Search Results

Search found 10128 results on 406 pages for 'extended events'.

Page 340/406 | < Previous Page | 336 337 338 339 340 341 342 343 344 345 346 347  | Next Page >

  • Cocoa Virtual Keystrokes Pain

    - by bhargav
    I'm writing an application to respond on a hotkey by copying highlighted text into NSPasteboard's generalPasteboard. After looking around here for a solution for sending virtual keystrokes, I found this: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1505933/how-to-send-a-cmd-c-keystroke-to-the-active-application-in-objective-c-or-tell I tried the applescript suggested with NSAppleScript: NSLog(@"Hotkey Pressed"); NSPasteboard *pasteboard = [NSPasteboard generalPasteboard]; NSAppleScript *playScript; playScript = [[NSAppleScript alloc] initWithSource:@"tell application \"System Events\" to keystroke \"c\" using command down"]; if([playScript isCompiled] == NO){ [playScript compileAndReturnError:nil]; } id exerror = [playScript executeAndReturnError:nil]; if(exerror == nil){ NSLog(@"Script Failed"); } It works, but only on the first time I hit the hotkey. Each subsequent hit will not to grab the highlighted text. The generalPasteboard still contains the same contents as before the script is run again. Clearing the generalPasteboard before I run the code is no use, because then the code fails when attempting to read the pasteboard contents. So I tried the next suggested solution: CFRelease(CGEventCreate(NULL)); CGEventRef event1, event2, event3, event4; event1 = CGEventCreateKeyboardEvent (NULL, (CGKeyCode)50, true); event2 = CGEventCreateKeyboardEvent (NULL, (CGKeyCode)8, true); event3 = CGEventCreateKeyboardEvent (NULL, (CGKeyCode)8, false); event4 = CGEventCreateKeyboardEvent (NULL, (CGKeyCode)50, false); CGEventPost(kCGHIDEventTap, event1); CGEventPost(kCGHIDEventTap, event2); CGEventPost(kCGHIDEventTap, event3); CGEventPost(kCGHIDEventTap, event4); The above should send the keystrokes Command + c, but all I get is a beep, and the pasteboard contents are unchanged. I'm at wits end - can anyone enlighten me as to what I'm missing or point me out to what I'm overlooking for something so simple?

    Read the article

  • Winform User Settings - Allow multiple choice values at Runtime

    - by Refracted Paladin
    I created a simple User Settings Dialog by binding the Property.Settings to a PropertyGrid. This works like a charm but now I would like to allow only certain choices for some values. I have noticed that some Types will give a dropdown of possible choices. This is what I am shooting for but for, say, Strings. Example, one of the Settings is UserTheme which is a String. Black, Blue, Silver. The program reads that string from the Settings File and sets the Theme on Startup. I can type in a correct theme and it works but if I type in Pink it will not as there is not a pink option. This is my VERY simple UserSettingsForm code. #region FIELDS internal Settings userSettings; #endregion #region EVENTS private void frmEditUserControl_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { userSettings = Settings.Default; this.propertyGrid1.SelectedObject = userSettings; this.propertyGrid1.PropertySort = PropertySort.Alphabetical; } private void btnSave_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { userSettings.Save(); //this.DialogResult = DialogResult.OK; this.Close(); } private void btnCancel_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { userSettings.Reload(); this.Close(); } #endregion

    Read the article

  • WTL Child window event handling

    - by Rushi
    I am developing window application in that I am having 2 child windows on left and right side. I want to handle input events for both windows separately. How to achieve it? My code: class EditorWindow : public DxWindow { public: CSplitterWindow m_vSplit; CPaneContainer m_lPane; CPaneContainer m_rPane; PropertyDialog m_propertyWnd; DECLARE_WND_CLASS(_T("Specific_Class_Name")) BEGIN_MSG_MAP(EditorWindow) MESSAGE_HANDLER(WM_CREATE, OnCreate) MESSAGE_HANDLER(WM_DESTROY, OnDestroy) MESSAGE_HANDLER(WM_LBUTTONDOWN, KeyHandler) MESSAGE_HANDLER(WM_KEYUP, KeyHandler) MESSAGE_HANDLER(WM_LBUTTONDOWN, KeyHandler) END_MSG_MAP() LRESULT OnCreate(UINT, WPARAM, LPARAM, BOOL&) { CRect rcVert; GetClientRect(&rcVert); m_vSplit.Create(m_hWnd, rcVert, NULL, WS_CHILD | WS_VISIBLE | WS_CLIPSIBLINGS | WS_CLIPCHILDREN); m_vSplit.SetSplitterPos(rcVert.Width()/1.4f); // from left m_lPane.Create(m_vSplit.m_hWnd); m_vSplit.SetSplitterPane(0, m_lPane); //m_lPane.SetTitle(L"Left Pane"); m_rPane.Create(m_vSplit.m_hWnd); m_vSplit.SetSplitterPane(1, m_rPane); m_rPane.SetTitle(L"Properties"); m_propertyWnd.Create(m_rPane.m_hWnd); //m_vSplit.SetSplitterPane(SPLIT_PANE_LEFT, md.m_hWnd); return 0; } LRESULT OnDestroy( UINT uMsg, WPARAM wParam, LPARAM lParam, BOOL &bHandled ) { PostQuitMessage(0); bHandled = FALSE; return 0; } LRESULT KeyHandler( UINT uMsg, WPARAM wParam, LPARAM lParam, BOOL &bHandled ) { return 0; } };

    Read the article

  • highcharts correct json input

    - by Linus
    i am trying to do a basic column chart. i have looked the examples but not sure why i do not see any graph (lines). I can see the title and subtitle appear an no javascript errors in firebug. any help please $(function () { var chart; $(document).ready(function() { chart = new Highcharts.Chart({ chart: { renderTo: 'container', type: 'column', events: { load: requestData } }, title: { text: 'Some title' }, subtitle: { text: 'subtitle' }, xAxis: { categories: [], title: { text: null } }, yAxis: { min: 0, title: { text: 'y-Axis', align: 'high' } }, tooltip: { formatter: function() { return ''+ this.series.name +': '+ this.y +' '; } }, plotOptions: { bar: { dataLabels: { enabled: true } } }, legend: { layout: 'vertical', align: 'right', verticalAlign: 'top', x: -100, y: 100, floating: true, borderWidth: 1, backgroundColor: '#FFFFFF', shadow: true }, credits: { enabled: false }, series:[] }); }); function requestData() { $.ajax({ url: 'test.json', success: function(data) { options.series[0].push(data); chart.redraw(); }, cache: false }); } }); my json input file is below [ { name: 'name1', y: [32.6,16.6,1.5] }, { name: 'name2', y: [6.7,0.2,0.6] }, { name: 'name3', y: [1,3.7,0.7] }, { name: 'name4', y: [20.3,8.8,9.5] },{ name: 'name5', y: [21.5,10,7.2] }, { name: 'name6', y: [1.4,1.8,3.7] }, { name: 'name7', y: [8.1,0,0] }, { name: 'name8', y: [28.9,8.9,6.6] } ]

    Read the article

  • AdMob ad in iPhone app makes App content disappear when "done" is pressed!

    - by nephilite
    Hello All, When I return from an adMob ad by hitting "done" the content of my app has disappeared ! All that remains is a background image I had attached directly to the main window. Oddly I can still hear the result of my touch events from my main screen (which is now gone). This may be related to the issue some people have had regarding a 20 pixel move involving the toolbar...I see something to that effect as the ad starts to overlay. I have admob in another app that is working fine, and I notice when the ad opens in that app the ad content fills the whole screen EXCEPT the top toolbar (it starts right under it). In the new app I'm working on right now this isn't the case. When the ad starts to open I see the tool bar vanish, then the add comes in and fills the entire screen (including the area where the tool bar was); then when I click done and the the ad goes away everything under it is gone as well. It may be worth noting that the App I had working was 2.x and the current app is 3.x (and thus using the admob 3.0 libraries). This is very odd and deal-breaking; I need help ASAP The relevant part of my view hierarchy is as follows: AppDelegate - ViewController - MainView (Ad is in here) There are also some other Views that are children of the ViewController and a UITabbar is also a subview of the ViewController (programmatically declared, not a UITabBar Controller). Any help you can offer would be extremely appreciate...I need to resolve this issue ASAP, release in two days! Thanks!!

    Read the article

  • How to implement a web app with blazeds+java+flex+tomcat?

    - by ARYAD
    Hi, i'm doing a web app in flex blazeds and java, i installed the eclipse plugs for using WTP mixed project, i use the flex's server that uses an emulate of tomcat when i ran my flex service the web app got the datas, everythings is ok. the problem is when i copy the proyect with all files generated by flex in my tomcat or the blazeds's tomcat, it doesn't work, this is becasue i want to implement my app on a server the error is: "(mx.messaging.messages::ErrorMessage)#0 body = (Object)#1 clientId = (null) correlationId = "B425A2A7-7D12-A982-7779-8CCBF669413C" destination = "" extendedData = (null) faultCode = "Client.Error.MessageSend" faultDetail = "Channel.Connect.Failed error NetConnection.Call.Failed: HTTP: Failed: url: 'http://172.16.8.245:8400/IEC-BLAZEDS/messagebroker/amf'" faultString = "Send failed" headers = (Object)#2 messageId = "1CBC6020-0ED8-C4CC-3B77-8CCBF6D6621D" rootCause = (mx.messaging.events::ChannelFaultEvent)#3 bubbles = false cancelable = false channel = (mx.messaging.channels::AMFChannel)#4 authenticated = false channelSets = (Array)#5 [0] (mx.messaging::ChannelSet)#6 authenticated = false channelIds = (Array)#7 [0] "my-amf" channels = (Array)#8 [0] (mx.messaging.channels::AMFChannel)#4 clustered = false connected = false currentChannel = (mx.messaging.channels::AMFChannel)#4 initialDestinationId = (null) messageAgents = (Array)#9 [0] (mx.rpc::AsyncRequest)#10 authenticated = false autoConnect = true channelSet = (mx.messaging::ChannelSet)#6 clientId = (null) connected = false defaultHeaders = (null) destination = "ADEscenario" id = "7D92EDF2-CF62-9545-BA11-8CCBF6691E6B" reconnectAttempts = 0 reconnectInterval = 0 requestTimeout = -1 subtopic = "" connected = false connectTimeout = -1 enableSmallMessages = true endpoint = "http://172.16.8.245:8400/IEC-BLAZEDS/messagebroker/amf" failoverURIs = (Array)#11 id = "my-amf" mpiEnabled = false netConnection = (flash.net::NetConnection)#12 client = (mx.messaging.channels::AMFChannel)#4 connected = false objectEncoding = 3 proxyType = "none" uri = "http://172.16.8.245:8400/IEC-BLAZEDS/messagebroker/amf" piggybackingEnabled = false polling = false pollingEnabled = true pollingInterval = 3000 protocol = "http" reconnecting = false recordMessageSizes = false recordMessageTimes = false requestTimeout = -1 uri = "http://{server.name}:{server.port}/IEC-BLAZEDS/messagebroker/amf" url = "http://{server.name}:{server.port}/IEC-BLAZEDS/messagebroker/amf" useSmallMessages = false channelId = "my-amf" connected = false currentTarget = (mx.messaging.channels::AMFChannel)#4 eventPhase = 2 faultCode = "Channel.Connect.Failed" faultDetail = "NetConnection.Call.Failed: HTTP: Failed: url: 'http://172.16.8.245:8400/IEC-BLAZEDS/messagebroker/amf'" faultString = "error" reconnecting = false rejected = false rootCause = (Object)#13 code = "NetConnection.Call.Failed" description = "HTTP: Failed" details = "http://172.16.8.245:8400/IEC-BLAZEDS/messagebroker/amf" level = "error" target = (mx.messaging.channels::AMFChannel)#4 type = "channelFault" timestamp = 0 timeToLive = 0" i don't know why tomcat doesn't find the class of flex.messaging.endpoints.AMFEndpoint that is used for my-amf 'http://172.16.8.245:8400/IEC-BLAZEDS/messagebroker/amf'. all works well in the emulated server that flex has.

    Read the article

  • DATE lookup table (1990/01/01:2041/12/31)

    - by Frank Developer
    I use a DATE's master table for looking up dates and other values in order to control several events, intervals and calculations within my app. It has rows for every single day begining from 01/01/1990 to 12/31/2041. One example of how I use this lookup table is: A customer pawned an item on: JAN-31-2010 Customer returns on MAY-03-2010 to make an interest pymt to avoid forfeiting the item. If he pays 1 months interest, the employee enters a "1" and the app looks-up the pawn date (JAN-31-2010) in date master table and puts FEB-28-2010 in the applicable interest pymt date. FEB-28 is returned because FEB-31's dont exist! If 2010 were a leap-year, it would've returned FEB-29. If customer pays 2 months, MAR-31-2010 is returned. 3 months, APR-30... If customer pays more than 3 months or another period not covered by the date lookup table, employee manually enters the applicable date. Here's what the date lookup table looks like: { Copyright 1990:2010, Frank Computer, Inc. } { DBDATE=YMD4- (correctly sorted for faster lookup) } CREATE TABLE datemast ( dm_lookup DATE, {lookup col used for obtaining values below} dm_workday CHAR(2), {NULL=Normal Working Date,} {NW=National Holiday(Working Date),} {NN=National Holiday(Non-Working Date),} {NH=National Holiday(Half-Day Working Date),} {CN=Company Proclamated(Non-Working Date),} {CH=Company Proclamated(Half-Day Working Date)} {several other columns omitted} dm_description CHAR(30), {NULL, holiday description or any comments} dm_day_num SMALLINT, {number of elapsed days since begining of year} dm_days_left SMALLINT, (number of remaining days until end of year} dm_plus1_mth DATE, {plus 1 month from lookup date} dm_plus2_mth DATE, {plus 2 months from lookup date} dm_plus3_mth DATE, {plus 3 months from lookup date} dm_fy_begins DATE, {fiscal year begins on for lookup date} dm_fy_ends DATE, {fiscal year ends on for lookup date} dm_qtr_begins DATE, {quarter begins on for lookup date} dm_qtr_ends DATE, {quarter ends on for lookup date} dm_mth_begins DATE, {month begins on for lookup date} dm_mth_ends DATE, {month ends on for lookup date} dm_wk_begins DATE, {week begins on for lookup date} dm_wk_ends DATE, {week ends on for lookup date} {several other columns omitted} ) IN "S:\PAWNSHOP.DBS\DATEMAST"; Is there a better way of doing this or is it a cool method?

    Read the article

  • possible to have a 'publish to facebook' button on my site?

    - by Haroldo
    I'm building a music events website and want to have a 'share this event' button which publishes the event details on facebook. this tool looks like exactly what i want: http://developers.facebook.com/tools.php?connect_wizard&wizard=stream_publish however, if i copy the code snippet to new file on my site, it doesn't work. I'm assuming there's a few lines of extra php/js i need somewhere? so far i have <body> <script src="http://static.ak.connect.facebook.com/js/api_lib/v0.4/FeatureLoader.js.php" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="http://static.ak.connect.facebook.com/connect.php/en_GB" type="text/javascript"></script> <script type="text/javascript">FB.init("89bb37189bede9e30eb07a66b9a1c52a");</script> <script type="text/javascript"> function callPublish(msg, attachment, action_link) { FB.ensureInit(function () { FB.Connect.streamPublish('', attachment, action_link); }); } </script> <input type="button" onclick="callPublish('',{'name':'jkhkjhkjh','href':'http://www.headfirstbristol.co.uk/','description':'jhfg jkdfgkjdfgjkdfkgdfg df gdg dfg dfg dfg dfg dfg dfg dfg','media':[{'type':'image','src':'http://www.headfirstbristol.co.uk/site_files/images/hf-logo.jpg','href':'http://www.headfirstbristol.co.uk/'}]},null);return false;" value="Preview Dialog" />

    Read the article

  • Dynamic programming in VB

    - by Rahul Jain
    Hello Everybody, We develop applications for SAP using their SDK. SAP provides a SDK for changing and handling events occuring in the user interface. For example, with this SDK we can catch a click on a button and do something on the click. This programming can be done either VB or C#. This can also be used to create new fields on the pre-existing form. We have developed a specific application which allows users to store the definition required for new field in a database table and the fields are created at the run time. So far, this is good. What we require now is that the user should be able to store the validation code for the field in the database and the same should be executed on the run time. Following is an example of such an event: Private Sub SBO_Application_ItemEvent(ByVal FormUID As String, ByRef pVal As SAPbouiCOM.ItemEvent, ByRef BubbleEvent As Boolean) Handles SBO_Application.ItemEvent Dim oForm As SAPbouiCOM.Form If pVal.FormTypeEx = "ACC_QPLAN" Then If pVal.EventType = SAPbouiCOM.BoEventTypes.et_LOST_FOCUS And pVal.BeforeAction = False Then oProdRec.ItemPressEvent(pVal) End If End If End Sub Public Sub ItemPressEvent(ByRef pVal As SAPbouiCOM.ItemEvent) Dim oForm As SAPbouiCOM.Form oForm = oSuyash.SBO_Application.Forms.GetForm(pVal.FormTypeEx, pVal.FormTypeCount) If pVal.EventType = SAPbouiCOM.BoEventTypes.et_LOST_FOCUS And pVal.BeforeAction = False Then If pVal.ItemUID = "AC_TXT5" Then Dim CardCode, ItemCode As String ItemCode = oForm.Items.Item("AC_TXT2").Specific.Value CardCode = oForm.Items.Item("AC_TXT0").Specific.Value UpdateQty(oForm, CardCode, ItemCode) End If End If End Sub So, what we need in this case is to store the code given in the ItemPressEvent in a database, and execute this in runtime. I know this is not straight forward thing. But I presume there must be some ways of getting these kind of things done. The SDK is made up of COM components. Thanks & Regards, Rahul Jain

    Read the article

  • JQuery Ajax control

    - by Anycolor
    Everybody hi. There is a problem with my own AJAX library, that I can't solve. I have some block (#ajax-loading), that has events: $('#ajax-loading') .bind('ajaxStart', function() { $('#ajax-loading').show(); }) .bind('ajaxStop', function() { $('#ajax-loading').fadeOut(150); }); For running AJAX I have special method: run: function(data, callback) { if(this.request) { this.request.abort(); } this.request = $.getJSON(window.location.pathname, data , callback); }, So .request holds current AJAX request. What do I want? My #ajax-loading block contains the button, than should Cancel current AJAX request. As I supposed, the function, making Cancel shoud contain: abort: function() { if(ajax.request) { this.request.abort(); $('#ajax-loading').fadeOut(150); } } But, as I said, there is a problem: my AJAX request cancels, loading-block hides, but when another request starts, this block doesn't shows again. It seems that when I abort AJAX request, the ajaxStop event doesn't happen. And when I run new request ajaxStart doesn't happen. I think it can be connected with readyState or status field of XMLHttpRequest, or smth similar. Could anyone help me with this or explain what's wrong. PS: excuse my english, it's not my native language...

    Read the article

  • Can't hit breakpoint in ASP.NET web app (Stop debugging in progress... popup in VS)

    - by dotnetdev
    Hi, I am trying to debug some code in my ASP.NET web app. I set a breakpoint in one of the page events of the page's codebehind, and this once came up with a special icon in place of the red breakpoint saying symbols have not been loaded and the breakpoint will not be hit. This error has not repeated itself but why can't I hit the breakpoint? Also, when I press stop, I get a popup in VS stating: Stop Debugging In Progres... Debugging is being stopped but is not yet complete. You can force debugging to stop completely, but any processes attached may terminate. This window will automatically close when debugging has completely stopped. Completely stop I also don't get the website appear in my browser either when starting to debug. :( To make things worse, I have a line of code like this in my page's codebehind: RssFeedSites = opml.Parse(filestream); I am putting the problematic breakpoint on this line. But I have a programatic breakpoint in the Parse() method of opml, but this does not get hit, either. Thanks

    Read the article

  • jQuery Validation Plugin: Invoke errorPlacement function when onfocusout, keyup and click

    - by th3hamburgler
    Hi, I am using the jquery validation plugin and want to use the errorPlacement function to add error messages to the fields title attribute and display just a ? next to the field. This works great when the form is submitted with the submit button but when any of the following events are triggered: - onfocusout - click - onkeyup The validation checks are run but it skips the errorPlacement function and adds the full error message after the field, like the default behaviour. I am using the following code: $("#send-mail").validate({ debug: true, // set this class to error-labels to indicate valid fields success: function(label) { // set text as tick label.html("&#10004;").addClass("valid"); }, // the errorPlacement has to take the table layout into account errorPlacement: function(error, element) { console.log("errorPlacement called for "+element.attr("name")+" field"); // check for blank/success error if(error.text() == "") { // remove field title/error message from element element.attr("title", ""); console.log("error check passed"); } else { // get error message var message = error.text(); // set as element title element.attr("title", message); // clear error html and add cross glyph error.html("&#10008;"); console.log("error check failed: "+message); } // add error label after form element error.insertAfter(element); }, ignoreTitle: true, errorClass: "invalid" });

    Read the article

  • php: fopen() of an URL breaks for domain names, not for numerical addresses

    - by b0fh
    After hours of trying to debug a third-party application having trouble with fopen(), i finally discovered that php -r 'echo(file_get_contents("http://www.google.com/robots.txt"));' fails, but php -r 'echo(file_get_contents("http://173.194.32.81/robots.txt"));' Succeeds. Note that as the webserver user, I can ping www.google.com and it resolves just fine. I straced both executions of PHP, and they diverge like this: For the numerical v4 URL: socket(PF_INET, SOCK_STREAM, IPPROTO_IP) = 3 fcntl(3, F_GETFL) = 0x2 (flags O_RDWR) fcntl(3, F_SETFL, O_RDWR|O_NONBLOCK) = 0 connect(3, {sa_family=AF_INET, sin_port=htons(80), sin_addr=inet_addr("173.194 poll([{fd=3, events=POLLOUT}], 1, 0) = 0 (Timeout) ...[bunch of poll/select/recvfrom]... close(3) = 0 For the domain name: socket(PF_INET6, SOCK_DGRAM, IPPROTO_IP) = 3 close(3) = 0 PHP didn't even try to do anything with that socket, it seems. Or even resolve the domain, for that matter. WTF ? Recompiling PHP with or without ipv6 support did not seem to matter. Disabling ipv6 on this system is not desirable. Gentoo Linux, PHP 5.3.14, currently giving a try to PHP 5.4 and see if it helps. Anyone has an idea ? EDIT: php -r 'echo gethostbyname("www.google.com");' Works and yield an ipv4, while php -r 'echo(file_get_contents("http://[2a00:1450:4007:803::1011]/"));' Seems to return a blank result. EDIT 2: I didn't even notice the first time, that the v6 socket opened when the name is used is a SOCK_DGRAM.

    Read the article

  • Load external script dynamic, and access it, so I can trigger its domready function

    - by Didier
    I am trying to load the Zopim chat client. Normally it is included with a document write action. This causes it to be loaded before the domReady function is triggered, as it needs this to start itself. I want to load it later, and this works by using prototype (framework determined by Magento) to create a new script element and attaching it to the head. The script is loaded perfectly, but the domReady doesn't fire, so the script is never started. The script is a nameless class, by this I mean that all its functions are encapsulated in {} UPDATE: Sorry, I got it wrong, it is as self invoking function, the same syntax as the first answer suggest. (function C(){ })(); This function call when run sets up listening events for the domReady event under various browsers and then waits. When the domready event fires, it calls a function (that is within the self-invoked function) that starts everything. What I need, is a way to access this function somehow. END UPDATE Within that is a function named C. How can I call this function directly? Or put another way, how can I start an external javascript file that depends on domready going off, when that event doesn't happen? Can I load an external javascript file into a variable, so I can name the class? Can I access the nameless class {} somehow maybe via the script tag? Is there a way to alter the external file/javascript so I can have it look for another event, one that I can trigger? About the only solution I can think of at the moment is to create a iframe and load the script in that.

    Read the article

  • String trouble in Rave Reports 8

    - by Jørn E. Angeltveit
    We are currently working with Delphi 2006, but we are now very ready to move on to Delphi 2010. The problem lies in our Rave reports, though... We just get to many string errors when running our reports with Rave 8. And they just don't make any sense. (The reports compile with no error, and we can even run them without any error in Rave 6.) For instance: //This event causes access violation (in rtl14.bpl) at run time { Event for Page1.OnBeforeReport } function Page1_OnBeforeReport(Self: TRavePage); var s: String; begin s := 'My text in param'; s := s + ' and som more text'; s := copy(s,1,length(s)) + ' and then some more'; RaveProject.SetParam('MyTestParam', s); end OnBeforeReport; //This event works OK { Event for Page1.OnBeforeReport } function Page1_OnBeforeReport(Self: TRavePage); var s: String; begin s := 'My text in param'; s := s + ' and som more text'; s := copy(s,1,length(s)); // + ' and then some more'; RaveProject.SetParam('MyTestParam', s); end OnBeforeReport; //This event works OK too { Event for Page1.OnBeforeReport } function Page1_OnBeforeReport(Self: TRavePage); var s: String; begin s := 'My text in param'; s := s + ' and som more text'; s := copy(s,1,length(s)) + s; RaveProject.SetParam('MyTestParam', s); end OnBeforeReport; We really want to stick to Rave, because we have a lot of reports (150+) with a lot of functionality (sql statements, events etc). Besides, we have customers who have designed their own custom reports as well. Does anybody know the reason for these errors? Is there any solution or workaround to these problems?

    Read the article

  • Why doesn't every class in the .Net framework have a corresponding interface?

    - by Thorsten Lorenz
    Since I started to develop in a test/behavior driven style, I appreciated the ability to mock out every dependency. Since mocking frameworks like Moq work best when told to mock an interface, I now implement an interface for almost every class I create b/c most likely I will have to mock it out in a test eventually. Well, and programming to an interface is good practice, anyways. At times, my classes take dependencies on .Net classes (e.g. FileSystemWatcher, DispatcherTimer). It would be great in that case to have an interface, so I could depend on an IDispatcherTimer instead, to be able to pass it a mock and simulate its behavior to see if my system under test reacts correctly. Unfortunately both of above mentioned classes do not implement such interfaces, so I have to resort to creating adapters, that do nothing else but inherit from the original class and conform to an interface, that I then can use. Here is such an adapter for the DispatcherTimer and the corresponding interface: using System; using System.Windows.Threading; public interface IDispatcherTimer { #region Events event EventHandler Tick; #endregion #region Properties Dispatcher Dispatcher { get; } TimeSpan Interval { get; set; } bool IsEnabled { get; set; } object Tag { get; set; } #endregion #region Public Methods void Start(); void Stop(); #endregion } /// <summary> /// Adapts the DispatcherTimer class to implement the <see cref="IDispatcherTimer"/> interface. /// </summary> public class DispatcherTimerAdapter : DispatcherTimer, IDispatcherTimer { } Although this is not the end of the world, I wonder, why the .Net developers didn't take the minute to make their classes implement these interfaces from the get go. It puzzles me especially since now there is a big push for good practices from inside Microsoft. Does anyone have any (maybe inside) information why this contradiction exists?

    Read the article

  • How to deal with calculated values with Dependency Properties on a custom WPF control

    - by jpierson
    To summarize what I'm doing, I have a custom control that looks like a checked listbox and that has two dependency properties one that provides a list of available options and the other that represents a enum flag value that combines the selection options. So as I mentioned my custom control exposes two different DependencyProperties, one of which is a list of options called Options and the other property called SelectedOptions is of a specific Enum type that uses the [Flags] attribute to allow combinations of values to be set. My UserControl then contains an ItemsControl similar to a ListBox that is used to display the options along with a checkbox. When the check box is checked or unchecked the SelectedOptions property should be updated accordingly by using the corresponding bitwise operation. The problem I'm experiencing is that I have no way other than resorting to maintaining private fields and handling property change events to update my properties which just feels unatural in WPF. I have tried using ValueConverters but have run into the problem that I can't really using binding with the value converter binding so I would need to resort to hard coding my enum values as the ValueConverter parameter which is not acceptable. If anybody has seen a good example of how to do this sanely I would greatly appreciate any input. Side Note: This has been a problem I've had in the past too while trying to wrap my head around how dependency properties don't allow calculated or deferred values. Another example is when one may want to expose a property on a child control as a property on the parent. Most suggest in this case to use binding but that only works if the child controls property is a Dependency Property since placing the binding so that the target is the parent property it would be overwritten when the user of the parent control wants to set their own binding for that property.

    Read the article

  • Implementing BindingList<T>

    - by EtherealMonkey
    I am trying to learn more about BindingList because I believe that it will help me with a project that I am working on. Currently, I have an object class (ScannedImage) that is a subtype of a class (HashedImage) that subtypes a native .Net object (Image). There is no reason why I couldn't move the two subtypes together. I am simply subtyping an object that I had previously constructed, but I will now be storing my ScannedImage object in an RDB (well, not technically - only the details and probably the thumbnail). Also, the object class has member types that are my own custom types (Keywords). I am using a custom datagridview to present these objects, but am handling all changes to the ScannedImage object with my own code. As you can probably imagine, I have quite a few events to handle that occur in these base types. So, if I changed my object to implement INotifyPropertyChanged, would the object collection (implementing BindingList) receive notifications of changes to the ScannedImage object? Also, if Keywords were to implement INotifyPropertyChanged, would changes be accessible to the BindingList through the ScannedImage object? Sorry if this seems rather newbish. I only recently discovered the BindingList and not having formal training in C# programming - am having a difficult time moving forward with this. Also, if anyone has any good reference material, I would be thankful for links. Obviously, I have perused the MSDN Library. I have found a few good links on the web, but it seems that a lot of people are now using WPF and ObservableCollection. My project is based on Winforms and .Net3.5 framework. TIA

    Read the article

  • MooTools Event Delegation using HTML5 data attributes.

    - by Anurag
    Is it possible to have event delegation using the HTML5 data attributes in MooTools? The HTML structure I have is: ?<div id="parent"> <div>not selectable</div> <div data-selectable="true">selectable</div> <div>not selectable either.</div> <div data-selectable="true">also selectable</div> </div>???????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????? And I want to setup <div id="parent"> to listen to all clicks only on child elements that have the data-selected attribute. Please let me know if I'm doing something wrong: The events are being setup as: $("parent").addEvent("click:relay([data-selectable])", function(event, el) { alert(this.get('text')); }); but the click callback is fired on clicking all div's, not just the ones with a data-selectable attribute defined. You can see this example on http://jsfiddle.net/NUGD4/ A workaround is to adding this as a CSS class, which works with delegation but I would prefer to be able to use data-attributes as it's used throughout the application.

    Read the article

  • resolving overloads in boost.python

    - by swarfrat
    I have a C++ class like this: class ConnectionBase { public: ConnectionBase(); template <class T> Publish(const T&); private: virtual void OnEvent(const Overload_a&) {} virtual void OnEvent(const Overload_b&) {} }; My templates & overloads are a known fixed set of types at compile time. The application code derives from ConnectionBase and overrides OnEvent for the events it cares about. I can do this because the set of types is known. OnEvent is private because the user never calls it, the class creates a thread that calls it as a callback. The C++ code works. I have wrapped this in boost.python, I can import it and publish from python. I want do create the equivalent of the following in python : class ConnectionDerived { public: ConnectionDerived(); private: virtual void OnEvent(const Overload_b&) { // application code } }; But ... since python isn't typed, and all the boost.python examples I've seen dealing with internals are on the C++ side, I'm a little puzzled as to how to do this. How do I override specific overloads?

    Read the article

  • Objective-C Protocols within Protocols

    - by LucasTizma
    I recently began trying my hand at using protocols in my Objective-C development as an (obvious) means of delegating tasks more appropriately among my classes. I completely understand the basic notion of protocols and how they work. However, I came across a roadblock when trying to create a custom protocol that in turn implements another protocol. I since discovered the solution, but I am curious why the following DOES NOT work: @protocol STPickerViewDelegate < UIPickerViewDelegate > - ( void )customCallback; @end @interface STPickerView : UIPickerView { id < STPickerViewDelegate > delegate; } @property ( nonatomic, assign ) id < STPickerViewDelegate > delegate; @end Then in a view controller, which conforms to STPickerViewDelegate: STPickerView * pickerView = [ [ STPickerView alloc ] init ]; pickerView.delegate = self; - ( void )customCallback { ... } - ( NSString * )pickerView:( UIPickerView * )pickerView titleForRow:( NSInteger )row forComponent:( NSInteger )component { ... } The problem was that pickerView:titleForRow:forComponent: was never being called. On the other hand, customCallback was being called just fine, which isn't too surprising. I don't understand why STPickerViewDelegate, which itself conforms to UIPickerViewDelegate, does not notify my view controller when events from UIPickerViewDelegate are supposed to occur. Per my understanding of Apple's documentation, if a protocol (A) itself conforms to another protocol (B), then a class (C) that conforms to the first protocol (A) must also conform to the second protocol (B), which is exactly the behavior I want and expected. What I ended up doing was removing the id< STPickerViewDelegate > delegate property from STViewPicker and instead doing something like the following in my STViewPicker implementation where I want to evoke customCallback: if ( [ self.delegate respondsToSelector:@selector( customCallback ) ] ) { [ self.delegate performSelector:@selector( customCallback ) ]; } This works just fine, but I really am puzzled as to why my original approach did not work.

    Read the article

  • Anybody seen this behavior with Sql Server Reporting Services, a 64bit OS and an Oracle datasource?

    - by dkackman
    I'm working on a Sql Server Reporting Services solution that queries across both a Sql Server data source and an Oracle 10g data source. My dev box is Windows 7 64bit with Sql Server 2008R2 and I'm hosting IIS7 and SSRS on that system for development; using VS.NET for designing the reports. I have been having errors when running the report where SSRS complains about loading the 32 bit Oracle client in a 64bit process. There a number of threads out there about how to solve that. The thing is, they all come down to making sure you have the 64bit Oracle, client which I do. The weird chain of events I have goes like this: Create initial Oracle datasource and wire up report (it works) Edit Oracle datasource connection (it stops working with BadImageFormatException 32bit/64bit error message) uninstall and reinstall Oracle client (it works) Edit Oracle connection again (it stops working with BadImageFormatException 32bit/64bit error message) So short of reinstalling the client every time I change the connection string I am at a complete loss. Has anybody seen this sort of behavior? And if so what the heck am I doing wrong?

    Read the article

  • JQUERY: Setting Active state on animated menu tabs

    - by Tony
    I have image sprites that use JQuery to set the BG position on mouseover and mouseout events. When I set the active state BG position using JQUERY it works fine until I move my cursor away from the active 'tab' which then fires the mouseout event animation. What I want is the mouseClick event to stop the animation on the active tab but still allow the animation effect to work on the other tabs, and when another tab is clicked for the active state to be removed from the current tab to the new 'active' tab. JQuery $(function(){ /* This script changes main nav links hover state*/ $('.navigation a') .css( {backgroundPosition: "-1px -120px"} ) .mouseover(function(){ $(this).stop().animate({backgroundPosition:"(-1px -240px)"}, {duration:400}) }) .mouseout(function(){ $(this).stop().animate({backgroundPosition:"(-1px -120px)"}, {duration:400, complete:function (){ $(this).css({backgroundPosition: "-1px -120px"}) }}) }) }); $(document).ready(function(){ $("a").click(function(){ $(this).css({backgroundPosition: "-1px -235px"}); }); }); HTML <ul class="navigation"> <li><a href="#index" tabindex="10" title="Home" id="homeButton"></a></li> <li><a href="#about" tabindex="20" title="About us" id="aboutButton"></a></li> <li><a href="#facilities" tabindex="30" title="Our facilities and opening Times" id="facilitiesButton"></a></li> <li><a href="#advice" tabindex="40" title="Advice and useful links" c id="adviceButton"></a></li> <li><a href="#find" tabindex="50" title="How to find Us" id="findButton"></a></li> <li><a href="#contact" tabindex="60" title="Get in touch with us" id="contactButton"></a></li> </ul> You can see what I've got so far here Thanks in advance for any help

    Read the article

  • Getting browser to make an AJAX call ASAP, while page is still loading

    - by Chris
    I'm looking for tips on how to get the browser to kick off an AJAX call as soon as possible into processing a web page, ideally before the page is fully downloaded. Here's my approximate motivation: I have a web page that takes, say, 5 seconds to load. It calls a web service that takes, say, 10 seconds to load. If loading the page and calling the web service happened sequentially, the user would have to wait 15 seconds to see all the information. However, if I can get the web service call started before the 5 second page load is complete, then at least some of the work can happened in parallel. Ideally I'd like as much of the work to happen in parallel as possible. My initial theory was that I should place the AJAX-calling javascript as high up as possible in the web page HTML source (being mindful of putting it after the jquery.js include, because I'm making the call using jquery ajax). I'm also being mindful not to wrap the AJAX call in a jquery ready event handler. (I mention this because ready events are popular in a lot of jquery example code.) However, the AJAX call still doesn't seem to get kicked off as early as I'm hoping (at least as judged by the Google Chrome "Timeline" feature), so I'm wondering what other considerations apply. One thing that might potentially be detrimental is that the AJAX call is back to the same web server that's serving the original web page, so I might be in danger of hitting a browser limit on the # of HTTP connections back to that one machine? (The HTML page loads a number of images, css files, etc..)

    Read the article

  • Delphi threads deadlock

    - by Lobuno
    Hello! I am having a problem sometimes with a deadlock when destroying some threads. I've tried to debug the problem but the deadlock never seems to exist when debugging in the IDE, perhaps because of the low speed of the events in the ide. The problem: The main thread creates several threads when the application starts. The threads are always alive and synchronizing with the main thread. No problems at all. The threads are destroyed when the applcation ends (mainform.onclose) like this: thread1.terminate; thread1.waitfor; thread1.free; and so on. but some times one of the threads (which logs some string to a memo, using synchronize) will lock the whole application when closing. I suspect that the thread is synchronizing when I call waitform and the harmaggeddon happens, but that's is just a guess because the deadlock never happens when debbuging (or I've never been able to reproduce it anyway). Any advice?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 336 337 338 339 340 341 342 343 344 345 346 347  | Next Page >