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  • How to display recently view items in iphone

    - by Pugal Devan
    Hi friends, I have created tab bar and have three views. Tab-1 --> table view and it navigates to detail table view. Tab-2 --> map view. Tab-3 --> table view.(Recent view for Tab-1 items). Now i have displayed the names in the table view in tab-1. The names are changed dynamically and displayed using XML parsing. In tab-3 is the recent view. Now i want to display the details in recent view those who visit recently in tab-1 view. I want to display only 10 items in the recent view. So i have used NSMutableArray and i have set deleagtes due to get the items in recent view from tab-1 view. How to avoid the duplicate recent items and how to remove the older items and inserts the new recent items in recent view. Here my sample code, In Recent view class, stories = [[NSMutableArray alloc] initWithCapacity:10]; items = [[NSMutableDictionary alloc] init]; NSString *preferName = [devDelegate getCurrentAuthor]; //(get name dynamically) [items setObject:preferName forKey:@"preferName"]; [stories addObject:[items copy]]; cell.textLabel.text = [[stories objectAtIndex:storyIndex] objectForKey:@"preferName"]; So please guide me to how to achieve this. Thanks.

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  • Algorithm for assigning a unique series of bits for each user?

    - by Mark
    The problem seems simple at first: just assign an id and represent that in binary. The issue arises because the user is capable of changing as many 0 bits to a 1 bit. To clarify, the hash could go from 0011 to 0111 or 1111 but never 1010. Each bit has an equal chance of being changed and is independent of other changes. What would you have to store in order to go from hash - user assuming a low percentage of bit tampering by the user? I also assume failure in some cases so the correct solution should have an acceptable error rate. I would an estimate the maximum number of bits tampered with would be about 30% of the total set. I guess the acceptable error rate would depend on the number of hashes needed and the number of bits being set per hash. I'm worried with enough manipulation the id can not be reconstructed from the hash. The question I am asking I guess is what safe guards or unique positioning systems can I use to ensure this happens.

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  • Custom Android control with children

    - by Gromix
    Hi, I'm trying to create a custom Android control that contains a LinearLayout. You can think of it as an extended LinearLayout with fancy borders, a background, an image on the left... I could do it all in XML (works great) but since I have dozens of occurences in my app it's getting hard to maintain. I thought it would be nicer to have something like this: /* Main.xml */ <MyFancyLayout> <TextView /> /* what goes inside my control's linear layout */ </MyfancyLayout> How would you approach this? I'd like to avoid re-writing the whole linear layout onMeasure / onLayout methods. This is what I have for the moment: /* MyFancyLayout.xml */ <TableLayout> <ImageView /> <LinearLayout id="container" /> /* where I want the real content to go */ </TableLayout> and /* MyFancyLayout.java */ public class MyFancyLayout extends LinearLayout { public MyFancyLayout(Context context) { super(context); View.inflate(context, R.layout.my_fancy_layout, this); } } How would you go about inserting the user-specified content (the TextView in main.xml) in the right place (id=container)? Cheers! Romain ----- edit ------- Still no luck on this, so I changed my design to use a simpler layout and decided to live with a bit of repeated XML. Still very interested in anyone knows how to do this though!

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  • Constructing a WeakReference<T> throws COMException

    - by ChaseMedallion
    The following code: IDisposable d = ... new WeakReference<IDisposable>(d); Has started throwing the following exception on SOME machines. What could cause this? System.Runtime.InteropServices.COMException: Unspecified error (Exception from HRESULT: 0x80004005 (E_FAIL)) EDIT: the machines that experience the error are running Windows Server 2008 R2. Windows Server 2012 and desktop machines running windows 7 work fine. (this is true, but I now think a different issue is the relevant difference... see below). EDIT: as an additional note, this occurred right after updating our codebase to Entity Framework 6.1.1.-beta1. In the above code, The IDisposable is a class which wraps an EF DbContext. EDIT: why the votes to close? EDIT: the stack trace of the failure ends at the WeakReference<T> constructor called in the above code: at System.WeakReference`1..ctor(T target, Boolean trackResurrection) // from here on down it's code we wrote/simple LINQ. None of this code has changed recently; // we just upgraded to EF6 and saw this failure start happening at Core.Data.EntityFrameworkDataContext.RegisterDependentDisposable(IDisposable child) at Core.Data.ServiceFactory.GetConstructorParameter[TService](Type parameterType) at System.Linq.Enumerable.WhereSelectListIterator`2.MoveNext() at System.Linq.Buffer`1..ctor(IEnumerable`1 source) at System.Linq.Enumerable.ToArray[TSource](IEnumerable`1 source) at Core.Data.ServiceFactory.CreateService[TService]() at MVC controller action method EDIT: it turns out that the machines having issues with this were running AppDynamics. Uninstalling that seems to have removed the issue.

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  • How does one gets started with Winforms style applications on Win32?

    - by Billy ONeal
    EDIT: I'm extremely tired and frustrated at the moment -- please ignore that bit in this question -- I'll edit it in the morning to be better. Okay -- a bit of background: I'm a C++ programmer mostly, but the only GUI stuff I've ever done was on top of .NET's WinForms platform. I'm completely new to Windows GUI programming, and despite Petzold's excellent book, I'm extremely confused. Namely, it seems that most every reference on getting started with Win32 is all about drawing lines and curves and things -- a topic about which (at least at present time) I couldn't care less. I need a checked list box, a splitter, and a textbox -- something that would take less than 10 minutes to do in Winforms land. It has been recommended to me to use the WTL library, which provides an implementation of all three of these controls -- but I keep getting hung up on simple things, such as getting the damn controls to use the right font, and getting High DPI working correctly. I've spent two freaking days on this, and I can't help but think there has to be a better reference for these kinds of things than I've been able to find. Petzold's book is good, but it hasn't been updated since Windows 95 days, and there's been a LOT changed w.r.t. how applications should be correctly developed since it was published. I guess what I'm looking for is a modern Petzold book. Where can I find such a resource, if any?

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  • Accents in uploaded file being replaced with '?'

    - by Katfish
    I am building a data import tool for the admin section of a website I am working on. The data is in both French and English, and contains many accented characters. Whenever I attempt to upload a file, parse the data, and store it in my MySQL database, the accents are replaced with '?'. I have text files containing data (charset is iso-8859-1) which I upload to my server using CodeIgniter's file upload library. I then read the file in PHP. My code is similar to this: $this->upload->do_upload() $data = array('upload_data' => $this->upload->data()); $fileHandle = fopen($data['upload_data']['full_path'], "r"); while (($line = fgets($fileHandle)) !== false) { echo $line; } This produces lines with accents replaced with '?'. Everything else is correct. If I download my uploaded file from my server over FTP, the charset is still iso-8850-1, but a diff reveals that the file has changed. However, if I open the file in TextEdit, it displays properly. I attempted to use PHP's stream_encoding method to explicitly set my file stream to iso-8859-1, but my build of PHP does not have the method. After running out of ideas, I tried wrapping my strings in both utf8_encode and utf8_decode. Neither worked. If anyone has any suggestions about things I could try, I would be extremely grateful.

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  • Progressively stream the output of an ASP.NET page - or render a page outside of an HTTP request

    - by Evgeny
    I have an ASP.NET 2.0 page with many repeating blocks, including a third-party server-side control (so it's not just plain HTML). Each is quite expensive to generate, in terms of both CPU and RAM. I'm currently using a standard Repeater control for this. There are two problems with this simple approach: The entire page must be rendered before any of it is returned to the client, so the user must wait a long time before they see any data. (I write progress messages using Response.Write, so there is feedback, but no actual results.) The ASP.NET worker process must hold everything in memory at the same time. There is no inherent needs for this: once one block is processed it won't be changed, so it could be returned to the client and the memory could be freed. I would like to somehow return these blocks to the client one at a time, as each is generated. I'm thinking of extracting the stuff inside the Repeater into a separate page and getting it repeatedly using AJAX, but there are some complications involved in that and I wonder if there is some simper approach. Ideally I'd like to keep it as one page (from the client's point of view), but return it incrementally. Another way would be to do something similar, but on the server: still create a separate page, but have the server access it and then Response.Write() the HTML it gets to the response stream for the real client request. Is there a way to avoid an HTTP request here, though? Is there some ASP.NET method that would render a UserControl or a Page outside of an HTTP request and simply return the HTML to me as a string? I'm open to other ideas on how to do this as well.

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  • jquery selecting all elements except the last per group

    - by Anthony
    I have a table that looks like: <table> <tr> <td>one</td><td>two</td><td>three</td><td>last</td> </tr> <tr> <td>blue</td><td>red</td><td>green</td><td>last</td> </tr> <tr> <td>Monday</td><td>Tuesday</td><td>Wednesday</td><td>last</td> </tr> </table> What I want is a jquery selector that will choose all but the last td of each table row. I tried: $("tr td:not(:last)").css("background-color","red"); //changing color just as a test... But instead of all cells but the last on each row being changed, all cells but the very last one in the table are selected. Similarly, if I change it to: $("tr td:last").css("background-color","red"); the only one that changes is the very last cell. How do I choose the last (or not last) of each row?

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  • CreateProcess() fails with an access violation

    - by John Doe
    My aim is to execute an external executable in my program. First, I used system() function, but I don't want the console to be seen to the user. So, I searched a bit, and found CreateProcess() function. However, when I try to pass a parameter to it, I don't know why, it fails. I took this code from MSDN, and changed a bit: #include <windows.h> #include <stdio.h> #include <tchar.h> void _tmain( int argc, TCHAR *argv[] ) { STARTUPINFO si; PROCESS_INFORMATION pi; ZeroMemory( &si, sizeof(si) ); si.cb = sizeof(si); ZeroMemory( &pi, sizeof(pi) ); /* if( argc != 2 ) { printf("Usage: %s [cmdline]\n", argv[0]); return; } */ // Start the child process. if( !CreateProcess( NULL, // No module name (use command line) L"c:\\users\\e\\desktop\\mspaint.exe", // Command line NULL, // Process handle not inheritable NULL, // Thread handle not inheritable FALSE, // Set handle inheritance to FALSE 0, // No creation flags NULL, // Use parent's environment block NULL, // Use parent's starting directory &si, // Pointer to STARTUPINFO structure &pi ) // Pointer to PROCESS_INFORMATION structure ) { printf( "CreateProcess failed (%d).\n", GetLastError() ); return; } // Wait until child process exits. WaitForSingleObject( pi.hProcess, INFINITE ); // Close process and thread handles. CloseHandle( pi.hProcess ); CloseHandle( pi.hThread ); } However, this code crated access violation somehow. Can I execute mspaint without showing user the console? Thank you very much.

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  • Function behaviour on shell(ksh) script

    - by footy
    Here are 2 different versions of a program: this Program: #!/usr/bin/ksh printmsg() { i=1 print "hello function :)"; } i=0; echo I printed `printmsg`; printmsg echo $i Output: # ksh e I printed hello function :) hello function :) 1 and Program: #!/usr/bin/ksh printmsg() { i=1 print "hello function :)"; } i=0; echo I printed `printmsg`; echo $i Output: # ksh e I printed hello function :) 0 The only difference between the above 2 programs is that printmsg is 2times in the above program while printmsg is called once in the below program. My Doubt arises here: To quote Be warned: Functions act almost just like external scripts... except that by default, all variables are SHARED between the same ksh process! If you change a variable name inside a function.... that variable's value will still be changed after you have left the function!! But we can clearly see in the 2nd program's output that the value of i remains unchanged. But we are sure that the function is called as the print statement gets the the output of the function and prints it. So why is the output different in both?

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  • PHP date returning wrong time

    - by gargantaun
    The following script is returning the wrong time after I call date_default_timezone_set("UTC") <?PHP $timestamp = time(); echo "<p>Timestamp: $timestamp</p>"; // This returns the correct time echo "<p>". date("Y-m-d H:i:s", $timestamp) ."</p>"; echo "<p>Now I call 'date_default_timezone_set(\"UTC\")' and echo out the same timestamp.</p>"; echo "Set timezone = " . date_default_timezone_set("UTC"); // This returns a time 5 hours in the past echo "<p>". date("Y-m-d H:i:s", $timestamp) ."</p>"; ?> The timezone on the server is BST. So what should happen is that the second call to 'date' should return a time 1 hour behind the first call. It's actually returning a time 5 hours behind the first one. I should note that the server was originally set up with the EDT timezone (UTC -4). That was changed to BST (UTC +1) and the server was restarted. I can't figure out if this is a PHP problem or a problem with the server.

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  • Dynamic width of DIV (offsetWidth issue).

    - by Tom
    Hi all, I face issue with retrieving (via javascript) width of the div which content is changed (just before reading the widht via offsetWidth) in dynamic way (via changing innerHTML or using createTextNode). Here is some sample code: var con = document.getElementById('avContent'); //content div within page var temp = document.createElement('div');<br /> var text1 = document.createTextNode('CCCCC');<br /> temp.appendChild(text1);<br /> con.appendChild(temp);<br /> var length1 = temp.offsetWidth;<br /> var text2 = document.createTextNode('CCCCC33333333vvvvvvvvvvvvvvvvvvvvvvvvvvvvvvvvvvvvv');<br /> temp.removeChild(text1);<br /> temp.appendChild(text2);<br /> con.removeChild(temp);<br /> con.appendChild(temp); var length2 = temp.offsetWidth;<br /> The length1 and length2 do have the same width.. (the same result I get while using innerHTML instead of createTextNode). Looks like it's the same issue like described in following discussion: http://www.webdeveloper.com/forum/showthread.php?t=187716 Does anybody have answer (work around)? Thanks much for help in advance.

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  • Foreign key relationships in Entity Framework

    - by Anders Svensson
    I'm trying to add an object created from Entity Data Model classes. I have a table called Users, which has turned into a User EDM class. And I also have a table Pages, which has become a Page EDM class. These tables have a foreign key relationship, so that each page is associated with many users. Now I want to be able to add a page, but I can't get how to do it. I get a nullreference exception on Users below. I'm still rather confused by all this, so I'm sure it's a simple error, but I just can't see how to do it. Also, by the way, the compiler requires that I set PageID in the object initializer, even though this field is set to be an automatic id in the table. Am I doing it right just setting it to 0, expecting it to be updated automatically in the table when saved, or how should I do that? Any help appreciated! The method in question: private Page GetPage(User currentUser) { string url = _request.ServerVariables["url"].ToLower(); var userPages = from p in _context.PageSet where p.Users.UserID == currentUser.UserID select p; var existingPage = userPages.FirstOrDefault(e => e.Url == url); //Could be combined with above, but hard to read? if (existingPage != null) return existingPage; Page page = new Page() { Count = 0, Url = _request.ServerVariables["url"].ToLower(), PageID = 0, //Only initial value, changed later? }; _context.AddToPageSet(page); page.Users.UserID = currentUser.UserID; //Here's the problem... return page; }

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  • How to deploy to multiple redundant production servers with "cap deploy"?

    - by Chad Johnson
    Capistrano is working great to deploy to a single server. However, I have multiple production API servers for my web application. When I deploy, my code needs to get deployed to every API server at once. Specifying each server manually is NOT the solution I am looking for (e.g. I don't want to do "cap api1 deploy; cap api2 deploy"). Is there a way, using Capistrano, to deploy to all servers at once, with just a simple "cap deploy"? I'm wondering what changes I would need to make to a typical deploy.rb file, whether I'd need to create a separate file for each server, and whether and how the Capfile would need to be changed. Also, I need to be able to specify a different deploy_to path for each server. And ideally, I wouldn't have to repeat things in different config files for different servers (eg. wouldn't have to specify :repository, :application, etc. multiple times). I have spent hours searching Google on this and looking through tutorials, but I have found nothing helpful. Here is a snippet from my current deploy.rb file: set :application, "testapplication" set :repository, "ssh://domain.com//srv/hg/#{application}" set :scm, :mercurial set :deploy_to, "/srv/www/#{application}" role :web, "domain.com" role :app, "domain.com" role :db, "domain.com", :primary => true, :norelease => true Should I just use the multistage extension and do this? task :deploy_everything do system "cap api1 deploy" system "cap api2 deploy" system "cap api2 deploy" end That could work, but I feel like this isn't what this extension is meant for...

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  • Problem logging in and changing permissions in Facebook

    - by kujawk
    Hi everybody, I've got a piece of code that logs into Facebook, gets a session, sets status_update and offline_access permission if they are not set, and gets a new session with the newly set permissions. This code used to work fine but now I'm getting error 100 "One of the parameters specified was missing or invalid" as a response to the second call to get session and I can't figure out why. Here's the sequence in detail: CREATE TOKEN restserver.php?method=auth.createToken&api_key=[our key]&v=1.0&format=JSON&sig=[sig created with our secret] response: new token LOGIN m.facebook.com/login.php?api_key=[our key]&v=1.0&auth_token=[token created above] login screen loads and user successfully logs in with their username/password. GET SESSION restserver.php?method=auth.getSession&api_key=[our key]&v=1.0&format=JSON&auth_token=token created above&sig=[sig created with our secret] response: session key with expiration date and a secret CHECK/AUTHORIZE PERMISSIONS restserver.php?method=users.hasAppPermission&api_key=[our key]&v=1.0&format=JSON&ext_perm=status_update&call_id=[proper id]&session_key=[key returned above]&sig=[sig created with secret returned for get session] response: 0 m.facebook.com/authorize.php?api_key=[our key]&v=1.0&ext_perm=status_update authorization screen loads and user authorizes Same steps for status_update CREATE NEW TOKEN Same steps as done to create the first token LOGIN m.facebook.com/login.php?api_key=[our key]&v=1.0&auth_token=[new token] user is already logged in, redirected to their homepage GET NEW SESSION restserver.php?method=auth.getSession&api_key=[our key]&format=JSON&auth_token=[new token]&sig=[sig created with our secret] response: error 100 - missing or invalid parameter. Of course it doesn't tell me which one. Anybody have any ideas what I'm doing wrong here? I tried skipping the second login and going right to creating the new session and that didn't work. The only thing that seems to work is logging out the user after they've authorized the permissions and having them log back in again. I'd like to avoid this if possible. Can you have two outstanding sessions at one time? This code used to work but I'm thinking maybe something changed on Facebook's end that I'm not aware of. Thanks, kris

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  • Update Input Value With jQuery, Old Value Submitted to Form

    - by Tyler DeWitt
    I've got a form with an input with id/name league_id <form accept-charset="UTF-8" action="/user" method="post"><div style="margin:0;padding:0;display:inline"><input name="utf8" type="hidden" value="?"><input name="authenticity_token" type="hidden" value="bb92urX83ivxOZZJzWLJMcr5ZSuamowO9O9Sxh5gqKo="></div> <input id="league_id" name="league_id" type="text" value="11"> <select class="sport_selector" id="sport_type_id" name="sport_type_id"><option value="5" selected="selected">Football</option> <option value="25">Women's Soccer</option> <option value="30">Volleyball</option> <option value="10">Men's Soccer</option></select> <input name="commit" type="submit" value="Save changes"> </form> In another part of my page, I have a drop down that, when changed, clears the value of league_id $("#sport_type_id").change -> $("#league_id").val(null) $(this).parents('form:first').submit() If I debug this page, I can see the value get wiped from the text box, but when the form is submitted, my controller always gets the old value. I tried changing the name of the input and got the same results.

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  • Visual Studio 2008 Unit test does not pick up code changes unless I build the entire solution

    - by Orion Edwards
    Here's the scenario: Change my code: Change my unit test for that code With the cursor inside the unit test class/method, invoke VS2008's "Run tests in current context" command The visual studio "Output" window indicates that the code dll and the test dll both successfully build (in that order) The problem is however, that the unit test does not use the latest version of the dll which it has just built. Instead, it uses the previously built dll (which doesn't have the updated code in it), so the test fails. When adding a new method, this results in a MethodNotImplementedException, and when adding a class, it results in a TypeLoadException, both because the unit test thinks the new code is there, and it isn't!. If I'm just updating an existing method, then the test just fails due to incorrect results. I can 'work around' the problem by doing this Change my code: Change my unit test for that code Invoke VS2008's 'Build Solution' command With the cursor inside the unit test class/method, invoke VS2008's "Run tests in current context" command The problem is that doing a full build solution (even though nothing has changed) takes upwards of 30 seconds, as I have approx 50 C# projects, and VS2008 is not smart enough to realize that only 2 of them need to be looked at. Having to wait 30 seconds just to change 1 line of code and re-run a unit test is abysmal. Is there anything I can do to fix this? None of my code is in the GAC or anything funny like that, it's just ordinary old dll's (buiding against .NET 3.5SP1 on a win7/64bit machine) Please help!

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  • Updating target workbook - extracting data from source workbook

    - by Allan
    My question is as follows: I have given a workbook to multiple people. They have this workbook in a folder of their choice. The workbook name is the same for all people, but folder locations vary. Let's assume the common file name is MyData-1.xls. Now I have updated the workbook and want to give it to these people. However when they receive the new one (let's call it MyData-2.xls) I want specific parts of their data pulled from their file (MyData-1) and automatically put into the new one provided (MyData-2). The columns and cells to be copied/imported are identical for both workbooks. Let's assume I want to import cell data (values only) from MyData-1.xls, Sheet 1, cells B8 through C25 ... to ... the same location in the MyData-2.xls workbook. How can I specify in code (possibly attached to a macro driven import data now button) that I want this data brought into this new workbook. I have tried it at my own location by opening the two workbooks and using the copy/paste-special with links process. It works really well, but It seems to create a hard link between the two physical workbooks. I changed the name of the source workbook and it still worked. This makes me believe that there is a "hard link" between the tow and that this will not allow me to give the target (MyData-2.xls) workbook to others and have it find their source workbook.

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  • reading newlines with FORMAT statement

    - by peter.murray.rust
    I'm writing a preprocessor and postprocessor for Fortran input and output using FORMAT-like statements (there are reasons not to use a FORTRAN library). I want to treat the new line ("/") character correctly. I don't have a Fortran compiler immediately to hand. Is there a simple algorithm for working out how many newlines are written or consumed (This post just gives reading examples) [Please assume a FORTRAN77-like mentality in the FORTRAN code and correct any FORTRAN syntax on my part] UPDATE: no comments yet so I am reduced to finding a compiler and running it myself. I'll post the answers if I'm not beaten to it. No-one commented I had the format syntax wrong. I've changed it but there may still be errors Assume datafile 1 a b c d etc... (a) does the READ command always consume a newline? does READ(1, '(A)') A READ(1, '(A)') B give A='a' and B='b' (b) what does READ(1,'(A,/)') A READ(1,'(A)') B give for B? (I would assume 'c') (c) what does READ(1, '(/)') READ(1, '(A)') A give for A (is it 'b' or 'c') (d) what does READ(1,'(A,/,A)') A, B READ(1,'(A)') C give for A and B and C(can I assume 'a' and 'b' and 'c') (e) what does READ(1,'(A,/,/,A)') A, B READ(1,'(A)') C give for A and B and C(can I assume 'a' and 'c' and 'd')? Are there any cases in which the '/' is redundant?

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  • Open + Save .exe file in notepad makes it corrupted

    - by Jacob Kofoed
    Hi, I just published this simple console application that is supposed to show a textbox with the value of a setting called "userID" with value 1001. This works like a charm. Now what I need is to change this value outside the editor, from notepad etc. When I open the application a lot in there is non-sence (& o! -å Þþþ,o" Ü+) etc. but with a quick (ctrl + F) I found the value 1001, and changed this to some other integer. I ran the application again, and it failed, didn't even give any userful error-message. At a point I tried just opening a newly published non-corrupted version of the application, didn't change anything, then saved from notepad, and it were also corrupted. It seems like notepad can't open some characters or something. Do I need to publish the application in some specific text-unicode language or something? Help much appreciated :) I know it sounds like a stupid application, but it is just a test of concept :) I use vb.net for this

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  • Avoiding mass propagation of properties and events for exposure to ViewModels.

    - by firoso
    I have an MVVM application I am developing that is to the point where I'm ready to start putting together a user interface (my client code is largely functional) I'm now running into the issue that I'm trying to get my application data to where I need it so that it can be consumed by the view model and then bound to the view. Unfortunately, it seems that I've either got a few structural oversights, or I'm just going to have to face the reality that I need to be propogating events and raising excessive amounts of errors to notify view models that thier properties have changed. Let me go into some examples of my issue: I have a class "Unit" contained in a class "Test", contained in a class "Session" contained in a class "TestManager" which is contained in "TestDataModel" which is utilized by "TestViewModel" which is databound to by my "TestView" .... WHOA. Now, consider that Unit (the bottom of the heiarchy) has a property called "Results" that is updated periodically, I want to expose that to my viewmodel and then databind it to my view, trouble is, the only way I can really think to do this is to perpetuate events WAY up a chain that say "I've been updated!" and then request the new value... This seems like an aweful way to do this. Alternatively, I could register a static event and raise it, and have the appropriate "Unit view model" grab the event and request the update. This SEEMS better... but... static events? Is that a taboo idea? Also, having an expression like: TestDataModel.TestManager.Session.Test.Unit.Results[i] Seems REALLY gross to have on a View Model. I know this all reeks of a bad design issue, but I can't figure out what I did wrong? Should I be using more singleton/container controlled lifetimes type objects? Register object instances with static helper containers? Obviously these are hard questions to answer without being intimate with the existing structure, but if you've run into situations like this, what did you do to refactor? Should I just live with this, add mass events, and propogate them?

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  • Observer pattern and violation of Single Responsibility Principle

    - by Devil Jin
    I have an applet which repaints itself once the text has changed Design 1: //MyApplet.java public class MyApplet extends Applet implements Listener{ private DynamicText text = null; public void init(){ text = new DynamicText("Welcome"); } public void paint(Graphics g){ g.drawString(text.getText(), 50, 30); } //implement Listener update() method public void update(){ repaint(); } } //DynamicText.java public class DynamicText implements Publisher{ // implements Publisher interface methods //notify listeners whenever text changes } Isn't this a violation of Single Responsibility Principle where my Applet not only acts as Applet but also has to do Listener job. Same way DynamicText class not only generates the dynamic text but updates the registered listeners. Design 2: //MyApplet.java public class MyApplet extends Applet{ private AppletListener appLstnr = null; public void init(){ appLstnr = new AppletListener(this); // applet stuff } } // AppletListener.java public class AppletListener implements Listener{ private Applet applet = null; public AppletListener(Applet applet){ this.applet = applet; } public void update(){ this.applet.repaint(); } } // DynamicText public class DynamicText{ private TextPublisher textPblshr = null; public DynamicText(TextPublisher txtPblshr){ this.textPblshr = txtPblshr; } // call textPblshr.notifyListeners whenever text changes } public class TextPublisher implments Publisher{ // implements publisher interface methods } Q1. Is design 1 a SPR violation? Q2. Is composition a better choice here to remove SPR violation as in design 2.

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  • error while updating a database in ASP.NET

    - by Viredae
    I am having trouble updating an SQL database, the problem is not that it doesn't update at all, but that particular parameters are being updated while the others are not. here is the code for updating the parameters: string EditRequest = "UPDATE Requests SET Description = @Desc, BJustif = @Justif, Priority = @Priority, Requested_System = @Requested, Request_Status = @Stat WHERE"; EditRequest += " Req_ID=@ID"; SqlConnection Submit_conn = new SqlConnection(WebConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["DBConn"].ConnectionString); SqlCommand Submit_comm = new SqlCommand(EditRequest, Submit_conn); Submit_comm.Parameters.AddWithValue("@ID", Request.QueryString["reqid"]); Submit_comm.Parameters.AddWithValue("@Desc", DescBox.Text); Submit_comm.Parameters.AddWithValue("@Justif", JustifBox.Text); Submit_comm.Parameters.AddWithValue("@Priority", PriorityList.SelectedValue); Submit_comm.Parameters.AddWithValue("@Requested", RelatedBox.Text); Submit_comm.Parameters.AddWithValue("@Stat", 1); Submit_conn.Open(); Submit_comm.ExecuteNonQuery(); Submit_comm.Dispose(); Submit_comm = null; Submit_conn.Close(); get_Description(); Page.ClientScript.RegisterStartupScript(this.GetType(), "Refresh", "ReloadPage();", true); this function is called by a button on a pop-up form which shows the parameters content that is being changed in a text box which is also used to submit the changes back to the database, but when I press submit, the parameters which are displayed on the form don't change, I can't find any problem wit the code, even though I've compared it to similar code which is working fine. In case you need to, here is one of the text boxes I'm using to display and edit the content: <asp:TextBox ID="JustifBox" TextMode="MultiLine" runat="server" Width="250" Height="50"></asp:TextBox> What exactly is wrong with the code?

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  • hibernate executeUpdate IndexOutOfBounds

    - by luke
    I am trying to use an HQL to perform a simple update in hibernate, but i can't seem to get it to work. i have a query template defined as: private static final String CHANGE_DEVICE_STATUS = "UPDATE THING" +"SET ACTIVE = ? " +"WHERE ID = ?"; and then i try to execute it like this: Session s = HibernateSessionFactory.getSession(); Query query = s.createQuery(CHANGE_DEVICE_STATUS); query.setBoolean(0, is_active); query.setLong(1, id); query.executeUpdate(); But now i get this error: java.lang.IndexOutOfBoundsException: Index: 0, Size: 0 at java.util.ArrayList.RangeCheck(ArrayList.java:547) at java.util.ArrayList.get(ArrayList.java:322) at org.hibernate.hql.ast.HqlSqlWalker.postProcessUpdate(HqlSqlWalker.java:390) at org.hibernate.hql.antlr.HqlSqlBaseWalker.statement(HqlSqlBaseWalker.java:164) at org.hibernate.hql.ast.QueryTranslatorImpl.analyze(QueryTranslatorImpl.java:189) at org.hibernate.hql.ast.QueryTranslatorImpl.doCompile(QueryTranslatorImpl.java:130) at org.hibernate.hql.ast.QueryTranslatorImpl.compile(QueryTranslatorImpl.java:83) at org.hibernate.impl.SessionFactoryImpl.getQuery(SessionFactoryImpl.java:427) at org.hibernate.impl.SessionImpl.getQueries(SessionImpl.java:884) at org.hibernate.impl.SessionImpl.executeUpdate(SessionImpl.java:865) at org.hibernate.impl.QueryImpl.executeUpdate(QueryImpl.java:89) .... what am i doing wrong here? I am using hibernate 3.0 UPDATE i changed it to Query query = s.createQuery(CHANGE_DEVICE_STATUS); query.setBoolean(1, is_active); query.setLong(2, id);//<---throws here query.executeUpdate(); without changing anything else but the parameter indexes and i got this: java.lang.IllegalArgumentException: Positional parameter does not exist: 2 in query: UPDATE DEVICE_INSTANCES SET ACTIVE = ? WHERE DEVICE_INSTANCE_ID = ? at org.hibernate.impl.AbstractQueryImpl.setParameter(AbstractQueryImpl.java:194) at org.hibernate.impl.AbstractQueryImpl.setLong(AbstractQueryImpl.java:244) ...

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  • Single website multiple connection strings using asp mvc 2 and nhibernate

    - by jjjjj
    Hi In my website i use ASP MVC 2 + Fluent NHibernate as orm, StructureMap for IoC container. There are several databases with identical metadata(and so entities and mappings are the same). On LogOn page user fiils in login, password, rememberme and chooses his server from dropdownlist (in fact he chooses database). Web.config contains all connstrings and we can assume that they won't be changed in run-time. I suppose that it is required to have one session factory per database. Before using multiple databases, i loaded classes to my StructureMap ObjectFactory in Application_Start ObjectFactory.Initialize(init => init.AddRegistry<ObjectRegistry>()); ObjectFactory.Configure(conf => conf.AddRegistry<NhibernateRegistry>()); NhibernateRegistry class: public class NhibernateRegistry : Registry { public NhibernateRegistry() { var sessionFactory = NhibernateConfiguration.Configuration.BuildSessionFactory(); For<Configuration>().Singleton().Use( NhibernateConfiguration.Configuration); For<ISessionFactory>().Singleton().Use(sessionFactory); For<ISession>().HybridHttpOrThreadLocalScoped().Use( ctx => ctx.GetInstance<ISessionFactory>().GetCurrentSession()); } } In Application_BeginRequest i bind opened nhibernate session to asp session(nhibernate session per request) and in EndRequest i unbind them: protected void Application_BeginRequest( object sender, EventArgs e) { CurrentSessionContext.Bind(ObjectFactory.GetInstance<ISessionFactory>().OpenSession()); } Q1: How can i realize what SessionFactory should i use according to authenticated user? is it something like UserData filled with database name (i use simple FormsAuthentication) For logging i use log4net, namely AdoNetAppender which contains connectionString(in xml, of course). Q2: How can i manage multiple connection strings for this database appender, so logs would be written to current database? I have no idea how to do that except changing xml all the time and reseting xml configuration, but its really bad solution.

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