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• Is there a way to make changes to toggles in my .emacs file apply without re-starting Emacs?

  - by Vivi

  I want to be able to make the changes to my .emacs file without having to reload Emacs. I found three questions which sort of answer what I am asking (you can find them here, here and here), but the problem is that the change I have just made is to a toggle, and as the comments to two of the answers (a1, a2) to those questions explain, the solutions given there (such as M-x reload-file or M-x eval-buffer) don't apply to toggles. I imagine there is a way of toggling the variable again with a command, but if there is a way to reload the whole .emacs and have the all the toggles re-evaluated without having to specify them, I would prefer. In any case, I would also appreciate if someone told me how to toggle the value of a variable so that if I just changed one toggle I can do it with a command rather than re-start Emacs just for that (I am new to Emacs). I don't know how useful this information is, but the change I applied was the following (which I got from this answer to another question): (setq skeleton-pair t) (setq skeleton-pair-on-word t) (global-set-key (kbd "[") 'skeleton-pair-insert-maybe) (global-set-key (kbd "(") 'skeleton-pair-insert-maybe) (global-set-key (kbd "{") 'skeleton-pair-insert-maybe) (global-set-key (kbd "<") 'skeleton-pair-insert-maybe) Edit: I included the above in .emacs and reloaded Emacs, so that the changes took effect. Then I commented all of it out and tried M-x load-file. This doesn't work. The suggestion below (C-x C-e by PP works if I am using it to evaluate the toggle first time, but not when I want to undo it). I would like something that would evaluate the commenting out, if such thing exists... Thanks :)

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• Building/Testing a Universal iPhone/iPad application

  - by psychotik

  I have a project configured (I think) to produce Universal binaries. The base SDK is set to 3.2 and the Deployment Target is set to 3.1. Target Device Family is iPhone/iPad and the architecture is armv6 armv7. I had a few questions about how this Universal binary thing really works: 1) When I want to submit an app binary for review, what configuration should I set as the build target? If I set it as "Device - 3.1" I get a warning which says "warning: building with Targeted Device Family" that includes iPad('1,2') requires building with the 3.2 or later SDK". However, if I build with SDK 3.2, will it still run on iPhones with OS 3.1? What's the right configuration for device and architecture (arm6/arm7)? 2) How do I test the scenario above (built with SDK 3.2, but installed on a device running OS 3.1)? If I build with SDK 3.2, when I try to install it on a phone with OS 3.1, I get an error saying that the phone's OS isn't updated. Thanks!

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• pagination in jsf

  - by gurupriyan.e

  I would like your comments and suggestion on this. I am doing the pagination for a page in jsf. The datatable is bound to a Backing Bean property through the "binding" attribute. I have 2 boolean variables to determine whether to render 'Prev' and 'Next' Button - which is displayed below the datatable. When either the 'Prev' or 'Next' button is clicked, In the backing bean I get the bound dataTable property and through which i get the "first" and "rows" attribute of the datatable and change accordingly. I display 5 rows in the page. Please comment and suggest if there any better ways. btw, I am not interested in any JSF Component libraries but stick to only core html render kit. public String goNext() { UIData htdbl = getBrowseResultsHTMLDataTable1(); setShowPrev(true); //set Rows "0" or "5" if(getDisplayResults().size() - (htdbl.getFirst() +5)>5 ) { htdbl.setRows(5);//display 5 rows }else if (getDisplayResults().size() - (htdbl.getFirst() +5)<=5) { htdbl.setRows(0);//display all rows (which are less than 5) setShowNext(false); } //set First htdbl.setFirst(htdbl.getFirst()+5); return "success"; } public String goPrev() { setShowNext(true); UIData htdbl = getBrowseResultsHTMLDataTable1(); //set First htdbl.setFirst(htdbl.getFirst()-5); if(htdbl.getFirst()==0) { setShowPrev(false); } //set Rows - always display 5 htdbl.setRows(5);//display 5 rows return "success"; }

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• MySQL: order by and limit gives wrong result

  - by Larry K

  MySQL ver 5.1.26 I'm getting the wrong result with a select that has where, order by and limit clauses. It's only a problem when the order by uses the id column. I saw the MySQL manual for LIMIT Optimization My guess from reading the manual is that there is some problem with the index on the primary key, id. But I don't know where I should go from here... Question: what should I do to best solve the problem? Works correctly: mysql> SELECT id, created_at FROM billing_invoices WHERE (billing_invoices.account_id = 5) ORDER BY id DESC ; +------+---------------------+ | id | created_at | +------+---------------------+ | 1336 | 2010-05-14 08:05:25 | | 1334 | 2010-05-06 08:05:25 | | 1331 | 2010-05-05 23:18:11 | +------+---------------------+ 3 rows in set (0.00 sec) WRONG result when limit added! Should be the first row, id - 1336 mysql> SELECT id, created_at FROM billing_invoices WHERE (billing_invoices.account_id = 5) ORDER BY id DESC limit 1; +------+---------------------+ | id | created_at | +------+---------------------+ | 1331 | 2010-05-05 23:18:11 | +------+---------------------+ 1 row in set (0.00 sec) Works correctly: mysql> SELECT id, created_at FROM billing_invoices WHERE (billing_invoices.account_id = 5) ORDER BY created_at DESC ; +------+---------------------+ | id | created_at | +------+---------------------+ | 1336 | 2010-05-14 08:05:25 | | 1334 | 2010-05-06 08:05:25 | | 1331 | 2010-05-05 23:18:11 | +------+---------------------+ 3 rows in set (0.01 sec) Works correctly with limit: mysql> SELECT id, created_at FROM billing_invoices WHERE (billing_invoices.account_id = 5) ORDER BY created_at DESC limit 1; +------+---------------------+ | id | created_at | +------+---------------------+ | 1336 | 2010-05-14 08:05:25 | +------+---------------------+ 1 row in set (0.01 sec) Additional info: explain SELECT id, created_at FROM billing_invoices WHERE (billing_invoices.account_id = 5) ORDER BY id DESC limit 1; +----+-------------+------------------+-------+--------------------------------------+--------------------------------------+---------+------+------+-------------+ | id | select_type | table | type | possible_keys | key | key_len | ref | rows | Extra | +----+-------------+------------------+-------+--------------------------------------+--------------------------------------+---------+------+------+-------------+ | 1 | SIMPLE | billing_invoices | range | index_billing_invoices_on_account_id | index_billing_invoices_on_account_id | 4 | NULL | 3 | Using where | +----+-------------+------------------+-------+--------------------------------------+--------------------------------------+---------+------+------+-------------+

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• Sencha touch 2/ app workflow with navigation view

  - by eplatonov

  I am trying to understand how can I implement the same functionality which provides navigation view in sencha touch 2, but .... Each item of the 'Ext.NavigationView' component should have it's own unique set of 'navigationBar' elements. I mean set of buttons, for example. I know that I can do something like this: this.getMain().getNavigationBar().rightBox.removeAll(); this.getMain().getNavigationBar().rightBox.add(this.getSettingButton()); //where 'getSettingButton' predefined by me a button And do this action each time when 'push' event happens (clear 'navigationBar' and add appropriate set of buttons) Of course, I even can implement 'Ext.Panel' with 'layout: card' and set of 'Ext.panel' elements in the 'items' property, each of which will be have unique 'toolbar'. To control the behavior I can use 'setActiveItem' method. But, I think each of these approaches is a bit weird, isn't it? I expected that would be much more natural approach to implement it. Most likely I don't know what I need. Confirm my doubts. What is the best way to do it.

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• 2 Mutually exclusive RadioButton "Lists"

  - by user72603

  I think this has to be THE most frustrating thing I've ever done in web forms. Yet one would think it would be the easiest of all things in the world to do. That is this: I need 2 separate lists of radiobuttons on my .aspx page. One set allows a customer to select an option. The other set does also but for a different purpose. But only one set can have a selected radiobutton. Ok I've tried this using 2 asp.net Radiobuttonlists controls on the same page. Got around the nasty bug with GroupName (asp.net assigns the control's uniqueID which prevents the groupname from ever working because now, 2 radiobuttonlists can't have the same groupname for all their radiobuttons because each radiobuttonlist has a different uniqueID thus the bug assigns the unique ID as the name attribute when the buttons are rendered. since the name sets are different, they are not mutually exclusive). Anyway, so I created that custom RadioButtonListcontrol and fixed that groupname problem. But when ended up happening is when I went to put 2 instances of my new custom radiobuttonlist control on my .aspx page, all was swell until I noticed that every time I checked for radiobuttonlist1.SelectedValue or radiobuttonlist2.SelectedValue (did not matter which I was checking) the value always spit back string.empty and i was not able to figure out why (see http://forums.asp.net/t/1401117.aspx). Ok onto the third try tonight and into the break of dawn (no sleep). I tried to instead just scrap trying to use 2 custom radiobuttonlists altogether because of that string.empty issue and try to spit out 2 sets of radiobuttonlists via using 2 asp.net repeaters and a standard input HTML tag inside. Got that working. Ok but the 2 lists still are not mutually exclusive. I can select a value in the first set of radiobuttons from repeater1 and same goes for repeater2. I cannot for the life of me get the "sets" to be mutually exclusive sets of radiobuttons.

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• Ajax UpdatePanels scroll on partial page update.

  - by George

  I set the AutoPostback property of a textbox to True so I can process the TextChanged event on the server and, based on what they typed in the textbox, appropriately display a message in an update panel. The problem is, when the partial screen refresh is performed, no control on the screen has focus. 99% of the time, when the text in the textbox is changed, it is because the user has tabbed forward, and so, to limit the disruption in the lost of focus, I perform a "Focus" call on teh next control in the tab sequence. For the most part, this works OK, but of course, is disputive if the user is tabbing in the reverse order or has used the mouse to set the focus to another control. In these situations, the focus would be set to the next control even though the user was trying to set focus elsewhere. OK, that sucks. Now what I consider the bigger problem with calling the focus method on the server: In IE, it works OK, but in Mozilla Firefox and Chrome, setting the focus causes a repositioning of the scroll bar, even though none is necessary because the control is already in view. I realize that I could switch to doing AJAX web service calls, but these darn Updae Panels are so convenient if used in moderation. is there anyway to use updatepanels and not have these focus/scroll issues?

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• Powershell 2.0 Hang When Run From MsDeploy pre- post- ops using c/

  - by SonOfNun

  I am trying to invoke powershell during the preSync call in a MSDeploy command, but powershell does not exit the process after it has been called. The command (from command line): "tools/MSDeploy/msdeploy.exe" -verb:sync -preSync:runCommand="powershell.exe -NoLogo -NoProfile -NonInteractive -ExecutionPolicy Unrestricted -Command C:/MyInstallPath/deploy.ps1 Set-WebAppOffline Uninstall-Service ",waitInterval=60000 -usechecksum -source:dirPath="build/for-deployment" -dest:wmsvc=BLUEPRINT-X86,username=deployer,password=deployer,dirPath=C:/MyInstallPath I used a hack here (http://therightstuff.de/2010/02/06/How-We-Practice-Continuous-Integration-And-Deployment-With-MSDeploy.aspx) that gets the powershell process and kills it but that didn't work. I also tried taskkill and the sysinternals equivalent, but nothing will kill the process so that MSDeploy errors out. The command is executed, but then just sits there. Any ideas what might be causing powershell to hang like this? I have found a few other similar issues around the web but no answers. Environment is Win 2K3, using Powershell 2.0. UPDATE: Here is a .vbs script I use to invoke my powershell command now. Invoke using 'cscript.exe path/to/script.vbs': Option Explicit Dim oShell, appCmd,oShellExec Set oShell = CreateObject("WScript.Shell") appCmd = "powershell.exe -NoLogo -NoProfile -NonInteractive -ExecutionPolicy Unrestricted -Command ""&{ . c:/development/materialstesting/deploy/web/deploy.ps1; Set-WebAppOffline }"" " Set oShellExec = oShell.Exec(appCmd) oShellExec.StdIn.Close()

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• ASP.NET MVC: How do I validate a model wrapped in a ViewModel?

  - by Deniz Dogan

  For the login page of my website I would like to list the latest news for my site and also display a few fields to let the user log in. So I figured I should make a login view model - I call this LoginVM. LoginVM contains a Login model for the login fields and a List<NewsItem> for the news listing. This is the Login model: public class Login { [Required(ErrorMessage="Enter a username.")] [DisplayName("Username")] public string Username { get; set; } [Required(ErrorMessage="Enter a password.")] [DataType(DataType.Password)] [DisplayName("Password")] public string Password { get; set; } } This is the LoginVM view model: public class LoginVM { public Login login { get; set; } public List<NewsItem> newsItems { get; set; } } This is where I get stuck. In my login controller, I get passed a LoginVM. [HttpPost] public ActionResult Login(LoginVM model, FormCollection form) { if (ModelState.IsValid) { // What? In the code I'm checking whether ModelState is valid and this would work fine if the view model was actually the Login model, but now it's LoginVM which has no validation attributes at all. How do I make LoginVM "traverse" through its members to validate them all? Am I doing something fundamentally wrong using ModelState in this manner?

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• Entity Framework 4 overwrite Equals and GetHashCode of an own class property

  - by Zhok

  Hi, I’m using Visual Studio 2010 with .NET 4 and Entity Framework 4. I’m working with POCO Classes and not the EF4 Generator. I need to overwrite the Equals() and GetHashCode() Method but that doesn’t really work. Thought it’s something everybody does but I don’t find anything about the problem Online. When I write my own Classes and Equals Method, I use Equals() of property’s, witch need to be loaded by EF to be filled. Like this: public class Item { public virtual int Id { get; set; } public virtual String Name { get; set; } public virtual List<UserItem> UserItems { get; set; } public virtual ItemType ItemType { get; set; } public override bool Equals(object obj) { Item item = obj as Item; if (obj == null) { return false; } return item.Name.Equals(this.Name) && item.ItemType.Equals(this.ItemType); } public override int GetHashCode() { return this.Name.GetHashCode() ^ this.ItemType.GetHashCode(); } } That Code doesn’t work, the problems are in Equals and GetHashCode where I try to get HashCode or Equal from “ItemType” . Every time I get a NullRefernceException if I try to get data by Linq2Entites. A dirty way to fix it, is to capture the NullReferenceException and return false (by Equals) and return base.GetHashCode() (by GethashCode) but I hope there is a better way to fix this problem. I’ve wrote a little test project, with SQL Script for the DB and POCO Domain, EDMX File and Console Test Main Method. You can download it here: Download

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• How do I DYNAMICALLY cast in C# and return for a property

  - by ken-forslund

  I've already read threads on the topic, but can't find a solution that fits. I'm working on a drop-down list that takes an enum and uses that to populate itself. i found a VB.NET one. During the porting process, I discovered that it uses DirectCast() to set the type as it returns the SelectedValue. See the original VB here: http://jeffhandley.com/archive/2008/01/27/enum-list-dropdown-control.aspx the gist is, the control has Type _enumType; //gets set when the datasource is set and is the type of the specific enum The SelectedValue property kind of looks like (remember, it doesn't work): public Enum SelectedValue //Shadows Property { get { // Get the value from the request to allow for disabled viewstate string RequestValue = this.Page.Request.Params[this.UniqueID]; return Enum.Parse(_enumType, RequestValue, true) as _enumType; } set { base.SelectedValue = value.ToString(); } } Now this touches on a core point that I think was missed in the other discussions. In darn near every example, folks argued that DirectCast wasn't needed, because in every example, they statically defined the type. That's not the case here. As the programmer of the control, I don't know the type. Therefore, I can't cast it. Additionally, the following examples of lines won't compile because c# casting doesn't accept a variable. Whereas VB's CType and DirectCast can accept Type T as a function parameter: return Enum.Parse(_enumType, RequestValue, true); or return Enum.Parse(_enumType, RequestValue, true) as _enumType; or return (_enumType)Enum.Parse(_enumType, RequestValue, true) ; or return Convert.ChangeType(Enum.Parse(_enumType, RequestValue, true), _enumType); or return CastTo<_enumType>(Enum.Parse(_enumType, RequestValue, true)); So, any ideas on a solution? What's the .NET 3.5 best way to resolve this?

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• 404 when getting private YouTube video even when logged in with the owner's account using gdata-pyth

  - by Gonzalo

  If a YouTube video is set as private and I try to fetch it using the gdata Python API a 404 RequestError is raised, even though I have done a programmatic login with the account that owns that video: from gdata.youtube import service yt_service = service.YouTubeService(email=my_email, password=my_password, client_id=my_client_id, source=my_source, developer_key=my_developer_key) yt_service.ProgrammaticLogin() yt_service.GetYouTubeVideoEntry(video_id='IcVqemzfyYs') --------------------------------------------------------------------------- RequestError Traceback (most recent call last) <ipython console> /usr/lib/python2.4/site-packages/gdata/youtube/service.pyc in GetYouTubeVideoEntry(self, uri, video_id) 203 elif video_id and not uri: 204 uri = '%s/%s' % (YOUTUBE_VIDEO_URI, video_id) --> 205 return self.Get(uri, converter=gdata.youtube.YouTubeVideoEntryFromString) 206 207 def GetYouTubeContactFeed(self, uri=None, username='default'): /usr/lib/python2.4/site-packages/gdata/service.pyc in Get(self, uri, extra_headers, redirects_remaining, encoding, converter) 1100 'body': result_body} 1101 else: -> 1102 raise RequestError, {'status': server_response.status, 1103 'reason': server_response.reason, 'body': result_body} 1104 RequestError: {'status': 404, 'body': 'Video not found', 'reason': 'Not Found'} This happens every time, unless I go into my YouTube account (through the YouTube website) and set it public, after that I can set it as private and back to public using the Python API. Am I missing a step or is there another (or any) way to fetch a YouTube video set as private from the API? Thanks in advance.

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• preparing SMS app for Android KitKat

  - by Pmsc

  in agreement with the recent post from Android Developers http://android-developers.blogspot.pt/2013/10/getting-your-sms-apps-ready-for-kitkat.html ,I was trying to prepare my app to the new android version, but encountered a problem with the part they suggest to create a dialog to let the user set the app as the default application to handle SMS's : Android Developers Post public class ComposeSmsActivity extends Activity { @Override protected void onResume() { super.onResume(); final String myPackageName = getPackageName(); if (!Telephony.Sms.getDefaultSmsPackage(this).equals(myPackageName)) { // App is not default. // Show the "not currently set as the default SMS app" interface View viewGroup = findViewById(R.id.not_default_app); viewGroup.setVisibility(View.VISIBLE); // Set up a button that allows the user to change the default SMS app Button button = (Button) findViewById(R.id.change_default_app); button.setOnClickListener(new View.OnClickListener() { public void onClick(View v) { Intent intent = new Intent(Telephony.Sms.Intents.ACTION_CHANGE_DEFAULT); intent.putExtra(Telephony.Sms.Intents.EXTRA_PACKAGE_NAME, myPackageName); startActivity(intent); } }); } else { // App is the default. // Hide the "not currently set as the default SMS app" interface View viewGroup = findViewById(R.id.not_default_app); viewGroup.setVisibility(View.GONE); } } } the code itself in pretty much straightforward, but I'm unable to access to Telephony.Sms.getDefaultSmsPackage because it says that Telephony cannot be resolved, and I can't find any import or declaration that would fix that. Can anyone please help? Thanks in advanced.

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• DOS Batch file to echo a specific line number

  - by Lee

  So for the second part of my current dilemma, I have a list of folders in "c:\file_list.txt". I need to be able to extract them (well, echo them with some mods) based on the line number because this batch script is being called by an iterative macro process. I'm passing the line number as a parameter. @echo off setlocal enabledelayedexpansion set /a counter=0 set /a %%a = "" for /f "usebackq delims=" %%a in (c:\file_list.txt) do (if "!counter!"=="%1" goto :printme & set /a counter+=1) :printme echo %%a which gives me an output of "%a". Doh! So, I've tried echoing !a! (result: "ECHO is off."); I've tried echoing %a (result: a) I figured the easy thing to do would be to modify the "head.bat" code found here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/130116/dos-batch-commands-to-read-first-line-from-text-file except rather than echoing every line - I'd just echo the last line found. Not as simple as one might think. I've noticed that my counter is staying at zero for some reason; I'm wondering if the "set /a counter+=1" is doing what I think it's doing.

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• Microsoft Reporting: Setting subreport parameters in code

  - by Svish

  How can I set a parameter of a sub-report? I have successfully hooked myself up to the SubreportProcessing event, I can find the correct sub-report through e.ReportPath, and I can add datasources through e.DataSources.Add. But I find no way of adding report parameters?? I have found people suggesting to add them to the master report, but I don't really want to do that, since the master report shouldn't have to be connected to the sub-report at all, other than that it is wrapping the sub-report. I am using one report as a master template, printing name of the report, page numbers etc. And the subreport is going to be the report itself. And if I could only find a way to set those report parameters of the sub-report I would be good to go... Clarification: Creating/Defining the parameters is not the problem. The problem is to set their values. I thought the natural thing to do was to do it in the SubreportProcessing event. And the SubreportProcessingEventArgs do in fact have a Parameters property. But it is read only! So how do you use that? How can I set their value?

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• Setting classpath and installing database via batch file

  - by Supereme

  Hi, I want my classpath to be set via a batch file. I'm working on Windows XP. I have two questions: My first question: I made a batch file in which I typed "set classpath = C:\WINDOWS\system32\;.;C:\jdk1.5.0\lib\tools.jar;C:\poi-3.6\poi-3.6-20091214.jar;C:\poi-3.6\poi-contrib-3.6-20091214.jar;C:\poi-3.6\poi-ooxml-3.6-20091214.jar;C:\poi-3.6\poi-ooxml-schemas-3.6-20091214.jar;C:\poi-3.6\poi-scratchpad-3.6-20091214.jar;E:\jdbc\postgresql-8.2-505.jdbc3.jar;C:\xmlbeans-2.5.0\lib\jsr173_1.0_api.jar;C:\xmlbeans-2.5.0\lib\resolver.jar;C:\xmlbeans-2.5.0\lib\xbean.jar;C:\xmlbeans-2.5.0\lib\xbean_xpath.jar;C:\xmlbeans-2.5.0\lib\xmlbeans-qname.jar;C:\xmlbeans-2.5.0\lib\xmlpublic.jar;C:\dom4j-1.6.1\dom4j-1.6.1.jar; exit" When I tried to run this file it ran but when I went into control panel systemadvancedenvironment variables and then selected classpath, it didn't show me the classpath I did set. What is the correct way to set the classpath via batch file? My second question: Is there any way by which we can install database via batch file say for eg: postgresql8.2? Thank you.

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• Combining aggregate functions in an (ANSI) SQL statement

  - by morpheous

  I have aggregate functions foo(), foobar(), fredstats(), barneystats() I want to create a domain specific query language (DSQL) above my DB, to facilitate using using a domain language to query the DB. The 'language' comprises of boolean expressions (or more specifically SQL like criteria) which I then 'translate' back into pure (ANSI) SQL and send to the underlying Db. The following lines are examples of what the language statements will look like, and hopefully, it will help further clarify the concept: **Example 1** DQL statement: foobar('yellow') between 1 and 3 and fredstats('weight') > 42 Translation: fetch all rows in an underlying table where computed values for aggregate function foobar() is between 1 and 3 AND computed value for AGG FUNC fredstats() is greater than 42 **Example 2** DQL statement: fredstats('weight') < barneystats('weight') AND foo('fighter') in (9,10,11) AND foobar('green') <> 42 Translation: Fetch all rows where the specified criteria matches **Example 3** DQL statement: foobar('green') / foobar('red') <> 42 Translation: Fetch all rows where the specified criteria matches **Example 4** DQL statement: foobar('green') - foobar('red') >= 42 Translation: Fetch all rows where the specified criteria matches Given the following information: The table upon which the queries above are being executed is called 'tbl' table 'tbl' has the following structure (id int, name varchar(32), weight float) The result set returns only the tbl.id, tbl.name and the names of the aggregate functions as columns in the result set - so for example the foobar() AGG FUNC column will be called foobar in the result set. So for example, the first DQL query will return a result set with the following columns: id, name, foobar, fredstats Given the above, my questions then are: What would be the underlying SQL required for Example1 ? What would be the underlying SQL required for Example3 ? Given an algebraic equation comprising of AGGREGATE functions, Is there a way of generalizing the algorithm needed to generate the required ANSI SQL statement(s)? I am using PostgreSQL as the db, but I would prefer to use ANSI SQL wherever possible.

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• Nhibernate join on a table twice

  - by Zuber

  Consider the following Class structure... public class ListViewControl { public int SystemId {get; set;} public List<ControlAction> Actions {get; set;} public List<ControlAction> ListViewActions {get; set;} } public class ControlAction { public string blahBlah {get; set;} } I want to load class ListViewControl eagerly using NHibernate. The mapping using Fluent is as shown below public UIControlMap() { Id(x => x.SystemId); HasMany(x => x.Actions) .KeyColumn("ActionId") .Cascade.AllDeleteOrphan() .AsBag() .Cache.ReadWrite().IncludeAll(); HasMany(x => x.ListViewActions) .KeyColumn("ListViewActionId") .Cascade.AllDeleteOrphan() .AsBag() .Cache.ReadWrite().IncludeAll(); } This is how I am trying to load it eagerly var baseActions = DetachedCriteria.For<ListViewControl>() .CreateCriteria("Actions", JoinType.InnerJoin) .SetFetchMode("BlahBlah", FetchMode.Eager) .SetResultTransformer(new DistinctRootEntityResultTransformer()); var listViewActions = DetachedCriteria.For<ListViewControl>() .CreateCriteria("ListViewActions", JoinType.InnerJoin) .SetFetchMode("BlahBlah", FetchMode.Eager) .SetResultTransformer(new DistinctRootEntityResultTransformer()); var listViews = DetachedCriteria.For<ListViewControl>() .SetFetchMode("Actions", FetchMode.Eager) .SetFetchMode("ListViewActions",FetchMode.Eager) .SetResultTransformer(new DistinctRootEntityResultTransformer()); var result = _session.CreateMultiCriteria() .Add("listViewActions", listViewActions) .Add("baseActions", baseActions) .Add("listViews", listViews) .SetResultTransformer(new DistinctRootEntityResultTransformer()) .GetResult("listViews"); Now, my problem is that the class ListViewControl get the correct records in both Actions and ListViewActions, but there are multiple entries of the same record. The number of records is equal to the number of joins made to the ControlAction table, in this case two. How can I avoid this? If I remove the SetFetchMode from the listViews query, the actions are loaded lazily through a proxy which I don't want.

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• Setting routes in application.ini in Zend Framework

  - by Paul Watson

  I'm a Zend Framework newbie, and I'm trying to work out how to add another route to my application.ini file. I currently have my routes set up as follows: resources.router.routes.artists.route = /artists/:stub resources.router.routes.artists.defaults.controller = artists resources.router.routes.artists.defaults.action = display ...so that /artists/joe-bloggs uses the "display" action of the "artists" controller to dipslay the profile the artist in question - that works fine. What I want to do now is to set up another route so that /artists/joe-bloggs/random-gallery-name goes to the "galleries" action of the "artists" controller. I tried adding an additional block to the application.ini file (beneath the block above) like so: resources.router.routes.artists.route = /artists/:stub/:gallery resources.router.routes.artists.defaults.controller = artists resources.router.routes.artists.defaults.action = galleries ...but when I do that the page at /artists/joe-bloggs no longer works (Zend tries to route it to the "joe-bloggs" controller). How do I set up the routes in application.ini so that I can change the action of the "artists" controller depending on whether "/:gallery" exists? I realise I'm probably making a really stupid mistake, so please point out my stupidity and set me on the right path (no pun intended).

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• .NET Error with Dynamic T-SQL

  - by Phillip Theriault

  I am trying to create a TableAdapter in .NET using a stored procedure, but I'm getting an error "Incorrect syntax near the keyword 'WHERE'". I have narrowed down the problem in the stored procedure to the following lines: IF @NumRows > 0 SET @SQL += N' WHERE T1.RowNumber BETWEEN 1 and 10' ELSE SET @SQL += N' WHERE T1.RowNumber > 0' @NumRows is an input parameter that defaults to 0. However, if I remove either of those lines everything works fine (both WHERE clauses work fine by themselves when there is no IF/ELSE statement). It almost looks like .NET is ignoring the IF/ELSE and attempting to add the WHERE clause twice. It also works fine if I change it like so: IF @NumRows > 0 SET @SQL += N'' ELSE SET @SQL += N' WHERE T1.RowNumber > 0' One of the WHERE clauses has been removed, and there's no longer a conflict on the .NET side. So I'm pretty sure it has to do with the 2 WHERE clauses, and not with anything else. The sproc runs perfectly fine in SQL Server, and it even runs in .NET despite the error if I click "Preview Data". The only problem is that it won't auto-populate the list of fields, which I need for creating a report. Has anybody seen this before and have a suggestion?

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• Bidirectional replication update record problem

  - by Mirek

  Hi, I would like to present you my problem related to SQL Server 2005 bidirectional replication. What do I need? My teamleader wants to solve one of our problems using bidirectional replication between two databases, each used by different application. One application creates records in table A, changes should replicate to second database into a copy of table A. When data on second server are changed, then those changes have to be propagated back to the first server. I am trying to achieve bidirectional transactional replication between two databases on one server, which is running SQL Server 2005. I have manage to set this up using scripts, established 2 publications and 2 read only subscriptions with loopback detection. Distributtion database is created, publishment on both databases is enabled. Distributor and publisher are up. We are using some rules to control, which records will be replicated, so we need to call our custom stored procedures during replication. So, articles are set to use update, insert and delete custom stored procedures. So far so good, but? Everything works fine, changes are replicating, until updates are done on both tables simultaneously or before changes are replicated (and that takes about 3-6 seconds). Both records then end up with different values. UPDATE db1.dbo.TestTable SET Col = 4 WHERE ID = 1 UPDATE db2.dbo.TestTable SET Col = 5 WHERE ID = 1 results to: db1.dbo.TestTable COL = 5 db2.dbo.TestTable COL = 4 But we want to have last change winning replication. Please, is there a way to solve my problem? How can I ensure same values in both records? Or is there easier solution than this kind of replication? I can provide sample replication script which I am using. I am looking forward for you ideas, Mirek

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• Stored procedure using cursor in mySql.

  - by RAVI

  I wrote a stored procedure using cursor in mysql but that procedure is taking 10 second to fetch the result while that result set have only 450 records so, I want to know that why that proedure is taking that much time to fetch tha record. procedure as below: DELIMITER // DROP PROCEDURE IF EXISTS curdemo123// CREATE PROCEDURE curdemo123(IN Branchcode int,IN vYear int,IN vMonth int) BEGIN DECLARE EndOfData,tempamount INT DEFAULT 0; DECLARE tempagent_code,tempplantype,tempsaledate CHAR(12); DECLARE tempspot_rate DOUBLE; DECLARE var1,totalrow INT DEFAULT 1; DECLARE cur1 CURSOR FOR select SQL_CALC_FOUND_ROWS ad.agentCode,ad.planType,ad.amount,ad.date from adplan_detailstbl ad where ad.branchCode=Branchcode and (ad.date between '2009-12-1' and '2009-12-31')order by ad.NUM_ID asc; DECLARE CONTINUE HANDLER FOR SQLSTATE '02000' SET EndOfData = 1; DROP TEMPORARY TABLE IF EXISTS temptable; CREATE TEMPORARY TABLE temptable (agent_code varchar(15), plan_type char(12),sale double,spot_rate double default '0.0', dATE DATE); OPEN cur1; SET totalrow=FOUND_ROWS(); while var1 <= totalrow DO fetch cur1 into tempagent_code,tempplantype,tempamount,tempsaledate; IF((tempplantype='Unit Plan' OR tempplantype='MIP') OR tempplantype='STUP') then select spotRate into tempspot_rate from spot_amount where ((monthCode=vMonth and year=vYear) and ((agentCode=tempagent_code and branchCode=Branchcode) and (planType=tempplantype))); INSERT INTO temptable VALUES(tempagent_code,tempplantype,tempamount,tempspot_rate,tempsaledate); else INSERT INTO temptable(agent_code,plan_type,sale,dATE) VALUES(tempagent_code,tempplantype,tempamount,tempsaledate); END IF; SET var1=var1+1; END WHILE; CLOSE cur1; select * from temptable; DROP TABLE temptable; END // DELIMITER ;

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• Binding, Prefixes and generated HTML

  - by Vman

  MVC newbie question re binders. Supposing I have two strongly typed partial actions that happen to have a model attributes with the same name, and are rendered in the same containing page i.e.: Class Friend {string Name {get; set ;} DateTime DOB {get; set ;}} Class Foe {string Name {get; set ;} string ReasonForDislike {get; set ;}} Both partials will have a line: <%= Html.TextBoxFor(model => model.Name) %> And associated controller actions: public ActionResult SaveFriend(Friend friend) public ActionResult SaveFoe(Foe foe) My problem is that both will render on my containing page with the same id (of course, bad for lots of reasons). I’m aware of the [Bind] attribute that allows me add a prefix, resulting in code: public ActionResult SaveFriend([Bind(Prefix = “friend”)] Friend friend) <%= Html.TextBox("friend.Name", Model. Name) %> //Boo, no TextBoxFor :( But this still doesn’t cut it. I can just about tolerate the loss of the strongly typed TextBoxFor helpers but I’ve yet to get clientside validation to work with prefixes: I’ve tried: <%= Html.ValidationMessage("friend.Name") %> ...and every other variant I can think of. I seem to need the model to be aware of the prefix in both directions but bind only applies when mapping the inbound request. It seems (to me) a common scenario but I’m struggling to find examples out there. What am I missing! Thanks in advance.

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• Problem with UserControl with custom Dependency Property

  - by Mathias Koch

  Hi, I'm writing a user control with a dependency property for a search text called SearchText. It is a dependency property because I want to allow consumers of the control to use data binding. The user control contains a WPF TextBox where the user can enter the search text. I could use data binding to connect the SearchText dependency property of the user control with the Text dependency property of the TextBox, but this binding only fires when the text box looses input focus. What I want is SearchText to be updated after every change of Text. So I have added a TextChanged event handler to the user control where I set SearchText to the value of Text. My Problem is, the SearchText binding doesn't work, the source never gets updated. What am I doing wrong? Here's the relevant part of the user controls code-behind: public partial class UserControlSearchTextBox : UserControl { public string SearchText { get { return (string)GetValue(SearchTextProperty); } set { SetValue(SearchTextProperty, value); } } public static readonly DependencyProperty SearchTextProperty = DependencyProperty.Register("SearchText", typeof(string), typeof(UserControlSearchTextBox), new UIPropertyMetadata("")); private void TextBox_TextChanged(object sender, TextChangedEventArgs e) { SearchText = ((TextBox)sender).Text; } ... } The window that contains an instance of the user control has its DataContext set to an object that has a property also called SearchText. <uc:UserControlSearchTextBox SearchText="{Binding SearchText}" /> The data context of the Window: public class DataSourceUserManual : DataSourceBase { private string _searchText; public string SearchText { get { return _searchText; } set { _searchText = value; ... OnPropertyChanged("SearchText"); } } } Unfortunately, this setter is not called when I type into the text box. Any ideas?

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• Custom Model Validator for MVC

  - by scottrakes

  I am trying to add a custom model validation at the property level but need to pass in two values. Below is my class definition and validation implementation. When it runs, the "value" in the IsValid method is always null. I can get this working at the class level but the property level is causing me issues. What am I missing? Event Class: public class Event { public int? EventID {get;set;} [ValidPURL("EventID", "PURLValue")] public string PURLValue { get; set; } ... } Validation Class [AttributeUsage(AttributeTargets.All, AllowMultiple = true, Inherited = true)] public sealed class ValidPURL : ValidationAttribute { private const string _defaultErrorMessage = "Web address already exist."; private readonly object _typeId = new object(); public ValidPURL(int eventID, string purlValue) : base(_defaultErrorMessage) { EventID = eventID; PURLValue = purlValue; } public int EventID { get; private set; } public string PURLValue { get; private set; } public override object TypeId { get { return _typeId; } } public override string FormatErrorMessage(string name) { return String.Format(CultureInfo.CurrentUICulture, ErrorMessageString, EventID, PURLValue); } public override bool IsValid(object value) { PropertyDescriptorCollection properties = TypeDescriptor.GetProperties(value); object eventIDValue = properties.Find(EventID, true /* ignoreCase */).GetValue(value); object purlValue = properties.Find(PURLValue, true /* ignoreCase */).GetValue(value); [Some Validation Logic against the database] return true; } } Thank for the help!

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