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• sed - trying to replace first occurrence after a match

  - by wakkaluba

  I am facing a situation that drives me nuts. I am setting up an update server which uses a json file. Don't ask why or how, it sucks and is my only possibility to achieve it. I have been trying and researching for HOURS (many) because I went ballistic and wanted to crack this on my own. But I have to realize I got stuck and need help. So sorry for this chunk but I think it is somewhat important to see... The file is a one liner and repeating the following sequence with changing values (of course). "plugin_name_foo_bar": {"buildDate": "bla", "dependencies": [{"name": "bla", "optional": true, "version": "1.00"}], "developers": [{"developerId": "bla", "email": "[email protected]", "name": "Bla bla2nd"}], "excerpt": "some text {excerpt} !bla.png|thumbnail,border=1! ", "gav": "bla", "labels": ["report", "scm-related"], "name": "plugin_name_foo_bar", "previousTimestamp": "bla", "previousVersion": "1.0", "releaseTimestamp": "bla", "requiredCore": "1", "scm": "github.com", "sha1": "ynnBM2jWo25ZLDdP3ybBOnV/Pio=", "title": "bla", "url": "http://bla.org", "version": "1.0", "wiki": "https://bla.org"}, "Exclusion": {"buildDate": "bla", "dependencies": [], and the next plugin block is glued straight afterwards. What I now want to do is to search for "plugin_foo_bar": {" as this is the unique identifier for a new plugin description block. I want to replace the first sha1 value occuring afterwards. That's where I keep failing. I always grab the first,last or any occurrence in the entire file and not the block :( "title" is the unique identifier after the sha1 value. So I tried to make the .* less greedy but it ain't working out. last attempt was heading towards: sed -i 's/("name": "plugin_name_foo_bar.*sha1": ")([a-zA-Z0-9!@#\$%^&*()\[\]]*)(", "title"\)/\1blablabla\2/1' default.json to find the sha1 value of that plugin but still no joy. I hope someone knows - preferably a simpler approach - before I now continue with trial and error until I have to puke and freakout. I am working with SED on Windows, so Unix approach might help me to figure out how to achieve this in batch but please make it as one-liner if possible. Scripts are a real pain to convert. And I just need SED and no other solution with other tools like AWK. That is absolutely out of discussion. Any help is appreciated :) Cheers Jan

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• Refactoring Singleton Overuse

  - by drharris

  Today I had an epiphany, and it was that I was doing everything wrong. Some history: I inherited a C# application, which was really just a collection of static methods, a completely procedural mess of C# code. I refactored this the best I knew at the time, bringing in lots of post-college OOP knowledge. To make a long story short, many of the entities in code have turned out to be Singletons. Today I realized I needed 3 new classes, which would each follow the same Singleton pattern to match the rest of the software. If I keep tumbling down this slippery slope, eventually every class in my application will be Singleton, which will really be no logically different from the original group of static methods. I need help on rethinking this. I know about Dependency Injection, and that would generally be the strategy to use in breaking the Singleton curse. However, I have a few specific questions related to this refactoring, and all about best practices for doing so. How acceptable is the use of static variables to encapsulate configuration information? I have a brain block on using static, and I think it is due to an early OO class in college where the professor said static was bad. But, should I have to reconfigure the class every time I access it? When accessing hardware, is it ok to leave a static pointer to the addresses and variables needed, or should I continually perform Open() and Close() operations? Right now I have a single method acting as the controller. Specifically, I continually poll several external instruments (via hardware drivers) for data. Should this type of controller be the way to go, or should I spawn separate threads for each instrument at the program's startup? If the latter, how do I make this object oriented? Should I create classes called InstrumentAListener and InstrumentBListener? Or is there some standard way to approach this? Is there a better way to do global configuration? Right now I simply have Configuration.Instance.Foo sprinkled liberally throughout the code. Almost every class uses it, so perhaps keeping it as a Singleton makes sense. Any thoughts? A lot of my classes are things like SerialPortWriter or DataFileWriter, which must sit around waiting for this data to stream in. Since they are active the entire time, how should I arrange these in order to listen for the events generated when data comes in? Any other resources, books, or comments about how to get away from Singletons and other pattern overuse would be helpful.

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• how to use window.onload?

  - by Patrick

  I'm refactoring a website using MVC. What was a set of huge pages with javascript, php, html etc etc is becoming a series of controllers and views. I'm trying to do it in a modular way so views are split in 'modules' that I can reuse in other pages when needed eg. "view/searchform displays only one div with the searchform "view/display_events displays a list of events and so on. One of the old pages was supposed to load a google map with a marker on it. Amongst the rest of the code, I can identify the relevant bits as follows <head> <script src="http://maps.google.com/maps?file=api&amp;v=2&amp;key=blablabla" type="text/javascript"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> //<![CDATA[ function load() { if (GBrowserIsCompatible()) { var map = new GMap2(document.getElementById("map")); var point = new GLatLng(<?php echo ($info->lat && $info->lng) ? $info->lat .",". $info->lng : "51.502759,-0.126171"; ?>); map.setCenter(new GLatLng(<?php echo ($info->lat && $info->lng) ? $info->lat .",". $info->lng : "51.502759,-0.126171"; ?>), 15); map.addControl(new GLargeMapControl()); map.addControl(new GScaleControl()); map.addOverlay(new GMarker(point)); var marker = createMarker(point,GIcon(),"CIAO"); map.addOverlay(marker); } } //]]> </script> </head> ...then <body onload="load()" onunload="GUnload()"> ...and finally this div where the map should be displayed <div id="map" style="width: 440px; height: 300px"> </div> Don't know much about js, but my understanding is that a) I have to include the scripts in the view module I'm writing (directly in the HTML? I would prefer to load a separate script) b) I have to trigger that function using the equivalent of body onload... (obviously there's no body tag in my view. In my ignorance I've tried div onload=.... but didn't seem to be working :) What do you suggest I do? I've read about window.onload but don't know what's the correct syntax for that. please keep in mind that other parts of the page include other js functions (eg, google adsense) that are called after the footer.

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• MetadataType and client validation in ASP.NET MVC 2

  - by Kristoffer Ahl

  Inherited properties and MetadataType does not seem to work with client side validation in ASP.NET MVC 2. The validation of our MetadataTypes work as expected on the server but for some reason it does not generate the appropriate client scripts for it. Client side validation kicks in as expected for properties with the DataAnnotations attributes set on the PersonView so I know that client side validation is active and that it works. Does anyone know if or how it can be fixed? Here's what we have: public abstract class PersonView { public string FirstName { get; set; } public string LastName { get; set; } public string Email { get; set; } [Required] public string PhoneNumber { get; set; } public string AddressLine1 { get; set; } public string AddressLine2 { get; set; } public string AddressZipCode { get; set; } public string AddressCity { get; set; } public string AddressCountry { get; set; } } [MetadataType(typeof(CustomerViewMetaData))] public class CustomerView : PersonView {} [MetadataType(typeof(GuestViewMetaData))] public class GuestView : PersonView {} public class GuestViewMetaData { [Required(ErrorMessage = "The guests firstname is required")] public string FirstName { get; set; } [Required(ErrorMessage = "The guests lastname is required")] public string LastName { get; set; } } public class CustomerViewMetaData { [Required(ErrorMessage = "The customers firstname is required")] public string FirstName { get; set; } [Required(ErrorMessage = "The customers lastname is required")] public string LastName { get; set; } [Required(ErrorMessage = "The customers emails is required")] public string Email { get; set; } } As you can see, it's nothing fancy or strange in there... Can it be fixed? Is it a bug in ASP.NET MVC 2?

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• How do I create a safe local development environment?

  - by docgnome

  I'm currently doing web development with another developer on a centralized development server. In the past this has worked alright, as we have two separate projects we are working on and rarely conflict. Now, however, we are adding a third (possible) developer into the mix. This is clearly going to create problems with other developers changes affecting my work and vice versa. To solve this problem, I'm thinking the best solution would be to create a virtual machine to distribute between the developers for local use. The problem I have is when it comes to the database. Given that we all develop on laptops, simply keeping a local copy of the live data is plain stupid. I've considered sanitizing the data, but I can't really figure out how to replace the real data, with data that would be representative of what people actually enter with out repeating the same information over and over again, e.g. everyone's address becomes 123 Testing Lane, Test Town, WA, 99999 or something. Is this really something to be concerned about? Are there tools to help with this sort of thing? I'm using MySQL. Ideally, if I sanitized the db it should be done from a script that I can run regularly. If I do this I'd also need a way to reduce the size of the db itself. (I figure I could select all the records created after x and whack them and all the records in corresponding tables out so that isn't really a big deal.) The second solution I've thought of is to encrypt the hard drive of the vm, but I'm unsure of how practical this is in terms of speed and also in the event of a lost/stolen laptop. If I do this, should the vm hard drive file itself be encrypted or should it be encrypted in the vm? (I'm assuming the latter as it would be portable and doesn't require the devs to have any sort of encryption capability on their OS of choice.) The third is to create a copy of the database for each developer on our development server that they are then responsible to keep the schema in sync with the canonical db by means of migration scripts or what have you. This solution seems to be the simplest but doesn't really scale as more developers are added. How do you deal with this problem?

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• .NET Free memory usage (how to prevent overallocation / release memory to the OS)

  - by Ronan Thibaudau

  I'm currently working on a website that makes large use of cached data to avoid roundtrips. At startup we get a "large" graph (hundreds of thouthands of different kinds of objects). Those objects are retrieved over WCF and deserialized (we use protocol buffers for serialization) I'm using redgate's memory profiler to debug memory issues (the memory didn't seem to fit with how much memory we should need "after" we're done initializing and end up with this report Now what we can gather from this report is that: 1) Most of the memory .NET allocated is free (it may have been rightfully allocated during deserialisation, but now that it's free, i'd like for it to return to the OS) 2) Memory is fragmented (which is bad, as everytime i refresh the cash i need to redo the memory hungry deserialisation process and this, in turn creates large object that may throw an OutOfMemoryException due to fragmentation) 3) I have no clue why the space is fragmented, because when i look at the large object heap, there are only 30 instances, 15 object[] are directly attached to the GC and totally unrelated to me, 1 is a char array also attached directly to the GC Heap, the remaining 15 are mine but are not the cause of this as i get the same report if i comment them out in code. So my question is, what can i do to go further with this? I'm not really sure what to look for in debugging / tools as it seems my memory is fragmented, but not by me, and huge amounts of free spaces are allocated by .net , which i can't release. Also please make sure you understand the question well before answering, i'm not looking for a way to free memory within .net (GC.Collect), but to free memory that is already free in .net , to the system as well as to defragment said memory. Note that a slow solution is fine, if it's possible to manually defragment the large heap i'd be all for it as i can call it at the end of RefreshCache and it's ok if it takes 1 or 2 second to run. Thanks for your help! A few notes i forgot: 1) The project is a .net 2.0 website, i get the same results running it in a .net 4 pool, idem if i run it in a .net 4 pool and convert it to .net 4 and recompile. 2) These are results of a release build, so debug build can not be the issue. 3) And this is probably quite important, i do not get these issues at all in the webdev server, only in IIS, in the webdev i get memory consumption rather close to my actual consumption (well more, but not 5-10X more!)

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• What web platform is right for me?

  - by egervari

  I've been looking at web frameworks like Rails, Grails, etc. I'm used to doing applications in Spring Framework with Hibernate... and I want something more productive. One of the things I realized is that while some of the things in Grails is sexy, there are some serious problems with it. Grails' controllers: 1) are implemented awfully. They don't seem to be able to extend from super classes at runtime. I tried this to add base actions and helper methods, and this seems to cause grails to blow up. 2) are based on an obsolete request parameters model (rather than form backing objects, which are much nicer). 3) are hard to test. Command objects are treated totally differently... and it's actually MUCH harder to write the test than it is to write the controller code. 4) Command objects operate totally differently. They are pre-validated and bound, which causes a lot of inconsistencies than basic parameter model. 5) Command objects are not reusable, and it's a pain in the rear to reuse most of the stuff from the domain classes, like constraints and fields. This is TRIVIAL to do in basic Spring. Why the hell was it not trivial to do in Grails? 6) The scaffolding that is generated is pure crap. It doesn't generalize inserts and updates... and it actually copy/pastes a pile of code in two views: create.gsp and edit.gsp. The views themselves are gargantuan piles of doggie do-do. This is further compounded by the fact that it uses low-level parameters and not objects. Integration tests are 30x slower than a Spring integration test. It is disgusting. Some mocking tests are so hard to write and aren't guaranteed to work when it's deployed, that I think it discourages fast, tdd test cycles. Most things seem to screw up grails while it's running, like adding a taglib, or anything really. The server restart problem wasn't solved at all. I'm starting to think going with Spring/Hibernate/Java is the only way to go. While there is a pretty big cost at startup, I know it'll eventually smooth out. It sucks I can't use a language like Scala... because idiomatically, it is so incompatible with Hibernate. This app is also not a run-of-the-mill UI over a database. It's got some of that, but it's not going to be a slouch. I am deathly scared of Grails now because of how crap it is in the Controller layer. Suggestions on what I can do?

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• choosing an image locally from http url and serving that image without a server round trip

  - by serverman

  Hi folks I am a complete novice to Flash (never created anything in flash). I am quite familiar with web applications (J2EE based) and have a reasonable expertise in Javascript. Here is my requirement. I want the user to select (via an html form) an image. Normally in the post, this image would be sent to server and may be stored there to be served later. I do not want that. I want to store this image locally and then serve it via HTTP to the user. So, the flow is: 1. Go to the "select image url":mywebsite.com/selectImage Browse the image and select the image This would transfer control locally to some code running on the client (Javascript or flash), which would then store the image locally at some place on the client machine. Go to the "show image url": mywebsite.com/showImage This would eventually result in some client code running on the browser that retrieves the image and renders it (without any server round trips.) I considered the following options: Use HTML5 local storage. Since I am a complete novice to flash, I looked into this. I found that it is fairly straightforward to store and retrieve images in javascript (only strings are allowed but I am hoping storing base64 encoded strings would work at least for small images). However, how do I serve the image via http url that points to my server without a server round trip? I saw the interesting article at http://hacks.mozilla.org/category/fileapi/ but that would work only in firefox and I need to work on all latest browsers (at least the ones supporting HTML5 local storage) Use flash SharedObjects. OK, this would have been good - the only thing is I am not sure where to start. Snippets of actionscripts to do this are scattered everywhere but I do not know how to use those scripts in an actual html page:) I do not need to create any movies or anything - just need to store an image and serve it locally. If I go this route, I would also use it to store other "strings" locally. If you suggest this, please give me the exact steps (could be pointers to other web sites) on how to do this. I would like to avoid paying for any flash development environment software ideally:) Thank you!

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• Architecture Suggestions/Recommendations for a Web Application with Sub-Apps

  - by user579218

  Hello. I’m starting to plan an architecture for a big web application, and I wanted to get suggestions and/or recommendations on where to begin and which technologies and/or frameworks to use. The application will be an Intranet-based web site using Windows authentication, running on IIS and using SQL Server and ASP.NET. It’ll need to be structured as a main/shell application with sub-applications that are “pluggable” based on some configuration settings. The main or shell application is to provide the overall user interface structure – header/footer, dynamically built tabs for each available sub-app, and a content area in which the sub-application will be loaded when the user clicks on the sub-application’s tab. So, on start-up of the main/shell application, configuration information will be queried from a database, and, based on the user and which of the sub-apps are available, the main or shell app would dynamically build tabs (or buttons or something) as a way to access each individual application. On start-up, the content area will be populated with the “home” sub-app. But, clicking on an sub-app tab will cause the content area to be populated with the sub-app corresponding to the tab. For example, we’re going to have a reports application, a display application, and probably a couple other distinct applications. On startup of the main/shell application, after determining who the user is, the main app will query the database to determine which sub-apps the user can use and build out the UI. Then the user can navigate between available sub-apps and do their work in each. Finally, the entire app and all sub-apps need to be a layered design with presentation, service, business, and data access layers, as well as cross-cutting objects for things such as logging, exception handling, etc. Anyway, my questions revolve around where to begin to plan something like this application. What technologies/frameworks would work best in developing a solution for this application? MVC? MVP? WCSF? EF? NHibernate? Enterprise Library? Repository Pattern? Others???? I know all these technologies/frameworks are not used for the same purpose, but knowing which ones to focus on is a little overwhelming. Which ones would be the best choice(s) for a solution? Which ones work well together for an end-to-end design? How would one structure the VS project for something like this? Thanks!

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• CKEdtior not displaying

  - by user1708468

  I am trying to integrate CKEditor into a MVC application. As far as I can tell all I should really have to do is. Add the following to my master page. <script type="text/javascript" src="../../ckeditor/ckeditor.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="../../ckeditor/adapters/jquery.js"></script> <script type="text/jscript" src="../../Scripts/jquery-1.3.2.js"></script> Then on my view itself. I have the following code: <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $('#news').ckeditor(); }); </script> <fieldset> <legend>Fields</legend> <p> <label for="title">Title:</label> <%=Html.TextBox("title")%> <%= Html.ValidationMessage("title", "*") %> </p> <p> <label for="news">News:</label> <%=Html.TextArea("news")%> <%= Html.ValidationMessage("news", "*") %> </p> <p> <label for="publishedDate">Publication Date:</label> <%= Html.TextBox("publishedDate") %> <%= Html.ValidationMessage("publishedDate", "*") %> </p> <p> <input type="submit" value="Create" /> </p> </fieldset> Please bear in mind I am not trying to get this to actually DO anything postback wise. Just to actually render in the first place. Can someone point out exactly what it is I am doing wrong? Oh and if it helps any VS is also giving me the following warning: Warning 1 Error updating JScript IntelliSense: ..Cut to Protect the innocent..\ckeditor\ckeditor.js: 'getFirst()' is null or not an object @ 15:180 ..Cut to Protect the innocent..\Views\Shared\Admin.Master 1 1 ilaTraining

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• Lift session valid ajax callback from a static javascript

  - by ChrisJamesC

  I am currently implementing a graph visualisation tool using lift on the server side and d3 ( a javascript visualisation framework) for all the visualisation. The problem I have is that in the script I want to get session dependent data from the server. So basically, my objective is to write lift-valid ajax callbacks in a static js script. Here is what I tried so far: What I have tried so far If you feel that the best solution is one that I already tried feel free to post a detailed answer telling me how to use it exactly and how it completely solves my problem. REST interface Usually what one would do to get data from a javascript function in lift is to create a REST interface. However this interface will not be linked to any session. This is the solution I got from my previous question: Get json data in d3 from lift snippet Give function as argument of script Another solution would be to give the ajaxcallback as an argument of the main script called to generate my graph. However I expect to have a lot of callbacks and I don't want to have to mess with the arguments of my script. Write the ajax callback in another script using lift and call it from the main script This solution, which is similar to a hidden text input is probably the more likely to work. However it is not elegant and it would mean that I would have to load a lot of scripts on load, which is not really conveniant. Write the whole script in lift and then serve it to the client This solution can be elegant, however my script is very long and I would really prefer that it remainss static. What I want On client side While reviewing the source code of my webpage I found that the callback for an ajaxSelect is: <select onchange="liftAjax.lift_ajaxHandler('F966066257023LYKF4=' + encodeURIComponent(this.value), null, null, null)" name="F96606625703QXTSWU" id="node_delete" class="input"> Moreover, there is a variable containing the state of the page in the end of the webpage: var lift_page = "F96606625700QRXLDO"; So, I am wondering if it is possible to simulate that my ajaxcall is valid using this liftAjax.lift_ajaxHandler function. However I don't know the exact synthax to use. On server side Since I "forged" a request on client side, I would now like to get the request on client side and to dispatch it to the correct function. This is where the LiftRules.dispatch object seems the best solution: when it is called, all the session management has been made (the request is authentified and linked to a session), however I don't know how to write the correct piece of code in the append function. Remark In lift all names of variables are changed to a random string in order to increase the security, I would like to have the same behavior in my application even if that will probably mean that I will have to "give" the javascript these values. However an array of 15 string values is still a better tradeoff than 15 functions as argument of a javascript function.

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• What do I need to distribute (keys, certs) for Python w/ SSL-socket connection?

  - by fandingo

  I'm trying to write a generic server-client application that will be able to exchange data amongst servers. I've read over quite a few OpenSSL documents, and I have successfully setup my own CA and created a cert (and private key) for testing purposes. I'm stuck with Python 2.3, so I can't use the standard "ssl" library. Instead, I'm stuck with PyOpenSSL, which doesn't seem bad, but there aren't many documents out there about it. My question isn't really about getting it working. I'm more confused about the certificates and where they need to go. Here are my two programs that do work: Server: #!/bin/env python from OpenSSL import SSL import socket import pickle def verify_cb(conn, cert, errnum, depth, ok): print('Got cert: %s' % cert.get_subject()) return ok ctx = SSL.Context(SSL.TLSv1_METHOD) ctx.set_verify(SSL.VERIFY_PEER|SSL.VERIFY_FAIL_IF_NO_PEER_CERT, verify_cb) # ?????? ctx.use_privatekey_file('./Dmgr-key.pem') ctx.use_certificate_file('Dmgr-cert.pem') # ?????? ctx.load_verify_locations('./CAcert.pem') server = SSL.Connection(ctx, socket.socket(socket.AF_INET, socket.SOCK_STREAM)) server.bind(('', 50000)) server.listen(3) a, b = server.accept() c = a.recv(1024) print(c) Client: from OpenSSL import SSL import socket import pickle def verify_cb(conn, cert, errnum, depth, ok): print('Got cert: %s' % cert.get_subject()) return ok ctx = SSL.Context(SSL.TLSv1_METHOD) ctx.set_verify(SSL.VERIFY_PEER, verify_cb) # ?????????? ctx.use_privatekey_file('/home/justin/code/work/CA/private/Dmgr-key.pem') ctx.use_certificate_file('/home/justin/code/work/CA/Dmgr-cert.pem') # ????????? ctx.load_verify_locations('/home/justin/code/work/CA/CAcert.pem') sock = SSL.Connection(ctx, socket.socket(socket.AF_INET, socket.SOCK_STREAM)) sock.connect(('10.0.0.3', 50000)) a = Tester(2, 2) b = pickle.dumps(a) sock.send("Hello, world") sock.flush() sock.send(b) sock.shutdown() sock.close() I found this information from ftp://ftp.pbone.net/mirror/ftp.pld-linux.org/dists/2.0/PLD/i586/PLD/RPMS/python-pyOpenSSL-examples-0.6-2.i586.rpm which contains some example scripts. As you might gather, I don't fully understand the sections between the " # ????????." I don't get why the certificate and private key are needed on both the client and server. I'm not sure where each should go, but shouldn't I only need to distribute one part of the key (probably the public part)? It undermines the purpose of having asymmetric keys if you still need both on each server, right? I tried alternating removing either the pkey or cert on either box, and I get the following error no matter which I remove: OpenSSL.SSL.Error: [('SSL routines', 'SSL3_READ_BYTES', 'sslv3 alert handshake failure'), ('SSL routines', 'SSL3_WRITE_BYTES', 'ssl handshake failure')] Could someone explain if this is the expected behavior for SSL. Do I really need to distribute the private key and public cert to all my clients? I'm trying to avoid any huge security problems, and leaking private keys would tend to be a big one... Thanks for the help!

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• Contact form with php-script does not work

  - by elajjas

  I'm new to the forum and I have been trying to find a thread that could be helpful but nothing have been working out so far. I recently uploaded my site via FTP, and it works fine. Except for one thing, my contact form. The contact form is crucial and it is almost the whole point of the website. I don't get any emails "from the form", either in my spam-folder or inbox. Please have a look at the website which is: http://www.adspot.se The contact form is situated on: http://www.adspot.se/contact.html The php script looks like this: <?php if (isset($_REQUEST['email'])) //if "email" is filled out, send email { //send email $name = $_REQUEST['name'] ; $email = $_REQUEST['email'] ; $message = $_REQUEST['message'] ; mail("[email protected]", $name, $message, "From:" . $email); } ?> I've already tried different types of php-scripts, but it still doesn't seem to work. UPDATE: Changed the form code to: <form method="POST" action="email.php"> <div class="row half"> <div class="6u"> <input name="name" placeholder="Name" type="text" class="text" /> </div> <div class="6u"> <input name="email" placeholder="Email" type="text" class="text" /> </div> </div> <div class="row half"> <div class="12u"> <textarea name="message" placeholder="Message"></textarea> </div> </div> <div class="row half"> <div class="12u"> <ul class="action"> <input type="submit" class="action"> </ul> </div> </div> </form> Now it redirects me to www.adspot.se/email.php but still no emails received...

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• Calling managed code from unmanaged win32 assembly dll - crash

  - by JustGreg

  I'm developing a serial port dll in win32 assembly (MASM32). It has its own thread checking multiple events and at a specified buffer treshold it'd notify the managed main application by calling a callback function. It just a call with no arguments/return value. At startup the main application stores the callback function's address by calling a function in the dll: pCallBackFunction dd 0 SetCallBackPointer proc pcb:DWORD mov eax, pcb mov pCallBackFunction, eax call DWORD ptr pCallBackFunction ; verify it immediately ret SetCallBackPointer endp The upper function immediately calls back the managed application callback routine for verification purposes. It is working fine. However, when I place the call instruction to other functions in the dll it crashes the application. It doesn't matter if the call is in a simple function or in the threadproc of the dll. For example: OpenPort proc pn:byte,br:dword, inputbuffersize: dword, outputbuffersize:dword, tresholdsize: dword LOCAL dcb: DCB LOCAL SerialTimeOuts: COMMTIMEOUTS call DWORD ptr pCallBackFunction xor eax, eax mov al, pn mov [com_port+3],al etc. etc. will crash at call DWORD ptr pCallBackFunction always. Since I call SetCallBackPointer first to store a valid address in pCallBackFunction, it should have a valid address. My managed app is written in C# and the relevant part is: public partial class Form1 : Form { public delegate void CallBackDelegate(); public static CallBackDelegate mydelegate; [DllImport("serialport.dll")] private static extern void SetCallBackPointer(CallBackDelegate Delegate); [DllImport("serialport.dll")] public static extern int OpenPort(byte com, uint br, uint inbufsize, uint outbufsize, uint treshsize); public Form1() { InitializeComponent(); mydelegate =new CallBackDelegate(CallbackFunction); SetCallBackPointer(mydelegate); unsafe { int sysstat; int hResult; hResult = OpenPort(Convert.ToByte('5'), 9600, 306, 4, 4); } } public static void CallbackFunction() { MessageBox.Show( "CallBack Function Called by Windows DLL"); } The VS debugger reported that the dll had tried to read/write from/to a protected memory address. But when calling SetCallBackPointer there is no such problem. What am I doing wrong here? Any tips would be great!

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• Determining if Memory Pointer is Valid - C++

  - by Jim Fell

  It has been my observation that if free( ptr ) is called where ptr is not a valid pointer to system-allocated memory, an access violation occurs. Let's say that I call free like this: LPVOID ptr = (LPVOID)0x12345678; free( ptr ); This will most definitely cause an access violation. Is there a way to test that the memory location pointed to by ptr is valid system-allocated memory? It seems to me that the the memory management part of the Windows OS kernel must know what memory has been allocated and what memory remains for allocation. Otherwise, how could it know if enough memory remains to satisfy a given request? (rhetorical) That said, it seems reasonable to conclude that there must be a function (or set of functions) that would allow a user to determine if a pointer is valid system-allocated memory. Perhaps Microsoft has not made these functions public. If Microsoft has not provided such an API, I can only presume that it was for an intentional and specific reason. Would providing such a hook into the system prose a significant threat to system security? Situation Report Although knowing whether a memory pointer is valid could be useful in many scenarios, this is my particular situation: I am writing a driver for a new piece of hardware that is to replace an existing piece of hardware that connects to the PC via USB. My mandate is to write the new driver such that calls to the existing API for the current driver will continue to work in the PC applications in which it is used. Thus the only required changes to existing applications is to load the appropriate driver DLL(s) at startup. The problem here is that the existing driver uses a callback to send received serial messages to the application; a pointer to allocated memory containing the message is passed from the driver to the application via the callback. It is then the responsibility of the application to call another driver API to free the memory by passing back the same pointer from the application to the driver. In this scenario the second API has no way to determine if the application has actually passed back a pointer to valid memory.

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• Is 4-5 years the “Midlife Crisis” for a programming career?

  - by Jeffrey

  I’ve been programming C# professionally for a bit over 4 years now. For the past 4 years I’ve worked for a few small/medium companies ranging from “web/ads agencies”, small industry specific software shops to a small startup. I've been mainly doing "business apps" that involves using high-level programming languages (garbage collected) and my overall experience was that all of the works I’ve done could have been more professional. A lot of the things were done incorrectly (in a rush) mainly due to cost factor that people always wanted something “now” and with the smallest amount of spendable money. I kept on thinking maybe if I could work for a bigger companies or a company that’s better suited for programmers, or somewhere that's got the money and time to really build something longer term and more maintainable I may have enjoyed more in my career. I’ve never had a “mentor” that guided me through my 4 years career. I am pretty much blog / google / self taught programmer other than my bachelor IT degree. I’ve also observed another issue that most so called “senior” programmer in “my working environment” are really not that senior skill wise. They are “senior” only because they’ve been a long time programmer, but the code they write or the decisions they make are absolutely rubbish! They don't want to learn, they don't want to be better they just want to get paid and do what they've told to do which make sense and most of us are like that. Maybe that’s why they are where they are now. But I don’t want to become like them I want to be better. I’ve run into a mental state that I no longer intend to be a programmer for my future career. I started to think maybe there are better things out there to work on. The more blogs I read, the more “best practices” I’ve tried the more I feel I am drifting away from “my reality”. But I am not a great programmer otherwise I don't think I am where I am now. I think 4-5 years is a stage that can be a step forward career wise or a step out of where you are. I just wanted to hear what other have to say about what I’ve mentioned above and whether you’ve experienced similar situation in your past programming career and how you dealt with it. Thanks.

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• iOs receivedData from NSURLConnection is nil

  - by yhl

  I was wondering if anyone could point out why I'm not able to capture a web reply. My NSLog shows that my [NSMutableData receivedData] has a length of 0 the entire run of the connection. The script that I hit when I click my login button returns a string. My NSLog result is pasted below, and after that I've pasted both the .h and .m files that I have. NSLog Result 2012-11-28 23:35:22.083 [12548:c07] Clicked on button_login 2012-11-28 23:35:22.090 [12548:c07] theConnection is succesful 2012-11-28 23:35:22.289 [12548:c07] didReceiveResponse 2012-11-28 23:35:22.290 [12548:c07] didReceiveData 2012-11-28 23:35:22.290 [12548:c07] 0 2012-11-28 23:35:22.290 [12548:c07] connectionDidFinishLoading 2012-11-28 23:35:22.290 [12548:c07] 0 ViewController.h #import <UIKit/UIKit.h> @interface ViewController : UIViewController // Create an Action for the button. - (IBAction)button_login:(id)sender; // Add property declaration. @property (nonatomic,assign) NSMutableData *receivedData; @end ViewController.m #import ViewController.h @interface ViewController () @end @implementation ViewController @synthesize receivedData; - (void)connection:(NSURLConnection *)connection didReceiveResponse:(NSURLResponse *)response { NSLog(@"didReceiveResponse"); [receivedData setLength:0]; } - (void)connection:(NSURLConnection *)connection didReceiveData:(NSData *)data { NSLog(@"didReceiveData"); [receivedData appendData:data]; NSLog(@"%d",[receivedData length]); } - (void)connectionDidFinishLoading:(NSURLConnection *)connection { NSLog(@"connectionDidFinishLoading"); NSLog(@"%d",[receivedData length]); } - (IBAction)button_login:(id)sender { NSLog(@"Clicked on button_login"); NSString *loginScriptURL = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"http://www.website.com/app/scripts/login.php?"]; NSMutableURLRequest *theRequest = [NSMutableURLRequest requestWithURL:[NSURL URLWithString:loginScriptURL]]; NSString *postString = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"&paramUsername=user&paramPassword=pass"]; NSData *postData = [postString dataUsingEncoding:NSASCIIStringEncoding allowLossyConversion:YES]; [theRequest setHTTPMethod:@"POST"]; [theRequest setHTTPBody:postData]; // Create the actual connection using the request. NSURLConnection *theConnection = [[NSURLConnection alloc] initWithRequest:theRequest delegate:self]; // Capture the response if (theConnection) { NSLog(@"theConnection is succesful"); } else { NSLog(@"theConnection failed"); } } @end

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• JQuery not copying state dropdown list 1 to DDL2 on checkbox change

  - by user1001411

  I've looked at similar posts on the subject but none of the recommended solutions have worked for me so I'm not sure where I'm going wrong. I have a billing and shipping address form with a dropdown list for the state. Upon checking/unchecking the "billing address same as shipping" everything copies over except the state dropdown list. The state dropdown list is populated from a SQLDataSource state table. Here's my code: <script type="text/javascript" language="javascript" src="../Scripts/jquery-1.4.1.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function () { $('input:checkbox[id*=chkCopy]').change(function () { if ($(this).is(':checked')) { $('input:text[id*=TextBox5]').val($('input:text[id*=TextBox1]').val()); $('input:text[id*=TextBox7]').val($('input:text[id*=TextBox2]').val()); $('input:text[id*=TextBox9]').val($('input:text[id*=TextBox3]').val()); $('input:text[id*=TextBox12]').val($('input:text[id*=TextBox4]').val()); $('select#DropDownList6').val($("select#DropDownList1").val()); $('input:text[id*=TextBox14]').val($('input:text[id*=TextBox6]').val()); } else { $('input:text[id*=TextBox5]').val(''); $('input:text[id*=TextBox7]').val(''); $('input:text[id*=TextBox9]').val(''); $('input:text[id*=TextBox12]').val(''); $('select#DropDownList6').val(''); $('input:text[id*=TextBox14]').val(''); } }); }); and here is my SQL for the DDL: <asp:DropDownList ID="DropDownList1" runat="server" DataTextField="Descr" DataValueField="ID" DataSourceID="SqlDataSource1" Width="254"> </asp:DropDownList> <asp:SqlDataSource ID="SqlDataSource1" runat="server" ConnectionString="<%$ ConnectionStrings:ASPNETDBConnectionString1 %>" SelectCommand="SELECT * FROM [xrefState]"> </asp:SqlDataSource> the other one: <asp:DropDownList ID="DropDownList6" runat="server" DataTextField="Descr" DataValueField="ID" DataSourceID="SqlDataSource5" Width="254"> </asp:DropDownList> <asp:SqlDataSource ID="SqlDataSource5" runat="server" ConnectionString="<%$ ConnectionStrings:ASPNETDBConnectionString1 %>" SelectCommand="SELECT * FROM [xrefState]"> </asp:SqlDataSource>

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• PHP, PEAR, and oci8 configuration

  - by zack_falcon

  I'll make this quick. I installed Oracle 11g (with appropriate database, users, etc), Apache 2.4.6, and PHP 5.5.4 on a Fedora 19 system. I wanted to connect PHP to Oracle. What I really wanted to do was to download MDB2_Driver_oci8, which I thought would be easy, but before I can do such a thing, PHP needs to have that plug-in enabled, so here's what I did: Tried to install oci8 via the following: pecl install oci8 When that didn't exactly work the first few times, I figured out I, for some reason, needed "Development tools" - via yum groupinstall "Development Tools" Then I figured out later that PHP actually doesn't do oci8 - it's PHP Devel. So, I had to install that too, via yum install php-devel. And then, I finally got to install oci8. It asked for the Oracle Directory, and that was that. But it said the following: Configuration option 'php_ini' is not set to php.ini location You should add 'extensions=oci8.so' to php.ini First, I did a locate oci8.so - found it in /usr/lib64/php/modules/ Second, I added what it told me to, to the php.ini file. Third, I checked the usual php_info() test page - no mention of OCI8. Uh-oh. Fourth, running both php -i and php -m listed oci8 as one of the modules. Weird. In desperation, I went ahead and downloaded the MDB2_Driver_oci8. Maybe that will fix things. Nope. When I loaded my PHP Webpage, it returned the following: Error message: extension oci8 is not compiled into PHP As well as: MDB2 error: not found Strange. And then I decided to check the error logs: PHP Startup - unable to load dynamic library '/usr/lib64/php/modules/oci8.so' - libclntsh.so.11.1: cannot open shared object file: No such file or directory in Unknown on line 0 And now I'm stuck. I tried going into the php.ini, and found that the extension_dir was commented out. I put it back in, which only seemed to break stuff. Things of note: I followed this (link) guide on how to configure PHP and install oci8. ./configure --with-oci8 doesn't work. Fedora says no such directory. As both the webpage files and the actual server reside on the same PC, I did not install the Oracle Client files. The extension_dir is commented out by default in the php.ini. This is just one of my problems in a long line of problems concerning the replication of an already existing and working, but dying, setup. It seems whenever I want to solve a problem, I have to do X first. And by doing X, I uncover another problem, which I have to solve by doing Y, which has its own problems, etc, etc. Any help would be much appreciated. Thanks.

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• Jquery ajax using asp.net does not work on IE9 during the 2nd call of the function?

  - by randelramirez1

  I have gridview that is loaded from another aspx page after an ajax call, the problem is it works on chrome/firefox/safari but using ie9 the ajax call would work fine during the first call but when i try to call the function again it throws an 304 status on the network tab of ie9 dev tool and the gridview is not refreshed. Here is the jquery code: <%@ Page Language="C#" AutoEventWireup="true" CodeFile="LoadCoursesGridViewHere.aspx.cs" Inherits="CoursesGridView" %> <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head runat="server"> <title></title> <script src="Scripts/jquery-1.8.2.js" type="text/javascript"></script> </head> <body> <form id="form1" runat="server"> <div id="Gridview-container"> <asp:GridView ID="GridView1" runat="server"> </asp:GridView> </div> <asp:TextBox ID="TextBox1" runat="server" ViewStateMode="Disabled"></asp:TextBox> <%-- <asp:Button Text="text" ID="btn" OnClientClick=" __doPostBack('UpdatePanel1', '')" runat="server" />--%> <input type="button" id="btn" value="insert"/> </form> <script type="text/javascript"> $("#btn").click(function () { var a = $("#TextBox1").val(); $.ajax({ url: 'WebService.asmx/insert', data: "{ 'name': '" + a + "' }", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", type: "POST", success: function () { // alert('insert was performed.'); $("#Gridview-container").empty(); $("#Gridview-container").load("GridViewCourses.aspx #GridView1"); } }); }); </script> </body> </html> What happen is that after click the button it will insert the textbox value in the database through the webservice 'insert' and then reload the gridview that is placed inside a different aspx page. The problem is that when I ran it on IE9 during the 1st insert everything works properly but the succeeding inserts does reload the gridview and I noticed that it says '304' on the network tab of ie9 dev tool.

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• Magento - How to select mysql rows by max value?

  - by Damodar Bashyal

  mysql> SELECT * FROM `log_customer` WHERE `customer_id` = 224 LIMIT 0, 30; +--------+------------+-------------+---------------------+-----------+----------+ | log_id | visitor_id | customer_id | login_at | logout_at | store_id | +--------+------------+-------------+---------------------+-----------+----------+ | 817 | 50139 | 224 | 2011-03-21 23:56:56 | NULL | 1 | | 830 | 52317 | 224 | 2011-03-27 23:43:54 | NULL | 1 | | 1371 | 136549 | 224 | 2011-11-16 04:33:51 | NULL | 1 | | 1495 | 164024 | 224 | 2012-02-08 01:05:48 | NULL | 1 | | 2130 | 281854 | 224 | 2012-11-13 23:44:13 | NULL | 1 | +--------+------------+-------------+---------------------+-----------+----------+ 5 rows in set (0.00 sec) mysql> SELECT * FROM `customer_entity` WHERE `entity_id` = 224; +-----------+----------------+---------------------------+----------+---------------------+---------------------+ | entity_id | entity_type_id | email | group_id | created_at | updated_at | +-----------+----------------+---------------------------+----------+---------------------+---------------------+ | 224 | 1 | [email protected] | 3 | 2011-03-21 04:59:17 | 2012-11-13 23:46:23 | +-----------+----------------+---------------------------+----------+--------------+----------+-----------------+ 1 row in set (0.00 sec) How can i search for customers who hasn't logged in for last 10 months and their account has not been updated for last 10 months. I tried below but failed. $collection = Mage::getModel('customer/customer')->getCollection(); $collection->getSelect()->joinRight(array('l'=>'log_customer'), "customer_id=entity_id AND MAX(l.login_at) <= '" . date('Y-m-d H:i:s', strtotime('10 months ago')) . "'")->group('e.entity_id'); $collection->addAttributeToSelect('*'); $collection->addFieldToFilter('updated_at', array( 'lt' => date('Y-m-d H:i:s', strtotime('10 months ago')), 'datetime'=>true, )); $collection->addAttributeToFilter('group_id', array( 'neq' => 5, )); Above tables have one customer for reference. I have no idea how to use MAX() on joins. Thanks UPDATE: This seems returning correct data, but I would like to do magento way using resource collection, so i don't need to do load customer again on for loop. $read = Mage::getSingleton('core/resource')->getConnection('core_read'); $sql = "select * from ( select e.*,l.login_at from customer_entity as e left join log_customer as l on l.customer_id=e.entity_id group by e.entity_id order by l.login_at desc ) as l where ( l.login_at <= '".date('Y-m-d H:i:s', strtotime('10 months ago'))."' or ( l.created_at <= '".date('Y-m-d H:i:s', strtotime('10 months ago'))."' and l.login_at is NULL ) ) and group_id != 5"; $result = $read->fetchAll($sql); I have loaded full shell script to github https://github.com/dbashyal/Magento-ecommerce-Shell-Scripts/blob/master/shell/suspendCustomers.php

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• How to generate a script for changing a column of varchar to xml type with data being converted?

  - by user1323981

  Initially I have a column (partner_email) of varchar.Now a recent change has come where it needs to be changed to be changed to the XML type but the previous records needs to be reserve into the new column. I have applied the below algorithm to accomplish the work /*********************************************************************** Purpose: To change the partner_email column from Varchar Type To Xml Type and convert the existing records from varchar to xml types. Programmers Notes: 1. Create a new Column by the name partner_email_temp of type XML into the Partner Table 2. Copy the Email contents from partner_email to partner_email_temp column after proper conversion N.B.~ The format will be <PartnerEmails> <Email>[email protected]</Email> <Email /> <Email /> </PartnerEmails> 3. Drop the exisitng partner_email 4. Rename partner_email_temp column to partner_email ***********************************************************************/ USE [Test] GO --===== Create a partner_email_temp column of type xml into the Partner table IF NOT EXISTS ( SELECT * FROM INFORMATION_SCHEMA.columns WHERE table_name = 'Partner' AND column_name = 'partner_email_temp' ) BEGIN ALTER TABLE [dbo].[Partner] ADD partner_email_temp XML NULL END GO --===== Copy the Email contents from partner_email to partner_email_temp column -- after proper conversion to xml type UPDATE [dbo].[Partner] SET partner_email_temp = CAST('<PartnerEmails><Email>' + REPLACE(partner_email, '&', '&amp;') + '</Email><Email></Email><Email></Email></PartnerEmails>' AS XML) GO --===== Drop the exisitng partner_email ALTER TABLE [dbo].[Partner] DROP COLUMN partner_email GO --===== Rename partner_email_temp column to partner_email Exec sp_RENAME 'Partner.partner_email_temp','partner_email','COLUMN' GO I works fine for the first time I ran. Now if I ran it for the next time, it am getting an error Msg 8116, Level 16, State 1, Line 4 Argument data type xml is invalid for argument 1 of replace function. Caution: Changing any part of an object name could break scripts and stored procedures. The intention is that, if the partner_email column is varchar, the script will change it to xml type and will convert all the data in xml format . If I ran it second time, it should ignore the statement. How to achieve this? I am trying in a different way DECLARE @columnDataType VARCHAR(50) SELECT @columnDataType = DATA_TYPE FROM INFORMATION_SCHEMA.columns WHERE table_name = 'Partner' AND column_name = 'partner_email' print @columnDataType IF (@columnDataType = 'varchar') BEGIN --===== Create a partner_email_temp column of type xml into the Partner table IF NOT EXISTS ( SELECT * FROM INFORMATION_SCHEMA.columns WHERE table_name = 'Partner' AND column_name = 'partner_email_temp' ) BEGIN ALTER TABLE [dbo].[Partner] ADD partner_email_temp XML NULL --===== Copy the Email contents from partner_email to partner_email_temp column -- after proper conversion to xml type UPDATE [dbo].[Partner] SET partner_email_temp = CAST('<PartnerEmails><Email>' + REPLACE(partner_email, '&', '&amp;') + '</Email><Email></Email><Email></Email></PartnerEmails>' AS XML) --===== Drop the exisitng partner_email ALTER TABLE [dbo].[Partner] DROP COLUMN partner_email --===== Rename partner_email_temp column to partner_email EXEC sp_RENAME 'Partner.partner_email_temp','partner_email','COLUMN' END END but getting error Msg 207, Level 16, State 1, Line 29 Invalid column name 'partner_email_temp'. Help needed

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• MEF C# Service - DLL Updating

  - by connerb

  Currently, I have a C# service that runs off of many .dll's and has modules/plugins that it imports at startup. I would like to create an update system that basically stops the service, deletes any files it is told to delete (old versions), downloads new versions from a server, and starts the service. I believe I have coded this right except for the delete part, because as long as I am not overwriting anything, the file will download. If I try to overwrite something, it won't work, which is why I am trying to delete it before hand. However, when I do File.Delete() to the path that I want to do, it gives me access to the path is denied. Here is my code: new Thread(new ThreadStart(() => { ServiceController controller = new ServiceController("client"); controller.Stop(); controller.WaitForStatus(ServiceControllerStatus.Stopped); try { if (um.FilesUpdated != null) { foreach (FilesUpdated file in um.FilesUpdated) { if (file.OldFile != null) { File.Delete(Path.Combine(Utility.AssemblyDirectory, file.OldFile)); } if (file.NewFile != null) { wc.DownloadFile(cs.UpdateUrl + "/updates/client/" + file.NewFile, Path.Combine(Utility.AssemblyDirectory, file.NewFile)); } } } if (um.ModulesUpdated != null) { foreach (ModulesUpdated module in um.ModulesUpdated) { if (module.OldModule != null) { File.Delete(Path.Combine(cs.ModulePath, module.OldModule)); } if (module.NewModule != null) { wc.DownloadFile(cs.UpdateUrl + "/updates/client/modules/" + module.NewModule, Path.Combine(cs.ModulePath, module.NewModule)); } } } } catch (Exception ex) { Logger.log(ex); } controller.Start(); })).Start(); I believe it is because the files are in use, but I can't seem to unload them. I though stopping the service would work, but apparently not. I have also checked the files and they are not read-only (but the folder is, which is located in Program Files, however I couldn't seem to get it to not be read-only programmatically or manually). The service is also being run as an administrator (NT AUTHORITY\SYSTEM). I've read about unloading the AppDomain but AppDomain.Unload(AppDomain.CurrentDomain); returned an exception as well. Not too sure even if this is a problem with MEF or my program just not having the correct permissions...I would assume that it's mainly because the file is in use.

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• Error on 64 Bit Install of IIS &ndash; LoadLibraryEx failed on aspnet_filter.dll

  - by Rick Strahl

  I’ve been having a few problems with my Windows 7 install and trying to get IIS applications to run properly in 64 bit. After installing IIS and creating virtual directories for several of my applications and firing them up I was left with the following error message from IIS: Calling LoadLibraryEx on ISAPI filter “c:\windows\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v4.0.30319\aspnet_filter.dll” failed This is on Windows 7 64 bit and running on an ASP.NET 4.0 Application configured for running 64 bit (32 bit disabled). It’s also on what is essentially a brand new installation of IIS and Windows 7. So it failed right out of the box. The problem here is that IIS is trying to loading this ISAPI filter from the 32 bit folder – it should be loading from Framework64 folder note the Framework folder. The aspnet_filter.dll component is a small Win32 ISAPI filter used to back up the cookieless session state for ASP.NET on IIS 7 applications. It’s not terribly important because of this focus, but it’s a default loaded component. After a lot of fiddling I ended up with two solutions (with the help and support of some Twitter folks): Switch IIS to run in 32 bit mode Fix the filter listing in ApplicationHost.config Switching IIS to allow 32 Bit Code This is a quick fix for the problem above which enables 32 bit code in the Application Pool. The problem above is that IIS is trying to load a 32 bit ISAPI filter and enabling 32 bit code gets you around this problem. To configure your Application Pool, open the Application Pool in IIS Manager bring up Advanced Options and Enable 32 Bit Applications: And voila the error message above goes away. Fix Filters Enabling 32 bit code is a quick fix solution to this problem, but not an ideal one. If you’re running a pure .NET application that doesn’t need to do COM or pInvoke Interop with 32 bit apps there’s usually no need for enabling 32 bit code in an Application Pool as you can run in native 64 bit code. So trying to get 64 bit working natively is a pretty key feature in my opinion :-) So what’s the problem – why is IIS trying to load a 32 bit DLL in a 64 bit install, especially if the application pool is configured to not allow 32 bit code at all? The problem lies in the server configuration and the fact that 32 bit and 64 bit configuration settings exist side by side in IIS. If I open my Default Web Site (or any other root Web Site) and go to the ISAPI filter list here’s what I see: Notice that there are 3 entries for ASP.NET 4.0 in this list. Only two of them however are specifically scoped to the specifically to 32 bit or 64 bit. As you can see the 64 bit filter correctly points at the Framework64 folder to load the dll, while both the 32 bit and the ‘generic’ entry point at the plain Framework 32 bit folder. Aha! Hence lies our problem. You can edit ApplicationHost.config manually, but I ran into the nasty issue of not being able to easily edit that file with the 32 bit editor (who ever thought that was a good idea???? WTF). You have to open ApplicationHost.Config in a 64 bit native text editor – which Visual Studio is not. Or my favorite editor: EditPad Pro. Since I don’t have a native 64 bit editor handy Notepad was my only choice. Or as an alternative you can use the IIS 7.5 Configuration Editor which lets you interactively browse and edit most ApplicationHost settings. You can drill into the configuration hierarchy visually to find your keys and edit attributes and sub values in property editor type interface. I had no idea this tool existed prior to today and it’s pretty cool as it gives you some visual clues to options available – especially in absence of an Intellisense scheme you’d get in Visual Studio (which doesn’t work). To use the Configuration Editor go the Web Site root and use the Configuration Editor option in the Management Group. Drill into System.webServer/isapiFilters and then click on the Collection’s … button on the right. You should now see a display like this: which shows all the same attributes you’d see in ApplicationHost.config (cool!). These entries correspond to these raw ApplicationHost.config entries: <filter name="ASP.Net_4.0" path="C:\Windows\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v4.0.30319\aspnet_filter.dll" enableCache="true" preCondition="runtimeVersionv4.0" /> <filter name="ASP.Net_4.0_64bit" path="C:\Windows\Microsoft.NET\Framework64\v4.0.30319\aspnet_filter.dll" enableCache="true" preCondition="runtimeVersionv4.0,bitness64" /> <filter name="ASP.Net_4.0_32bit" path="C:\Windows\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v4.0.30319\aspnet_filter.dll" enableCache="true" preCondition="runtimeVersionv4.0,bitness32" /> The key attribute we’re concerned with here is the preCondition and the bitness subvalue. Notice that the ‘generic’ version – which comes first in the filter list – has no bitness assigned to it, so it defaults to 32 bit and the 32 bit dll path. And this is where our problem comes from. The simple solution to fix the startup problem is to remove the generic entry from this list here or in the filters list shown earlier and leave only the bitness specific versions active. The preCondition attribute acts as a filter and as you can see here it filters the list by runtime version and bitness value. This is something to keep an eye out in general – if a bitness values are missing it’s easy to run into conflicts like this with any settings that are global and especially those that load modules and handlers and other executable code. On 64 bit systems it’s a good idea to explicitly set the bitness of all entries or remove the non-specific versions and add bit specific entries. So how did this get misconfigured? I installed IIS before everything else was installed on this machine and then went ahead and installed Visual Studio. I suspect the Visual Studio install munged this up as I never saw a similar problem on my live server where everything just worked right out of the box. In searching about this problem a lot of solutions pointed at using aspnet_regiis –r from the Framework64 directory, but that did not fix this extra entry in the filters list – it adds the required 32 bit and 64 bit entries, but it doesn’t remove the errand un-bitness set entry. Hopefully this post will help out anybody who runs into a similar situation without having to trouble shoot all the way down into the configuration settings and noticing the bitness settings. It’s a good lesson learned for me – this is my first desktop install of a 64 bit OS and things like this are what I was reluctant to find. Now that I ran into this I have a good idea what to look for with 32/64 bit misconfigurations in IIS at least.© Rick Strahl, West Wind Technologies, 2005-2011Posted in IIS7   ASP.NET  

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• This task is currently locked by a running workflow and cannot be edited. Limitation to both Nintex and SPD workflow

  - by ybbest

  Note, this post is from Nintex Forum here. These limitations apply to both SharePoint designer Workflow and Nintex Workflow as Nintex using the SharePoint workflow engine. The common cause that I experience is that ‘parent’ workflow is generating more than one task at once. This is common as you can have multiple approvers for certain approval process. You could also have workflow running when the task is created, one of the common scenario is you would like to set a custom column value in your approval task. For me this is huge limitation, as Nintex lover I really hope Nintex could solve this problem with Microsoft going forward. Introduction “This task is currently locked by a running workflow and cannot be edited” is a common message that is seen when an error occurs while the SharePoint workflow engine is processing a task item associated with a workflow. When a workflow processes a task normally, the following sequence of events is expected to occur: 1.       The process begins. 2.       The workflow places a ‘lock’ on the task so nothing else can change the values while the workflow is processing. 3.       The workflow processes the task. 4.       The lock is released when the task processing is finished. When the message is encountered, it usually indicates that an error occurred between step 2 and 4. As a result, the lock is never released. Therefore, the ‘task locked’ message is not an error itself, rather a symptom of another error – the ‘task locked’ message does not indicate what went wrong. In most cases, once this message is encountered, the workflow cannot be made to continue and must be terminated and started again. The following is a guide that can help troubleshoot the cause of these messages.  Some initial observations to narrow down the potential causes are: Is the error consistent or intermittent? When the error is consistent, it will happen every time the workflow is run. When it is intermittent, it may happen regularly, but not every time. Does the error occur the first time the user tries to respond to a task, or do they respond and notice the workflow does not continue, and when they respond again the error occurs? If the message is present when the user first responds to the task, the issue would have occurred when the task was created. Otherwise, it would have occurred when the user attempted to respond to the task. Causes Modifying the task list A cause of this error appearing consistently the first time a user tries to respond to a task is a modification to the default task list schema. For example, changing the ‘Assigned to’ field in a task list to be a multiple selection will cause the behaviour. Deleting the workflow task then restoring it from the Recycle bin If you start a workflow, delete the workflow task then restore it from the Recycle Bin in SharePoint, the workflow will fail with the ‘task locked’ error.  This is confirmed behaviour whether using a SharePoint Designer or a Nintex workflow.  You will need to terminate the workflow and start it again. Parallel simultaneous responses A cause of this error appearing inconsistently is multiple users responding to tasks in parallel at the same time. In this scenario, one task will complete correctly and the other will not process. When the user tries again, the ‘task locked’ message will display. Nintex included a workaround for this issue in build 11000. In build 11000 and later, one of the users will receive a message on the task form when they attempt to respond, stating that they need to try again in a few moments. Additional processing on the task A cause of this error appearing consistently and inconsistently is having an additional system running on the items in the task list. Some examples include: a workflow running on the task list, an event receiver running on the task list or another automated process querying and updating workflow tasks. Note: This Microsoft help article (http://office.microsoft.com/en-us/sharepointdesigner/HA102376561033.aspx#5) explains creating a workflow that runs on the task list to update a field on the task. Our experience shows that this causes the ‘Task Locked’ issues when the ‘parent’ workflow is generating more than one task at once. Isolated system error If the error is a rare event, or a ‘one off’ event, then an isolated system error may have occurred. For example, if there is a database connectivity issue while the workflow is processing the task response, the task will lock. In this case, the user will respond to a task but the workflow will not continue. When they respond again, the ‘task locked’ message will display. In this case, there will be an error in the SharePoint ULS Logs at the time that the user originally responded. Temporary delay while workflow processes If the workflow is taking a long time to process after a user submits a task, they may notice and try to respond to the task again. They will see the task locked error, but after a number of attempts (or after waiting some time) the task response page eventually indicates the task has been responded to. In this case, nothing actually went wrong, and the error message gives an accurate indication of what is happening – the workflow temporarily locked the task while it was processing. This scenario may occur in a very large workflow, or after the SharePoint application pool has just started. Modifying the task via a web service with an invalid url If the Nintex Workflow web service is used to respond to or delegate a task, the site context part of the url must be a valid alternative access mapping url. For example, if you access the web service via the IP address of the SharePoint server, and the IP address is not a valid AAM, the task can become locked. The workflow has become stuck without any apparent errors This behaviour can occur as a result of a bug in the SharePoint 2010 workflow engine.  If you do not have the August 2010 Cumulative Update (or later) for SharePoint, and your workflow uses delays, “Flexi-task”, State machine”, “Task Reminder” actions or variables, you could be affected. Check the SharePoint 2010 Updates site here: http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/sharepoint/ff800847.  The October CU is recommended http://support.microsoft.com/kb/2553031.   The fix is described as “Consider the following scenario. You add a Delay activity to a workflow. Then, you set the duration for the Delay activity. You deploy the workflow in SharePoint Foundation 2010. In this scenario, the workflow is not resumed after the duration of the Delay activity”. If you find this is occurring in your environment, install the October CU, terminate all the running workflows affected and run them afresh. Investigative steps The first step to isolate the issue is to create a new task list on the site and configure the workflow to use it.  Any customizations that were made to the original task list should not be made to the new task list. If the new task list eliminates the issue, then the cause can be attributed to the original task list or a change that was made to it. To change the task list that the workflow uses: In Workflow Designer select Settings -> Startup Options Then configure the task list as required If any of the scenarios above do not help, check the SharePoint logs for any messages with a category of ‘Workflow Infrastructure’. Conclusion The information in this article has been gathered from observations and investigations by Nintex. The sources of these issues are the underlying SharePoint workflow engine. This article will be updated if further causes are discovered. From <http://connect.nintex.com/forums/thread/6503.aspx>

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