Search Results

Search found 11674 results on 467 pages for 'adding'.

Page 341/467 | < Previous Page | 337 338 339 340 341 342 343 344 345 346 347 348  | Next Page >

  • Yet another Subversion "Commit failed" MERGE of 'blabla': 200 OK

    - by marty3d
    Hi! I get the infamous "MERGE of 'whatever': 200 OK" whenever I try to commit using a post-commit hook on Windows (running the repository and Trac locally), and I'm going crazy. I've been looking all over for a day now, without finding any solutions. So here's how it's set up and what I've tried so far: Settings: Windows 7 (64-bit) VisualSVN Server TortoiseSVN Trac 0.11.6 I'm using the three standard scripts for post-commit on Windows. Everything works when I run post-commit.cmd from the command prompt with repo and changesetnumber as parameters. After extensive trouble-shooting, I found that if I remove the last line in trac-post-commit.cmd, Python "%~dp0\trac-post-commit-hook.py" -p "%TRAC_ENV%" -r "%REV%" -u "%AUTHOR%" -m "%LOG%", the Commit failed error goes away. Adding 1/0 (generating a division by zero error) in the python script doesn't show anything different. From the command prompt I get an error, though. Removing all code in the python script also makes the commit failed go away, so I guess the culprit is in trac-post-commit-hook.py. Perhaps if I could send the actual error to a log file, I could dig a little deeper, but I'm not sure how. post-commit.cmd: call %~dp0\trac-post-commit-hook.cmd %1 %2 trac-post-commit-hook.cmd: http://trac.edgewall.org/browser/trunk/contrib/trac-post-commit-hook?rev=920 Thank you so much, it would mean alot if someone could assist a little here! /Martin

    Read the article

  • Silverlight async calls and anonymous methods....

    - by JLewis
    I know there are a couple of debates on this kind of thing.... At any rate, I have several cases where I need to populate combobox items based on enumerations returned from the WCF service. In an effort to keep code clean, I started this approach. After looking into it more, I don't think the this works as well is initially thought... I am throwing this out to get recommendations/advice/code snippets on how you would do this or how you currently do this. I may be forced to have a seperate, non anonymous method, procedure. I hate doing this for something like this but at the moment, don't see it working another way... EventHandler<GetEnumerationsForTypeCompletedEventArgs> ev = null; ev = delegate(object eventSender, GetEnumerationsForTypeCompletedEventArgs eventArgs) { if (eventArgs.Error == null) { //comboBox.ItemsSource = eventArgs.Result; // populate combox for display purposes (for now) foreach (Enumeration e in eventArgs.Result) { ComboBoxItem cbi = new ComboBoxItem(); cbi.Content = e.EnumerationValueDisplayed; comboBox.Items.Add(cbi); } // remove event so we don't keep adding new events each time we need an enumeration proxy.GetEnumerationsForTypeCompleted -= ev; } }; proxy.GetEnumerationsForTypeCompleted += ev; proxy.GetEnumerationsForTypeAsync(sEnumerationType); Basically in this example we use ev to hold the anonymous method so we can then use ev from within the method to remove it from the events once called. This prevents this method from getting called more than one time. I suspect that the comboBox local var declared before this call, but within the same method, is not always the combobox originally intended but can't really verify that yet. I may add a tag to it to do some tests and populating to verify. Sorry if this is not clear. I can elaborate more if needed. Thanks Jeff

    Read the article

  • How to call SQL Function with multiple parameters from C# web page

    - by Marshall
    I have an MS SQL function that is called with the following syntax: SELECT Field1, COUNT(*) AS RecordCount FROM GetDecileTable('WHERE ClientID = 7 AND LocationName = ''Default'' ', 10) The first parameter passes a specific WHERE clause that is used by the function for one of the internal queries. When I call this function in the front-end C# page, I need to send parameter values for the individual fields inside of the WHERE clause (in this example, both the ClientID & LocationName fields) The current C# code looks like this: String SQLText = "SELECT Field1, COUNT(*) AS RecordCount FROM GetDecileTable('WHERE ClientID = @ClientID AND LocationName = @LocationName ',10)"; SqlCommand Cmd = new SqlCommand(SQLText, SqlConnection); Cmd.Parameters.Add("@ClientID", SqlDbType.Int).Value = 7; // Insert real ClientID Cmd.Parameters.Add("@LocationName", SqlDbType.NVarChar(20)).Value = "Default"; // Real code uses Location Name from user input SqlDataReader reader = Cmd.ExecuteReader(); When I do this, I get the following code from SQL profiler: exec sp_executesql N'SELECT Field1, COUNT(*) as RecordCount FROM GetDecileTable (''WHERE ClientID = @ClientID AND LocationName = @LocationName '',10)', N'@ClientID int,@LocationID nvarchar(20)', @ClientID=7,@LocationName=N'Default' When this executes, SQL throws an error that it cannot parse past the first mention of @ClientID stating that the Scalar Variable @ClientID must be defined. If I modify the code to declare the variables first (see below), then I receive an error at the second mention of @ClientID that the variable already exists. exec sp_executesql N'DECLARE @ClientID int; DECLARE @LocationName nvarchar(20); SELECT Field1, COUNT(*) as RecordCount FROM GetDecileTable (''WHERE ClientID = @ClientID AND LocationName = @LocationName '',10)', N'@ClientID int,@LocationName nvarchar(20)', @ClientID=7,@LocationName=N'Default' I know that this method of adding parameters and calling SQL code from C# works well when I am selecting data from tables, but I am not sure how to embed parameters inside of the ' quote marks for the embedded WHERE clause being passed to the function. Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • How to invoke WPF Dispatcher in Nunit?

    - by Reporting Avatar
    I want to test an application which renders a text block with a data field value. I would like to get the actual width and actual height, once the rendering completes. Everything works fine. The problem came first, when I tried to test the application. I'm unable to invoke the dispatcher from the test project. Following is the code. this.Loaded += (s, e) => { TextBlock textBlock1 = new TextBlock(); //// Text block value is assigned from data base field. textBlock1.Text = strValueFromDataBaseField; //// Setting the wrap behavior. textBlock1.TextWrapping = TextWrapping.WrapWithOverflow; //// Adding the text block to the layout canvas. this.layoutCanvas.Children.Add(textBlock1); this.Dispatcher.BeginInvoke(DispatcherPriority.Background, (Action)(() => { //// After rendering the text block with the data base field value. Measuring the actual width and height. this.TextBlockActualWidth = textBlock1.ActualWidth; this.TextBlockActualHeight = textBlock1.ActualHeight; //// Other calculations based on the actual widht and actual height. } )); }; I've just started using the NUnit. So, please help me. Thanks

    Read the article

  • Getting the current EnvDTE or IServiceProvider when NOT coding an Addin

    - by Vaccano
    I am coding up some design time code. I want to use this snippet: (Found here) var dte = (EnvDTE.DTE) GetService(typeof(EnvDTE.DTE)); if (dte != null) { var solution = dte.Solution; if (solution != null) { string baseDir = Path.GetDirectoryName(solution.FullName); } } Problem is that this does not compile. (GetService is not a known method call) I tried adding Microsoft.VisualStudio.Shell (and Microsoft.VisualStudio.Shell.10.0) but it did not help. In looking around on the internet I found that you need a IServiceProvider to call this. But all the examples that show how to get an IServiceProvider use a EnvDTE. So, to get the current EnvDTE I need IServiceProvider. But to get an IServiceProvider I need an EnvDTE. (There is a hole in my bucket...) So, here is my question: In a normal WPF Application, how can I get the current instance of EnvDTE? NOTE: I am not looking for any old instance of EnvDTE. I need the one for my current Visual Studio instance (I run 3-4 instances of Visual Studio at a time.)

    Read the article

  • MVC App Works in Visual Studio, but not IIS7

    - by kesh
    Working on a an ASP.NET MVC Project, and I'm having some difficulties deploying to a shared dev server. Locally, when debugging using the local Visual Studio 2008 server, everything works peachy. However, once deployed, I receive the following error: Parser Error Description: An error occurred during the parsing of a resource required to service this request. Please review the following specific parse error details and modify your source file appropriately.## Heading ## Parser Error Message: Unable to find an entry point named 'BCryptGetFipsAlgorithmMode' in DLL 'bcrypt.dll'. Source Error: Line 1: <%@ Application Codebehind="Global.asax.cs" Inherits="APPLICATION_NAME.Web.MvcApplication" Language="C#" %> Source File: /APPLICATION_NAME/global.asax Line: 1 Version Information: Microsoft .NET Framework Version:2.0.50727.4927; ASP.NET Version:2.0.50727.4927 In the error log: Event sequence: 1 Event occurrence: 1 Event detail code: 0 Application information: Application domain: /LM/W3SVC/1/ROOT/APPLICATION_NAME-4-128995312096183595 Trust level: Full Application Virtual Path: /APPLICATION_NAME Application Path: E:\PROJECTS\APPLICATION\APPLICATION_NAME\APPLICATION_NAME\app\APPLICATION_NAME.Web\ Machine name: PC Process information: Process ID: 4608 Process name: w3wp.exe Account name: IIS APPPOOL\DefaultAppPool Exception information: Exception type: HttpException Exception message: Unable to find an entry point named 'BCryptGetFipsAlgorithmMode' in DLL 'bcrypt.dll'. Request information: Request URL: http://localhost/APPLICATION_NAME Request path: /APPLICATION_NAME User host address: ::1 User: Is authenticated: False Authentication Type: Thread account name: IIS APPPOOL\DefaultAppPool Thread information: Thread ID: 6 Thread account name: IIS APPPOOL\DefaultAppPool Is impersonating: False Stack trace: at System.Web.Compilation.BuildManager.ReportTopLevelCompilationException() at System.Web.Compilation.BuildManager.EnsureTopLevelFilesCompiled() at System.Web.Hosting.HostingEnvironment.Initialize(ApplicationManager appManager, IApplicationHost appHost, IConfigMapPathFactory configMapPathFactory, HostingEnvironmentParameters hostingParameters) Custom event details: After finding the deployment error, I tried adding an application locally, and that seems to result in the same application. On my local dev machine, I'm using Windows 7 RTM (x64), and on the shared server I'm running Windows Server 2008 Standard (x86). Poked around, and my FIPS encryption in Local Security Policy is disabled, so I'm at a bit of a loss.

    Read the article

  • Error in ASP.NET MVC 2 View after Upgrading from ASP.NET 4.0 RC to RTM

    - by Chris
    In my View, I am trying to loop through a list in a LINQ object that as part of my View Model. This worked fine earlier today with the VS2010 RC and the .NET 4.0 RC. <% if (Model.User.RoleList.Count > 0 ) { %> <% foreach (var role in Model.User.RoleList) { %> <%: role.Name %><br /> <% } %> <% } else { %> <em>None</em><br /> <% } %> It used to happily spew out a list of the role names. No data or code has changed. Simply the software upgrades from RC to RTM. The error I am getting is this: \Views\Users\Details.aspx(67): error CS0012: The type 'System.Data.Linq.EntitySet`1' is defined in an assembly that is not referenced. You must add a reference to assembly 'System.Data.Linq, Version=4.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b77a5c561934e089'. But System.Data.Linq IS referenced. I see it there in the references list. I tried deleting it and re-adding it but I get the same error. Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • How to stream partial content with ASP.NET MVC FileStreamResult

    - by o_o
    We're using a FileStreamResult to provide video data to a Silverlight MediaElement based video player: public ActionResult Preview(Guid id) { return new FileStreamResult( Services.AssetStore.GetStream(id, ContentType.Preview), "application/octet-stream"); } Unfortunately, the Silverlight video player downloads the entire video file before it starts playing. This behavior is expected as our Preview Action does not support downloading partial content. (side note: if the file is hosted in an IIS virtual directory we can start playback at any location in the video while it is still downloading. however for security and auditing reasons we can't provide a direct download link. so this is not an option.) How can we improve the Controller Action to support partial HTTP content? I assume we first have to inform the client that we support it (adding an "Accept-Ranges:bytes" header to a HEAD request), then we have to evaluate the HTTP "Range" header and stream the requested file range with a response code of 206. Will that work with ASP.NET MVC hosted on IIS6? Is there already some code available? Also see: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_HTTP_headers http://blogs.msdn.com/anilkumargupta/archive/2009/04/29/downloadprogress-downloadprogressoffset-and-bufferprogress-of-the-mediaelement.aspx http://benramsey.com/archives/206-partial-content-and-range-requests/

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET Update Panel with CheckBox - Not Working Properly

    - by rwponu
    I'm working on a simple demo project so that I can learn some things about ASP.NET's AJAX capabilities. My problem is that I can't seem to get an UpdatePanel to work properly with a CheckBox inside of it. Here is the markup I'm using in my .aspx file: <asp:ScriptManager ID="SM1" runat="server" /> <asp:UpdatePanel ID="UpdatePanel1" runat="server" UpdateMode="Conditional"> <ContentTemplate> <tr> <td><asp:CheckBox ID="chkPaypal" runat="server" Text="Paypal" OnCheckedChanged="PayPal_CheckedChanged" AutoPostBack="true" /></td> </tr> <asp:Panel ID="pnlPayPal" runat="server" Visible="false"> <tr> <td>&nbsp;&nbsp;<asp:Label runat="server" ID="lblPaypalEmail" Text="Email:" /></td> <td><asp:TextBox runat="server" ID="tbPaypalEmail" Text="" Width="250px" /></td> </tr> <tr><td>&nbsp;</td></tr> </asp:Panel> </ContentTemplate> <Triggers> <asp:ASyncPostBackTrigger ControlID="chkPayPal" /> </Triggers> </asp:UpdatePanel> In my code behind, I'm simply saying: protected void PayPal_CheckedChanged(object sender, EventArgs e) { pnlPayPal.Visible = true; } Instead of making the panel visible as I anticipate, it is adding another "PayPal" checkbox at the top of the page. Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • Flex 3.5.0; Update ComboBox display list upon dataprovider change

    - by Gabriel Poama-Neagra
    Hello, I have two related ComboBoxes ( continents, and countries ). When the continents ComboBox changes I request a XML from a certain URL. When I receive that XML i change the DataProvider for the countries ComboBox, like this: public function displayCountryArray( items:XMLList ):void { this.resellersCountryLoader.alpha = 0; this.resellersCountry.dataProvider = items; this.resellersCountry.dispatchEvent( new ListEvent( ListEvent.CHANGE ) ); } I dispatch the ListEvent.CHANGE because I use it to change another ComboBox so please ignore that (and the 1st line ). So, my problem is this: I select "ASIA" from the first continents, then the combobox DATA get's updated ( I can see that because the first ITEM is an item with the label '23 countries' ). I click the combo then I can see the countries. NOW, I select "Africa", the first item is displayed, with the ComboBox being closed, then when I click it, the countries are still the ones from Asia. Anyway, if I click an Item in the list, then the list updates correctly, and also, it has the correct info ( as I said it affects other ComboBoxes ). SO the only problem is that the display list does not get updated. In this function I tried these approaches Converting XMLList to XMLCollection and even ArrayCollection Adding this.resellersCountry.invalidateDisplayList(); Triggering events like DATA_CHANGE and UPDATE_COMPLETE I know they don't make much sense, but I got a little desperate. Please note that when I used 3.0.0 SDK this did not happen. Sorry if I'm stupid, but the flex events are killing me.

    Read the article

  • Entity Data Model & DataGridView - Creating new objects

    - by AcousticBoom
    I'm pretty new to the EDM, so bear with me. I have a windows form that has a DataGridView on it that's bound from the EDM I created. I figured out how to update my changes fine, but it's when the user creates a new row that I'm having a problem. I tried numerous ways and many google searches, but came up with nothing so far. Here's how the data is loaded: Dim boilerID As Integer = DirectCast(ddlBoiler.SelectedValue, Integer) Dim countryID As Integer = DirectCast(ddlCountry.SelectedValue, Integer) Dim ratings = From r In _Context.Rating _ Where r.Boiler.Boiler_ID = boilerID _ And r.Country.Country_ID = countryID _ Order By r.Sequence _ Select r RatingBindingSource.DataSource = ratings.ToList() Also, all I'm doing to save the information right now is the following: Private Sub btnSave_Click(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles btnSave.Click _Context.SaveChanges() End Sub I want the user to be able to use the grid's "new row" feature to add new items to the database instead of having to click a button and open a new dialog. How would this be accomplished? I can include some of the methods i tried for adding new items if anyone needs to see. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Problem using Flash Components in multiple SWC files

    - by Ken Dunnington
    [Edit: Short version - how do you properly handle namespace collisions in SWC files if one SWC has fewer classes from that namespace than another?] I have a rather large Flash application which I'm building in Flash Builder (because coding/debugging in the Flash IDE is... not good) and I've got a ton of external SWC files which I'm linking in to my application. This has worked well so far - the file size is on the large side, but it's a lot simpler than loading in SWFs, especially since I am extending most of the classes in each SWC and adding custom code that way (it's a very design-heavy app.) The problem I'm having is when I have Flash Components, like ComboBox or TextInput, in more than one SWC. Whichever SWC was compiled last will work fine, but the others will fail with errors like the following: TypeError: Error #1034: Type Coercion failed: cannot convert flash.display::MovieClip@1f21adc1 to fl.controls.TextInput. at flash.display::Sprite/constructChildren() at flash.display::Sprite() at flash.display::MovieClip() at com.company.design.login::LoginForm() at com.company.view::Login()[/Users/ken/Workspace/src/com/company/view/Login.as:22] at com.company.view::Main/showLogin()[/Users/ken/Workspace/src/com/company/view/Main.as:209] at flash.events::EventDispatcher/dispatchEventFunction() at flash.events::EventDispatcher/dispatchEvent() at com.company.view::Navigation/handleUIClick()[/Users/ken/Workspace/src/com/company/view/Navigation.as:88] I've been researching components, ComponentShim, etc. but I'm running up against a brick wall. I thought it might be the fact that some of the components had their skins modified in the source FLA, so I tried replacing them with the default skins, but that didn't seem to help. How can I ensure that I have the components imported and available to all my classes, yet still be able to skin them and include them in my various FLAs? (I am never creating new instances of them, they are all laid out by my designer.)

    Read the article

  • Defining reliable SIlverlight 4 architecture

    - by doteneter
    Hello everybody, It's my first question on SO. I know that there were many topics on Silverlight and architecture but didn't find answers that satisfies me. I'm ASP.NET MVC developer and are used to work on architectures built with the best practices (loose coupling with DI, etc.) Now I'm faced to the new Silverlight 4 project and would like to be sure I'm doing the best choices as I'm not experienced. Main features required by the applications are as follows : use existing SQL Server Database but with possibility to move to the cloud. using EF4 for the data acess with SQL Server. exitensibility : adding new modules without changing the main host. loose coupling. I was looking at different webcasts (Taulty, etc.), blogs about Silverlight and came up with the following architecture. EF 4 for data access (as specified with the requirements) WCF RIA Services for mid-tiers controling access to data for queries and enabling end-to-end support for data validation, authentication and roles. MEF Support for enabling modules. Unity 2.0 for DI. The problem is that I don't know how to define a reliable architecture where all these elements play well together. Should I use a framework instead like Prism or Caliburn? But for now I'm not sure what scenarios they support. What's the best usages for Unity in Silverlight ? I used to use IoC in ASP.NET MVC for loos coupling and other things like interception for audit logging. It seems that for Silverlight Unity doesn't support Interception. I would like to use it to enable loose coupling and to enable to move to the cloud if needed. Thanks in advance for your help.

    Read the article

  • HTML text input and using the input as a variable in a script(tcl)/sql(sqlite)

    - by Fantastic Fourier
    Hello all, I'm very VERY new at this whole web thing. And I'm just very confused in general. Basically, what I want to do is take an input via text using HTML and adding that input to database, table trans. Should be simple but I am lost. <li>Transaction Number</li> <li><input type=|text| name=|tnumber| </li> // do i need to use value? <li>Employee Name</li> <li><input type=|text| name=|ename| </li> <li><input type=|SUBMIT| value=|Add|></li> ...... ...... sqlite3 db $::env(ROOT)/database.db mb eval {INSERT INTO trans VALUES ($tnumber, $ename} mb close They are both in a same file and there are only two fields to the database to keep things simple. What I can see here is that tnumber and ename aren't declared as variables. So how do I do that so that the text input is assigned to respective variables?

    Read the article

  • Mercurial hg Subrepository Problem - "abort: unknown revision'

    - by Tex
    Note: I asked this yesterday over at kiln.stackexchange.com, but haven't gotten an answer, and it's holding up my work. So I figured I'd give it a shot here. My main mercurial repository has a bunch of subrepositories in it. During initial setup, I made a mistake in my .hgsub. Namely, I pointed two subrepositories to the same directory. What I should have had: sites/1=sites/1 sites/2=sites/2 sites/3=sites/3 What I actually had: sites/1=sites/1 sites/2=sites/2 sites/2=sites/3 Stupid copy/paste error. I committed the incorrect .hgsub, not realizing my error. A few revisions later, while adding a some new subrespositories to .hgsub, I noticed the mistake and fixed it inside .hgsub. I committed and kept rolling along. I've committed a reasonable amount of work that I'd prefer not to redo since I 'fixed' the mistake in .hgsub. Now we come to the actual problem: I've made some changes inside the subrepository sites/3, and when I try to commit the main repository, I get the following error: abort: unknown revision 'LongGUIDLookingString' I found this discussion, which seems to address the same problem I'm having, but I can't quite work out how bos fixed it. What do I need to do in order to fix this?

    Read the article

  • How to add a default value to a custom ASP.NET Profile property

    - by mr.moses
    I know you can add defaultValues using the web.config like this: <profile> <properties> <add name="AreCool" type="System.Boolean" defaultValue="False" /> </properties> </profile> but I have the Profile inherited from a class: <profile inherits="CustomProfile" defaultProvider="CustomProfileProvider" enabled="true"> <providers> <clear /> <add name="CustomProfileProvider" type="CustomProfileProvider" /> </providers> </profile> Heres the class: Public Class CustomProfile Inherits ProfileBase Public Property AreCool() As Boolean Get Return Me.GetPropertyValue("AreCool") End Get Set(ByVal value As Boolean) Me.SetPropertyValue("AreCool", value) End Set End Property End Class I don't know how to set the default value of the property. Its causing errors because without a default value, it uses an empty string, which cannot be converted to a Boolean. I tried adding <DefaultSettingValue("False")> _ but that didn't seem to make a difference. I'm also using a custom ProfileProvider (CustomProfileProvider).

    Read the article

  • Understanding asp.net mvc IView and IView.Render

    - by Harpreet
    I'm trying to devise a method of doing VERY simple asp.net mvc plugins but mostly I'm trying to understand how view rendering works. I've distilled my problem down to this public class CustomView : IView { public void Render(ViewContext viewContext, TextWriter writer) { writer.Write( /* string to render */); } } Now, within that write method I can render any string to the view but when I put a line of code in there wrapped with <% % it renders the code to the view literally rather than parsing it and executing it. I've tried adding things like <% @Page ... to the beginning of the string and it just renders that literally as well. Among many attempts I'm currently calling it this way within a controller action: ... CustomView customView = new CustomView(); ViewResult result = new ViewResult(); result.View = customView; result.ViewName = "Index.aspx"; result.MasterName = ""; return result; What am I missing or doing wrong that this won't work? The ViewResult seems to have the WebFormViewEngine in its ViewEngines collection. I just want to understand this and after stripping it down to what I think should be the minimum it doesn't behave as I think it should. I'm guessing some other part of the machinery is involved/missing but I can't figure out what.

    Read the article

  • Try to use Window.FEATURU_CUSTOM_TITLE but got Exception:You cannot combine custom titles with other

    - by xueru
    I am trying to use a custom title to include an image button to the title bar. I got a lot of help form this post: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2569753/android-adding-button-to-the-title-of-the-app, but could not get it work for my ListActivity. In a nutshell, following is what I have: I hide the titlebar in the AndroidManifest.xml The specify a relative layout for the custom title (workorder_list_titlebar.xml) My Activity Class looks like the following: public class WorkOrderListActivity extends ListActivity { String[] orders={"WO-12022009", "WO-12302009", "WO-02122010", "02152010"}; @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); requestWindowFeature(Window.FEATURE_CUSTOM_TITLE); this.getWindow().setFeatureInt(Window.FEATURE_CUSTOM_TITLE, R.layout.workorder_list_titlebar); setContentView(R.layout.workorder_list); setListAdapter(new ArrayAdapter(this,R.layout.workorder_list, R.id.label,orders)); } } When I ran the app, I got AndroidRuntimeException: You cannot combine custom titles with other title features. Base on the stack trace, the exception was thrown by com.android.internal.policy.impl.PhoneWindow.requestFeature(PhoneWindow.java:183), that was triggered by setlistAdapter call. Does anyone have the same problem with ListActivity? Also once I manage to get this work, how do I attach listeners to the image button for it to do something? Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • How do you write Valid XHTML 1.0 Strict code when you are using javascript to fill an element that r

    - by Tim Visher
    I'm running my site through the W3C's validator trying to get it to validate as XHTML 1.0 Strict and I've gotten down to a particularly sticky (at least in my experience) validation error. I'm including certain badges from various services in the site that provide their own API and code for inclusion on an external site. These badges use javascript (for the most part) to fill an element that you insert in the markup which requires a child. This means that in the end, perfectly valid markup is generated, but to the validator, all it sees is an incomplete parent-child tag which it then throws an error on. As a caveat, I understand that I could complain to the services that their badges don't validate. Sans this, I assume that someone has validated their code while including badges like this, and that's what I'm interested in. Answers such as, 'Complain to Flickr about their badge' aren't going to help me much. An additional caveat: I would prefer that as much as possible the markup remains semantic. I.E. Adding an empty li tag or tr-td pair to make it validate would be an undesirable solution, even though it may be necessary. If that's the only way it can be made to validate, oh well, but please lean answers towards semantic markup. As an example: <div id="twitter_div"> <h2><a href="http://twitter.com/stopsineman">@Twitter</a></h2> <ul id="twitter_update_list"> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://twitter.com/javascripts/blogger.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://twitter.com/statuses/user_timeline/stopsineman.json?callback=twitterCallback2&amp;count=1"></script> </ul> </div> Notice the ul tags wrapping the javascript. This eventually gets filled in with lis via the script, but to the validator it only sees the unpopulated ul. Thanks in advance!

    Read the article

  • Creating an Ajax.ActionLink that avoids all caching issues

    - by Richard Ev
    I am using an Ajax.ActionLink to display a partial view that shows a settings dialog (the modality of which is arranged using jQuery UI dialog). The issue I am running into is around browser caching. It is important that the user is never shown a cached settings dialog. In an attempt to achieve this I have written the following extension method that has the same method signature as the ActionLink method overload that I am using. /// <summary> /// Defines an AJAX ActionLink that effectively bypasses browser caching issues /// by adding an additional route value that contains a unique (actually DateTime.Now.Ticks) value. /// </summary> public static MvcHtmlString NonCachingActionLink(this AjaxHelper helper, string linkText, string actionName, string controllerName, System.Web.Routing.RouteValueDictionary routeValues, AjaxOptions ajaxOptions) { routeValues.Add("rnd", DateTime.Now.Ticks); return helper.ActionLink(linkText, actionName, controllerName, routeValues, ajaxOptions); } This works well between browser sessions (as the rnd route value gets re-calculated on page load), but not if the user is on the page, makes settings changes, saves them (which is done with another ajax call) and then re-displays the settings dialog. My next step is to look into creating my own ActionLink equivalent that re-calculates a random query string component as part of the onclick JavaScript event handler. Thoughts please.

    Read the article

  • Loading JNI lib on OSX?

    - by Clinton
    Background So I am attempting to load a jnilib (specifically JOGL) into java on OSX at runtime. I have been following along the relevant stackoverflow questions: Maven and the JOGL Library Loading DLL in Java - Eclipse - JNI How to make a jar file that include all jar files The end goal for me is to package platform specific JOGL files into a jar and unzip them into a temp directory and load them at start-up. I worked my problem back to simply attempting to load JOGL using hard-coded paths: File f = new File("/var/folders/+n/+nfb8NHsHiSpEh6AHMCyvE+++TI/-Tmp-/libjogl.jnilib"); System.load(f.toString()); f = new File ("/var/folders/+n/+nfb8NHsHiSpEh6AHMCyvE+++TI/-Tmp-/libjogl_awt.jnilib"); System.load(f.toString()); I get the following exception when attempting to use the JOGL API: Exception in thread "main" java.lang.UnsatisfiedLinkError: no jogl in java.library.path But when I specify java.library.path by adding the following JVM option: -Djava.library.path="/var/folders/+n/+nfb8NHsHiSpEh6AHMCyvE+++TI/-Tmp-/" Everything works fine. Question Is it possible use System.load (or some other variant) on OSX as a replacement for -Djava.library.path that is invoked at runtime?

    Read the article

  • C# inaccurate timer?

    - by Ivan
    Hi there, I'm developing an application and I need to get the current date from a server (it differs from the machine's date). I receive the date from the server and with a simple Split I create a new DateTime: globalVars.fec = new DateTime(DateTime.Now.Year, DateTime.Now.Month, DateTime.Now.Day, int.Parse(infoHour[0]), int.Parse(infoHour[1]), int.Parse(infoHour[2])); globalVars is a class and fec is a public static variable so that I can access it anywhere in the application (bad coding I know...). Now I need to have a timer checking if that date is equal to some dates I have stored in a List and if it is equal I just call a function. List<DateTime> fechas = new List<DateTime>(); Before having to obtain the date from a server I was using computer's date, so to check if the dates matched I was using this: private void timerDatesMatch_Tick(object sender, EventArgs e) { DateTime tick = DateTime.Now; foreach (DateTime dt in fechas) { if (dt == tick) { //blahblah } } } Now I have the date from the server so DateTime.Now can't be used here. Instead I have created a new timer with Interval=1000 and on tick I'm adding 1 second to globalVars.fec using: globalVars.fec = globalVars.fec.AddSeconds(1); But the clock isn't accurate and every 30 mins the clock loses about 30 seconds. Is there another way of doing what I'm trying to do? I've thought about using threading.timer instead but I need to have access to other threads and non-static functions. Thanks in advance, Ivan

    Read the article

  • How to Put Javascript into an ASP.NET MVC View

    - by Maxim Z.
    I'm really new to ASP.NET MVC, and I'm trying to integrate some Javascript into a website I'm making as a test of this technology. My question is this: how can I insert Javascript code into a View? Let's say that I start out with the default ASP.NET MVC template. In terms of Views, this creates a Master page, a "Home" View, and an "About" view. The "Home" View, called Index.aspx, looks like this: <%@ Page Language="C#" MasterPageFile="~/Views/Shared/Site.Master" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewPage" %> <asp:Content ID="indexTitle" ContentPlaceHolderID="TitleContent" runat="server"> Home Page </asp:Content> <asp:Content ID="indexContent" ContentPlaceHolderID="MainContent" runat="server"> <h2><%= Html.Encode(ViewData["Message"]) %></h2> <p> To learn more about ASP.NET MVC visit <a href="http://asp.net/mvc" title="ASP.NET MVC Website">http://asp.net/mvc</a>. </p> <p>Welcome to this testing site!</p> </asp:Content> Adding a <script> tag here didn't work. Where and how should I do it? P.S.: I have a feeling I'm missing something very basic... Thanks in advance!

    Read the article

  • Multiple CodeSnippet in an XML .snippet file

    - by Frinavale
    I'm attempting to supplement the help features for my code by providing other developers with code snippets. These produce skeletons of code which demonstrate how to use/call my classes or methods. I've created a .snippet file and have placed it in the "%Visual Studio Folder%\Code Snippets\Visual Basic\My Snippets" folder. I've used the Code Snippets Manager and ensured that it included this folder so that I can access the snippets. Everything works well when I have 1 CodeSnippet tag within the root CodeSnippets tag.... When I add more than one CodeSnippet tag to the file (each with their own title, and their own code example) I'm experiencing something strange. The first CodeSnippet I've added contains code for adding something to my system, the second contains code for editing something in my system, and the third deleting something from the system. When I use the code snippet by right clicking and selecting "Insert Code Snippet", only the first code snippet in the file shows up as an option. When I select it, the code in the first CodeSnippet is inserted....but so is the code within the other CodeSnippet tags. Do you have to have a separate XML .snippet file for each code snippet you want to make available? After reading through MSDN about creating Code Snippets I was under the impression that this could all be done within one file. It seems that I'm not understanding something very basic here and would love to find the answer but apparently Code Snippets are under used so finding the answer has proven to be a little trickier than I first thought it would be. Thanks, -Frinny

    Read the article

  • Flex HTMLLoader component not raising mouseDown events for all mouse clicks

    - by shane
    I have built a Air 2/Flex 4 kiosk application with Flash Builder 4. Currently I am implementing a touch screen browser to enable users to navigate company training videos. In an attempt to improve the usability of the website on the touchscreen I have placed the HTML component in an adaption of Doug McCune's DragScrollingCanvas (updated to use the flex 4 'Scroller' component) to allow users to scroll the webpage by dragging their finger across the screen. The mouseDown event is used to start scrolling the viewport. In addition the webpage was modified to disable text selection with the following css: html { -webkit-user-select: none; cursor: default; } The problem I face is that the HTMLLoader component only fires a mouseDown if a link/input/button on the webpage is clicked, not when the background or any text is clicked. In addition if I remove the custom css the mouseDown event will not fire when text is being selected, but will if previously highlighted text is clicked. As an alternative I also tried adding a group container with the same dimensions as the HTMLLoader to detect the mouseDown events (so that the group container and HTMLLoader have the same Dragable parent container) and was able to capture mouseDown events and scroll the viewport as expected. However as the mouse event is handled by the group container, I am now unable to navigate the webpage. Does anybody know why the HTMLLoader component is not raising mouseDown events for all mouse clicks?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 337 338 339 340 341 342 343 344 345 346 347 348  | Next Page >