly.GetName().Name, typeof( SupportingClass ).FullName ); try { supportClassObj.LoadMissingRegistrationAssembly(); Assert.Fail( "Should have nuked the app domain" ); } catch( AppDomainUnloadedException ) { } } [TestMethod] public void InvalidFactoryMethodCausesAppDomainUnload() { SupportingClass supportClassObj = (SupportingClass)_testAppDomain.CreateInstanceAndUnwrap( GetType().Assembly.GetName().Name, typeof( SupportingClass ).FullName ); try { supportClassObj.LoadInvalidFactoriesAssembly(); Assert.Fail( "Should have nuked the app domain" ); } catch( AppDomainUnloadedException ) { } } public class SupportingClass : MarshalByRefObject { public void LoadMissingRegistrationAssembly() { MissingRegistration.Main(); } public void LoadInvalidFactoriesAssembly() { InvalidFactories.Main(); } } If every test is run individually I find that it works correctly; the appdomain is created and has only the few intended assemblies loaded. However, if multiple tests are run in succession then each _testAppDomain already has assemblies loaded from all previous tests. Oddly enough, the two tests get appdomains with different names. The test assemblies that define MissingRegistration and InvalidFactories (two different assemblies) are never loaded into the unit test's default appdomain. Can anyone explain this behavior?

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