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  • webBrower Button Click without element ID?

    - by Jeremy
    I'm working on a login system for a forum and trying to make it work via a c# .net form. I need to programitically click the login button on the forum with a webBrower control. So far I have this. webPage page = new webPage(); page.URL = txtURL.Text; page.Load(); //Load the text from the specified URL WebBrowser browser = new WebBrowser(); browser.Document.GetElementById("navbar_username").SetAttribute("value", textBox1.Text); browser.Document.GetElementById("navbar_password").SetAttribute("value", textBox2.Text); HtmlElement el = browser.Document.All["btnI"]; if (el != null) { el.InvokeMember("click"); } else { MessageBox.Show("There is an issue with the program"); } The issue is that the login button on the page does not have an ID or any real information that can allow me to click on it. Does anyone have any suggestions? Here is the code for the login button. <input type="image" src="images/loginbutton.png" class="loginbutton" tabindex="104" value="Log in" title="Enter your username and password in the boxes provided to login, or click the 'register' button to create a profile for yourself." accesskey="s">

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  • Display one div if nothing is selected

    - by Levani
    I use this javascript to display different div classes upon selection. I need to display one div class if nothing is selected, for example when page is loaded, and that replace it with one of the divs according to the selection... <script type="text/javascript"><!-- var lastDiv = ""; function showDiv(divName) { // hide last div if (lastDiv) { document.getElementById(lastDiv).className = "hiddenDiv"; } //if value of the box is not nothing and an object with that name exists, then change the class if (divName && document.getElementById(divName)) { document.getElementById(divName).className = "visibleDiv"; lastDiv = divName; } } //--> </script> css: <style type="text/css" media="screen"><!-- .hiddenDiv { display: none; } .visibleDiv { display: block; border: 1px grey solid; } --></style> HTML: <form id="FormName" action="blah.php" method="get" name="FormName"> <select name="selectName" size="1" onChange="showDiv(this.value);"> <option value="">Choose One...</option> <option value="one">first</option> <option value="two">second</option> <option value="three">third</option> </select> </form> <p id="one" class="hiddenDiv">This is paragraph 1.</p> <p id="two" class="hiddenDiv">This is paragraph 2.</p> <p id="three" class="hiddenDiv">This is paragraph 3.</p> Can anyone please help?

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  • function working fine in IE but the same funtion is not working for mozilla 3.6

    - by anand-juventus
    function VisibleDiv(obj) { if (obj == BaseLog) { var objStyle = document.getElementById('DivCalls').style; if (objStyle.display == "block") objStyle.display = "none"; else objStyle.display = "block"; } else if (obj == ViewReports) { var objStyle = document.getElementById('DivReports').style; if (objStyle.display == "block") objStyle.display = "none"; else objStyle.display = "block"; } else if (obj ==Management) { var objStyle = document.getElementById('DivManage').style; if (objStyle.display == "block") objStyle.display = "none"; else objStyle.display = "block"; } <a href="#" id="BaseLog" class="TextHeader" onclick="VisibleDiv(this)">Base Log </a> in the above code is working in IE but not working in mozilla 3.6. I have checked that obj==BaseLog is not working in the above code. I have tried many options like event.srcelement window.event.srcelement but all in vain. when I debug the code ,I found that obj is having complete value for IE but the same obj is having all the names .ie. the name of tag,id and class for "Base Log" seperated by #. i.e a#BaseLog#TextHeader# Please suggest what shoud I do?

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  • Under what circumstances would a Ruby $LOAD_PATH be acquired from a parent process?

    - by Dr Nic
    In my cucumber scenarios, if I call rake db:schema:load within a target Rails app folder, I get the cucumber process's $LOAD_PATH and not the Rails app's own Gemfile/load path. I think this is very weird. The consequence is that I get the following error: no such file to load -- rails/all I can't reproduce it outside of my cucumber scenario. ruby -rubygems -e "system 'rake -T'" works normally - the 'rake -T' has the application's own Gemfile-based $LOAD_PATH; and doesn't generate the error above. Can anyone think why a child process (rake -T or rake db:schema:load or rails runner...; invoked by either system, exec, %x[...] or backtick; would start with the parent processes' $LOAD_PATH (from the cucumber scenario's Gemfile) instead of its own $LOAD_PATH (from the Rails app's Gemfile)?

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  • How should I store Dynamically Changing Data into Server Cache?

    - by Scott
    Hey all, EDIT: Purpose of this Website: Its called Utopiapimp.com. It is a third party utility for a game called utopia-game.com. The site currently has over 12k users to it an I run the site. The game is fully text based and will always remain that. Users copy and paste full pages of text from the game and paste the copied information into my site. I run a series of regular expressions against the pasted data and break it down. I then insert anywhere from 5 values to over 30 values into the DB based on that one paste. I then take those values and run queries against them to display the information back in a VERY simple and easy to understand way. The game is team based and each team has 25 users to it. So each team is a group and each row is ONE users information. The users can update all 25 rows or just one row at a time. I require storing things into cache because the site is very slow doing over 1,000 queries almost every minute. So here is the deal. Imagine I have an excel spreadsheet with 100 columns and 5000 rows. Each row has two unique identifiers. One for the row it self and one to group together 25 rows a piece. There are about 10 columns in the row that will almost never change and the other 90 columns will always be changing. We can say some will even change in a matter of seconds depending on how fast the row is updated. Rows can also be added and deleted from the group, but not from the database. The rows are taken from about 4 queries from the database to show the most recent and updated data from the database. So every time something in the database is updated, I would also like the row to be updated. If a row or a group has not been updated in 12 or so hours, it will be taken out of Cache. Once the user calls the group again via the DB queries. They will be placed into Cache. The above is what I would like. That is the wish. In Reality, I still have all the rows, but the way I store them in Cache is currently broken. I store each row in a class and the class is stored in the Server Cache via a HUGE list. When I go to update/Delete/Insert items in the list or rows, most the time it works, but sometimes it throws errors because the cache has changed. I want to be able to lock down the cache like the database throws a lock on a row more or less. I have DateTime stamps to remove things after 12 hours, but this almost always breaks because other users are updating the same 25 rows in the group or just the cache has changed. This is an example of how I add items to Cache, this one shows I only pull the 10 or so columns that very rarely change. This example all removes rows not updated after 12 hours: DateTime dt = DateTime.UtcNow; if (HttpContext.Current.Cache["GetRows"] != null) { List<RowIdentifiers> pis = (List<RowIdentifiers>)HttpContext.Current.Cache["GetRows"]; var ch = (from xx in pis where xx.groupID == groupID where xx.rowID== rowID select xx).ToList(); if (ch.Count() == 0) { var ck = GetInGroupNotCached(rowID, groupID, dt); //Pulling the group from the DB for (int i = 0; i < ck.Count(); i++) pis.Add(ck[i]); pis.RemoveAll((x) => x.updateDateTime < dt.AddHours(-12)); HttpContext.Current.Cache["GetRows"] = pis; return ck; } else return ch; } else { var pis = GetInGroupNotCached(rowID, groupID, dt);//Pulling the group from the DB HttpContext.Current.Cache["GetRows"] = pis; return pis; } On the last point, I remove items from the cache, so the cache doesn't actually get huge. To re-post the question, Whats a better way of doing this? Maybe and how to put locks on the cache? Can I get better than this? I just want it to stop breaking when removing or adding rows.

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  • "javascript:" on browser won't change the type.

    - by raj
    look at this code, <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8" /> <script> function change() { document.getElementById("myInput").type="text"; } </script> </head> <body onload="setTimeout('change()',2000);"> <input type = "button" id="myInput"> </body> </html> now, my button becomes text box after 2 seconds.. Iam happy! Why not the same happens when i try to do from the browser (i tested in IE6 & Chrome) using javascript:document.getElementById("myInput").type="text" different browsers behave in different way... when i tried javascript:document.getElementById("myInput").value="myNewValue", IE6 changes the value, but chrome doesn't.. Why is this "javascript:" behaving like this ?

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  • Use DataContext to create schema in an existing blank database file?

    - by jdk
    With a DataContext and a blank file-based database that already exists, is it possible to write the Data Context classes (i.e. the ones I added to the designer) to create the db schema? With a data context I only see the abilities to either: create a new database file and have its structure created at the same time, or to populate data into an existing database having preexisting schema. I'm looking for a hybrid solution between those two worlds. Update 1: My proof that a preexisting db is not compatible with the Data Context CreateDatabase() operation is this error Database 'C:...\App_Data\IntermediateData.mdf' already exists. Choose a different database name. based on this code using (IntermediateClassesDataContext intermediateContext = new IntermediateClassesDataContext(_getIntermediateConn())) { intermediateContext.CreateDatabase(); }

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  • Javascript Cookie problems IE

    - by blakey87
    Hi guys, been bagging my head over some Javascript, please help, I cant see why it simply wont find my cookie in IE 7 or 8 I am setting the cookie true through another event, but I just want to see IE pick up the cookie which I initially set. Works in firefox too, thanks in advance. var t=setTimeout("doAlert()",8000); var doAlertVar = true; document.cookie = "closed=0;expires=0;path="; function readCookie(name) { var nameEQ = name + "="; var ca = document.cookie; alert(ca); ca = ca.replace(/^\s*|\s*$/g,''); ca = document.cookie.split(';'); for(var i=0;i < ca.length;i++) { var c = ca[i]; while (c.charAt(0)==' ') c = c.substring(1,c.length); if (c.indexOf(nameEQ) == 0) return c.substring(nameEQ.length,c.length); } return null; } function doAlert(){ if(readCookie('closed')==1){ doAlertVar = false; } if(readCookie('closed')==0){ alert("unlicensed demo version\nbuy online at"); } t=setTimeout("doAlert()",5000); }

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  • Javascript eval limits

    - by user117701
    Is there a limit to javascript's eval, like in lenght? I'm trying to build an app where you can store JS code in the DB, which you can later load and eval in order to execute it, but i'm reaching a limit. First of all, the code has to all be in one line. Any multiline statements are not executed. Next, i'm reaching a limit in length (i guess). If i execute the code manually, it works, but put that same code in the db, load it via ajax, and try to execute it, and it fails. Any ideas why?

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  • jquery $.ajax not working in firefox against rails (406 response) (works in chrome & IE)

    - by phil swenson
    I have a rails backend and am testing the following jquery code against it: var content = $("#notification_content").val(); var data = new Object(); data.content = content; $.ajax({ url: "/notifications/detect_type.json", type:"POST", data: data, success: function(result ){updateTypeDropDown(result)}}); This code works fine in Chrome and IE. However in Firefox (using Firebug), I see this: http://localhost:3000/notifications/detect_type.json 406 Not Acceptable here is a chrome request in the log: Processing NotificationsController#detect_type (for 127.0.0.1 at 2010-12-21 17:05:59) [POST] Parameters: {"action"="detect_type", "content"="226 south emerson denver co 80209", "controller"="notifications"} User Columns (2.0ms) SHOW FIELDS FROM users User Load (37.4ms) SELECT * FROM users WHERE (users.id = '1') LIMIT 1 Completed in 58ms (View: 1, DB: 40) | 406 Not Acceptable [http://localhost/notifications/detect_type.json] here is a firefox request in the log: Processing NotificationsController#detect_type (for 127.0.0.1 at 2010-12-21 17:06:41) [POST] Parameters: {"action"="detect_type", "content"="226 south emerson 80209", "controller"="notifications"} User Columns (2.1ms) SHOW FIELDS FROM users User Load (30.4ms) SELECT * FROM users WHERE (users.id = '1') LIMIT 1 Completed in 100ms (View: 1, DB: 33) | 200 OK [http://localhost/notifications/detect_type.json] I'm stumped. Ideas?

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  • Client / Server security from mobile to website

    - by Amir Latif
    Hey. Am new to the world of web programming and learning a bunch of fairly simple new pieces of tech, trying to piece them all together. So, we have a simple client (currently iPhone, to move to J2ME soon) that's pulling down lists of data via PHP, which is talking to a MySQL db. I have a rudimentary user/login system so that data is only served to someone who matches a known user etc, either on the website or on the client. All the php scripts on the website that query the DB check to make sure an active session is in place, otherwise dumping the user back to the login screen. I've read a little about SSL and want to know if that is sufficient to protect the website AND the data passing between the server and the client?

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  • simple wordpress plugin with some html and javascript

    - by h_a86
    I have an html page which i have to convert to wordpress plugin. my code is simple html and javascript <html> <head> <title>Calculate</title> <script language="javascript"> function addNumbers() { var val1 = parseInt(document.getElementById("value1").value); var val2 = parseInt(document.getElementById("value2").value); var ansD = document.getElementById("answer"); ansD.value = val1 + val2; } </script> </head> <body> <input type="text" id="value1" name="value1" value="1"/> <input type="text" id="value2" name="value2" value="2"/> <input type="button" name="Sumbit" value="Click here" onclick="javascript:addNumbers()"/> <input type="text" id="answer" name="answer" value=""/> </body> </html> I know basic plugin writing skills such as <?php /* Plugin Name: Coding friends hello world Plugin URI: http://www.codingfriends.com/ Description: Outputs hello world Version: 0.1 Author: Genux Author URI: http://www.codingfriends.com License: GPL2 */ function codingfriends_helloworld() { //put you form here and javascript here } add_action('get_header', 'codingfriends_helloworld'); ?> Thanks in advance

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  • PHP Form multiple buttons

    - by Ken
    I have a form with 2 buttons, that depending on which is selected will either be deleted or edited from the database. Those are each individual pages using SQL statements (questionedit and questiondelete). However, when i press a button, nothing happens...Any Ideas Here is my javascript <script type="text/javascript"> function SelectedButton(button) { if(button == 'edit') { document.testedit_questionform.action ="testedit_questionedit.php"; } else if(button == 'delete') { document.testedit_questionform.action ="testedit_questiondelete.php"; } document.forms[].testedit_questionform.submit(); } </script> Here is my form (being echoed from a loop) <form name=\"testedit_questionform\" action=\"SelectedButton\" method=\"POST\"> <span class=\"grid_11 prefix_1\" id=\"\" > Question:<input type=\"text\" name=\"QuestionText\" style=\"width:588px; margin-left:10px;\" value=\"$row[0]\"/> <input type=\"button\" value=\"Edit\" name=\"Operation\"onclick=\"submitForm(\'edit\')\" /> <input type=\"button\" value=\"Delete\" name=\"Operation\"onclick=\"submitForm(\'delete\')\" /> <input type=\"hidden\" name=\"QId\" value=\"$row[3]\" /><br />"); </form>

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  • jquery append() method on empty XML element

    - by Anthony
    This could just be a syntax error, but I'm trying to create a Document object from scratch, starting with document.implementation.createDocument() and then using jquery's append() method to add the elements. But it's not appending: var myDoc = document.implementation.createDocument("", 'stuff', null); $("stuff",myDoc).attr("test","tested"); $("stuff",myDoc).append("<test>A</test>"); $("<test>B</test>").appendTo("stuff",soapEnv); var s = new XMLSerializer(); alert(s.serializeToString(soapEnv)); This should output: <stuff test="tested"> <test>A</test> <test>B</test> </stuff> But instead it outputs: <stuff test="tested" /> So the selector seems to be working, just not the method. My only guess is the method doesn't account for the fact that elements are empty (<stuff />) until they have children. But that's just a guess.

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  • How To Call Javascript In Ajax Response? IE: Close a form div upon success...

    - by B.Gordon
    I have a form that when you submit it, it sends the data for validation to another php script via ajax. Validation errors are echo'd back in a div in my form. A success message also is returned if validation passes. The problem is that the form is still displayed after submit and successful validation. I want to hid the div after success. So, I wrote this simple CSS method which works fine when called from the page the form is displayed on. The problem is that I cannot seem to call the hide script via returned code. I can return html like echo "<p>Thanks, your form passed validation and is being sent</p>"; So I assumed I could simply echo another line after that echo "window.onload=displayDiv()"; inside script tags (which I cannot get to display here)... and that it would hide the form div. It does not work. I am assuming that the problem is that the javascript is being returned incorrectly and not being interpreted by the browser... How can I invoke my 'hide' script on the page via returned data from my validation script? I can echo back text but the script call is ineffective. Thanks! This is the script on the page with the form... I can call it to show/hide with something like onclick="displayDiv()" while on the form but I don't want the user to invoke this... it has be called as the result of a successful validation when I write the results back to the div... function displayDiv() { var divstyle = new String(); divstyle = document.getElementById("myForm").style.display; if(divstyle.toLowerCase()=="block" || divstyle == "") { document.getElementById("myForm").style.display = "none"; } else { document.getElementById("myForm").style.display = "block"; } } PS: I am using the mootools.js library for the form validation if this matters for the syntax..

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  • SQL Server db_owner

    - by andrew007
    Hi, in my SQL2008 I have a user which is in the "db_datareader", "db_datawriter" and "db_ddladmin" DB roles, however when he tries to modify a table with SSMS he receives a message saying: You are not logged in as the database owner or system administrator. You might not be able to save changes to tables that you do not own. Of course, I would like to avoid such message, but until now I did find the way... Therefore, I try to modify the user by adding him to the "db_owner" role, and of course I do not have the message above. My question is: Is it possible to keep the user in the "db_owner" role, but deny some actions like alter user or ? I try "alter any user" securable on DB level, but it does not work... THANKS!

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  • How we can execute a javascript function and get a return value in our android application?

    - by JAC
    How we can execute a javascript function and get a return value in our android appplication ? We have a javascript file that stored in our sqlite db, We want to execute that script on a button press event, we need to pass parameters to the script and get return values, how we can implement this? sample script file stored in Db is, <html><head><title>ADV</title><script type="text/javascript"> function checkName(pname) if( pname == 'android') { return false; }else { return true; } } </script></head><body></Body></html>

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  • Hibernate Auto-Increment not working

    - by dharga
    I have a column in my DB that is set with Identity(1,1) and I can't get hibernate annotations to work for it. I get errors when I try to create a new record. In my entity I have the following. @GeneratedValue(strategy=GenerationType.IDENTITY, generator="native") @Column(name="SeqNo", unique=true, nullable=false) BigDecimal seqNo; But when I try to add a new record I get the following error. Cannot insert explicit value for identity column in table 'MemberSelectedOptions' when IDENTITY_INSERT is set to OFF. I don't want to set IDENTIY_INSERT to ON because I want the identity column in the db to manage the values. The SQL that is run is the following; where you can clearly see the insert. insert into dbo.MemberSelectedOptions (OptionStatusCd, EffectiveDate, TermDate, SelectionStatusDate, SysLstUpdtUserId, SysLstTrxDtm, SourceApplication, GroupId, MemberId, OptionId, SeqNo) values (?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?) What am I missing?

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  • hadoop - large database query

    - by Mastergeek
    Situation: I have a Postgres DB that contains a table with several million rows and I'm trying to query all of those rows for a MapReduce job. From the research I've done on DBInputFormat, Hadoop might try and use the same query again for a new mapper and since these queries take a considerable amount of time I'd like to prevent this in one of two ways that I've thought up: 1) Limit the job to only run 1 mapper that queries the whole table and call it good. or 2) Somehow incorporate an offset in the query so that if Hadoop does try to use a new mapper it won't grab the same stuff. I feel like option (1) seems more promising, but I don't know if such a configuration is possible. Option(2) sounds nice in theory but I have no idea how I would keep track of the mappers being made and if it is at all possible to detect that and reconfigure. Help is appreciated and I'm namely looking for a way to pull all of the DB table data and not have several of the same query running because that would be a waste of time.

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  • Change class of parent div if radio input checked

    - by xxstevenxo
    I've been searching and searching google for answers to my question but have been unsuccessful so far. I'm hoping one of you guys could give me some assistance. I have 10 divs with the class name "dividend" holding a table with the classname/id of "container" then two smaller tables inside that. Within the container table at the bottom is a hidden radio button with the name "page1". I wrote an onClcick for the container table so the user can select the whole table instead of the radio button, but not I'm trying to change the style of the selected container so the users know they have selected it. I have tried a few different methods and I'm able to change the style to the new class by just writing document.getElementById('container').className = 'selected'; But because all 10 divs share the same name it will only change the style of the first element it finds. So I tried writing this loop to check if there are any selected radios in the document then to change the else name the style as the default. I'm sure its something stupid but I'm pretty stumped atm.. Any help would be appreciated. Thanks. selected = function () { var divs = document.getElementByTagName('DIV'), div, tbl, rad, stat, i; for (i = 0; i < divs.length; i++) { div = divs.id; if (div == 'dividend') { tbl = div.getElementById('container'); rad = tbl.getElementByTagName('INPUT'); if (rad.checked = true) { tbl.className = 'selected'; } } } };

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  • jQuery .load from another page that contains Javascript

    - by Dave
    I've been using jQuery .load() to load content into a div. The content being .loaded occasionally has a document.ready() function which is called, and works, correctly (i.e. the ready() function is called). However, when I use an element ID in the .load(), such as: .load ("test.php #content"), the Javascript is no longer executed even if I put the script tag inside of the element that is being loaded. Does anyone have a solution to this other than to not use the element ID in the .load()? Thanks in advance. Here is the dynamic content (loadDialogTest.php): <div id="test"> <div> Hello, World! </div> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready (function () { alert ("ready"); }); </script> </div> and here is the page (where the element ID is NOT specified) that loads it (shortened as much as possible while maintaining the form: <head> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready (function () { $("#openDialog").click (function () { $("<div></div>") .load ("loadDialogTest.php") .appendTo ($("#containingDiv")) .dialog ({ autoOpen: 'false', title: 'Test This!', close: function () { $(this).dialog ('destroy').remove (); } }); }); }); </script> </head> <body> <a href="#" id="openDialog">Open it</a> <div id="containingDiv"> </div> </body> If I put #test after the .php file as the div to load, the jQuery ready() function is no longer called.

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  • how rspec creates database between specs

    - by timpone
    This is a bit of a naive / simple question. I'm having a hard time finding this info online. Basically, does rspec run rake db:test:prepare between every rspec group? Or is it between every example or model? Or does the schema get loaded once and then truncated between each. I need to add a rake task directly after this call to create a view since they are not supported in schema.rb. Either a link or explanation would be greatly appreciated so that I know where to insert my rake task to create a view. Or whether there is a callback like rake db:test:after_prepare thx

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