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  • Fluent NHibernate auto mapping: map property from another table's column

    - by queen3
    I'm trying to use S#arp architecture... which includes Fluent NHibernate I'm newbie with (and with NHibernate too, frankly speaking). Auto mapping is used. So I have this: public class UserAction : Entity { public UserAction() { } [DomainSignature] [NotNull, NotEmpty] public virtual string Name { get; set; } [NotNull, NotEmpty] public virtual string TypeName { get; private set; } } public class UserActionMap : IAutoMappingOverride<UserAction> { public void Override(AutoMap<UserAction> mapping) { mapping.WithTable("ProgramComponents", m => m.Map(x => x.TypeName)); } } Now, table UserActions references table ProgramComponents (many to one) and I want property UserAction.TypeName to have value from db field ProgramComponents.TypeName. However, the above code fails with NHibernate.MappingException: Duplicate property mapping of TypeName found in OrderEntry3.Core.UserAction As far as I understand the problem is that TypeName is already auto-mapped... but I haven't found a way to remove the automatic mapping. Actually I think that my WithTable/Map mapping has to replace the automatic TypeName mapping, but seems like it does not. I also tried different mapping (names are different but that's all the same): mapping.WithTable("ProgramComponents", m => m.References<ProgramComponent>( x => x.Selector, "ProductSelectorID" ) and still get the same error. I can overcome this with mapping.HasOne<ProgramComponent>(x => x.Selector); but that's not what I exactly wants to do. And I still wonder why the first two methods do not work. I suspect this is because of WithTable.

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  • Open source file upload with no timeout on IIS6 with ASP, ASP.NET 2.0 or PHP5

    - by Christopher Done
    I'm after a cross-platform cross-browser way of uploading files such that there is no timeout. Uploads aren't necessarily huge -- some just take a long time to upload because of the uploader's slow connection -- but the server times out anyway. I hear that there are methods to upload files in chunks so that somehow the server decides not to timeout the upload. After searching around all I can see is proprietary upload helpers and Java and Flash (SWFUpload) widgets that aren't cross-platform, don't upload in chunks, or aren't free. I'd like a way to do it in any of these platforms (ASP, ASP.NET 2.0 or PHP5), though I am not very clued up on all this .NET class/controller/project/module/visual studio/compile/etc stuff, so some kind of runnable complete project that runs on .NET 2.0 would be helpful. PHP and ASP I can assume will be more straight-forward. Unless I am completely missing something, which I suspect/hope I am, reasonable web uploads are bloody hard work in any language or platform. So my question is: how can I perform web browser uploads, cross-platform, so that they don't timeout, using free software? Is it possible at all?

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  • Help securing files access with htaccess and php?

    - by bschaeffer
    I'm working on a site that allows users to purchase digital content and have implemented a method that attempts to serve secure downloads. I'm using CodeIgniter to force downloads like this: $file = file_get_contents($path); force_download("my_file_name.zip", $file); Of course, I make sure the user has access to the file using a database before serving the download, but I was wondering if there was a way to make these files more secure. I'm using a some 8-10 letter keys to create the file paths so urls to the files aren't exactly easy to figure out... something like http://mysite.com/as67Hgr/asdo0980/uth89.zip in lieu of http://mysite.com/downloads/my_file.zip. Also, I'm using .htaccess to deny directory browsing like so: Options All -Indexes. Other than that... I have no idea what steps to take. I've seen articles suggesting username and password methods using .htaccess, but I don't understand how to bypass the password prompt that would occur using that method. I was hoping there might be a method where I could send a username and password combination using headers and cUrl (or something similar), but I wouldn't know where to start. Any help would be hugely appreciated. Thanks in advance!

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  • Why are all objects in this extension of usercontrol null at runtime?

    - by csciguy
    All, I have a simple class. public class Container : UserControl { public bool IsClickable { get; set; } } I have a class that extends this class. public class ScrollingContainer : Container { public void Draw() { } public void Update() { } } I have a custom class, that then extends ScrollingContainer. public partial class MaskContainer : ScrollingContainer { public MaskContainer() { InitializeComponent(); } } XAML <local:ScrollingContainer x:Class="Test.Types.MaskContainer" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" xmlns:d="http://schemas.microsoft.com/expression/blend/2008" xmlns:mc="http://schemas.openxmlformats.org/markup-compatibility/2006" xmlns:local="clr-namespace:GameObjects;assembly=GameObjects" mc:Ignorable="d" > </local:ScrollingContainer> In my mainpage.xaml, I have the following. <types:MaskContainer x:Name="maskContainer" Canvas.ZIndex="1" Width="Auto" Height="Auto"> <Canvas x:Name="maskCanvas"> <Button x:Name="button1" Content="test button"/> </Canvas> </types:MaskContainer> Why, at runtime, are both maskCanvas and button1 null? maskContainer is not null. The inheritance should be straightforward here. Container inherits usercontrol. Scrollable container inherits container. Mask Container inherits scrollable container. Why am I losing the fucntionality of the original base class at this level? Is it incorrect to add the element (button1) to the maskcontainer inside of the main.xaml? My end goal is to create a container that is reusable, but inherits all properties/methods that I've specified throughout the chain. Any help is appreciated.

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  • JMS MessageCreator.createMessage() in Grails

    - by Hans Wurst
    Hi there, I am trying to implement jms to my grails application. I have several JMS consumer in a spring based enviroment listining on an ActiveMQ broker. I wrote a simple test commandline client which creates messages and receives them in an request response manner. Here is the snippet that sends a MapMessage in Spring JMS way. This works for me as long I am in my spring world. final String corrID = UUID.randomUUID().toString(); asyncJmsTemplate.send("test.RequestQ", new MessageCreator() { public Message createMessage(Session session) throws JMSException { try { MapMessage msg = session.createMapMessage(); msg.setStringProperty("json", mapper.writeValueAsString(List<of some objects>)); msg.setJMSCorrelationID(corrID); msg.setJMSReplyTo(session.createQueue("test.ReplyQ")); return msg; } catch (JsonGenerationException e) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block e.printStackTrace(); } catch (JsonMappingException e) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block e.printStackTrace(); } catch (IOException e) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block e.printStackTrace(); } return null; } }); BUT when I tried to implement this methods to my grails test app I receive some METHOD_DEF exceptions. Sending simple TextMessages via the jmsTemplate.convertAndSende(Queue, Message) provided by the JMS Plugin works. Can any one help me? Is this a common problem? Cheers Hans

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  • iphone menu navigation with buttons help requested

    - by David
    Hi, I'm trying to program an iphone app that will have several different (sub)apps. Ideally, I want to know how to make the main menu for this app look and behave like the iphone's own app menu, but I can't figure it out. If any one knows a package or library that does this, please let me know. Plan B is to mock one using UIButtons, and here is where I'm having problems. Basically, when I press a button that should push a new view, it calls the push method, but I still see the top view. in the app delegate, I have something like: AppViewController *viewController; App1ViewController *app1ViewController; UINavigationController *navController; and in didFinishLaunching method, something like: viewController = [ [ AppViewController alloc ] initWithAppDelegate: self ]; app1ViewController = [ [App1ViewController alloc ] initWithAppDelegate: self ]; navController = [ [ UINavigationController alloc ] initWithRootViewController:viewController]; [window addSubview:viewController.view]; and 2 methods -(void)app1{[ navController pushViewController: app1ViewController animated:YES ];} -(void)back{[ navController popViewControllerAnimated:YES ];} then I have 2 viewcontrollers in AppViewController.h @interface AppViewController : UIViewController { UINavigationController *navController; UIButton *appbtn1, *appbtn2, *appbtn3, *appbtn4; } -(id)initWithAppDelegate:(id)appDelegate; @end @interface App1ViewController : UIViewController { UITextView *textView; UINavigationController *navController; } -(id)initWithAppDelegate:(id)appDelegate; @end and define a loadView for each viewcontroller. However, when I press the app1 button and the app1 method gets called, it says the view hasa been pushed, but my view remains the buttons view, i.e. the root view. If I press the button again, it tells me I can't repush the app1view, the one I can't see. Any ideas? I can post the full code if that helps. Thank you for your time.

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  • UIView Controller mysteriously getting deallocated

    - by Dan Ray
    I have a UINavigation scheme with a "welcome" page, a middle page, and a detail page. In the middle page, there's a segmented controller that can swap the main body of that page between a table, a calendar, and a MKMapView, each implemented with their own view controller classes. Today I implemented the MapView and its annotations and all of that. It's nice. And a detail disclosure on each callout takes you to the detail page just the same way as if you'd gotten there via the table. Lovely. I also have a right-button-bar button that pushes in a "search" view. From there you can search the data I'm navigating. When it's done filtering the data (an array of objects I'm keeping in a data singleton), it makes the table reload its data, and calls my annotation-clearer-and-builder methods on the map view, and then pops itself out, so the "middle" page (including whatever view was in the guts of it) is back on the screen. Problem is, if I go back and forth between the map and the search a couple times, any mention of the table view causes us to crash with: *** -[CALayer retain]: message sent to deallocated instance 0x710b810. (I obviously have NSZombies turned on.) I put an NSLog in the dealloc method of my table view controller. That thing's never getting called. I don't know if we're ditching it behind the scenes for memory purposes, or if I'm leaking it and can't get my hands back on it, or what. I'm sort of at a loss about where to look. Any hints?

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  • Why is Microsoft under-supporting or under-developping VBNET?

    - by Will Marcouiller
    I ran into a situation where the lack of some features has become somewhat frustrating while developping in VB.NET 2.0. Since my first day of programming, I've always been a C programmer, and still am. Naturally, I chose C# as my favorite .NET language. Recently, a customer of mine has obliged that all of his development projects which disregard SharePoint development have to be written in VB.NET 2.0, that is to avoid conflictual systems to come into some problems. That is a legitimate choice of his which I approve somehow, since he's running some old central systems and is slowly migrating toward latest technologies. As for me, I would have prefered to go with C#, but then, never having done much VB in my life, I see it as an opportunity to learn somethings new, how to handle this and that in VBNET, etc. Except that the syntax is really too verbose for me, which is a pain! I got used to it and that is fine. However, I recently wanted to use the InternalsVisibleToAttribute which I discovered lastly here on SO. But then, in addition to not being able to have lambda expression that returns no value, which I discovered months ago, today I learn that I can't use the attribute in VBNET! Here is what I have read in an article: [...] Sorry VB.Net developers, Microsoft is again shunning you guys and this attribute is NOT available to you.... :( And here is the link: InternalsVisibleTo: Testing internal methods in .Net 2.0 I have heard from Anders Hejlsberg mouth while watching a Webcast from his presentation of .NET 4.0 Framework that the VBNET team was working or has worked in collaboration with the C# team (Eric Lippert and others) in order to bring VBNET to offer the same features as C# offers. But then, I say to myself that the VBNET team has a huge step forward to make, if already in .NET 2.0, some of the most important features lacked! So my question is this: Why is Microsoft under-supporting or under-developping VBNET? Will VBNET ever be lacking the C# features?

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  • Partial template specialization on a class

    - by Jonathan Swinney
    I'm looking for a better way to this. I have a chunk of code that needs to handle several different objects that contain different types. The structure that I have looks like this: class Base { // some generic methods } template <typename T> class TypedBase : public Base { // common code with template specialization private: std::map<int,T> mapContainingSomeDataOfTypeT; } template <> class TypedBase<std::string> : public Base { // common code with template specialization public: void set( std::string ); // functions not needed for other types std::string get(); private: std::map<int,std::string> mapContainingSomeDataOfTypeT; // some data not needed for other types } Now I need to add some additional functionality that only applies to one of the derivative classes. Specifically the std::string derivation, but the type doesn't actually matter. The class is big enough that I would prefer not copy the whole thing simply to specialize a small part of it. I need to add a couple of functions (and accessor and modifier) and modify the body of several of the other functions. Is there a better way to accomplish this?

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  • Can I copy/clone a function in JavaScript?

    - by Craig Stuntz
    I'm using jQuery with the validators plugin. I would like to replace the "required" validator with one of my own. This is easy: jQuery.validator.addMethod("required", function(value, element, param) { return myRequired(value, element, param); }, jQuery.validator.messages.required); So far, so good. This works just fine. But what I really want to do is call my function in some cases, and the default validator for the rest. Unfortunately, this turns out to be recursive: jQuery.validator.addMethod("required", function(value, element, param) { // handle comboboxes with empty guids if (someTest(element)) { return myRequired(value, element, param); } return jQuery.validator.methods.required(value, element, param); }, jQuery.validator.messages.required); I looked at the source code for the validators, and the default implementation of "required" is defined as an anonymous method at jQuery.validator.messages.required. So there is no other (non-anonymous) reference to the function that I can use. Storing a reference to the function externally before calling addMethod and calling the default validator via that reference makes no difference. What I really need to do is to be able to copy the default required validator function by value instead of by reference. But after quite a bit of searching, I can't figure out how to do that. Is it possible? If it's impossible, then I can copy the source for the original function. But that creates a maintenance problem, and I would rather not do that unless there is no "better way."

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  • Adivce on Method overloads.

    - by Muhammad Kashif Nadeem
    Please see following methods. public static ProductsCollection GetDummyData(int? customerId, int? supplierId) { try { if (customerId != null && customerId > 0) { Filter.Add(Customres.CustomerId == customerId); } if (supplierId != null && supplierId > 0) { Filter.Add(Suppliers.SupplierId == supplierId); } ProductsCollection products = new ProductsCollection(); products.FetchData(Filter); return products; } catch { throw; } } public static ProductsCollection GetDummyData(int? customerId) { return ProductsCollection GetDummyData(customerId, (int?)null); } public static ProductsCollection GetDummyData() { return ProductsCollection GetDummyData((int?)null); } 1- Please advice how can I make overloads for both CustomerId and SupplierId because only one overload can be created with GetDummyData(int? ). Should I add another argument to mention that first argument is CustomerId or SupplierId for example GetDummyData(int?, string). OR should I use enum as 2nd argument and mention that first argument is CustoemId or SupplierId. 2- Is this condition is correct or just checking 0 is sufficient - if (customerId != null && customerId 0) 3- Using Try/catch like this is correct? 4- Passing (int?)null is correct or any other better approach. Edit: I have found some other posts like this and because I have no knowledge of Generics that is why I am facing this problem. Am I right? Following is the post. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/422625/overloaded-method-calling-overloaded-method

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  • How implement the Open Session in View pattern in NHibernate?

    - by MCardinale
    I'm using ASP.NET MVC + NHibernate + Fluent NHibernate and having a problem with lazy loading. Through this question (http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2519964/how-to-fix-a-nhibernate-lazy-loading-error-no-session-or-session-was-closed), I've discovered that I have to implement the Open Session in View pattern , but I don't know how. In my repositories classes, I use methods like this public ImageGallery GetById(int id) { using(ISession session = NHibernateSessionFactory.OpenSession()) { return session.Get<ImageGallery>(id); } } public void Add(ImageGallery imageGallery) { using(ISession session = NHibernateSessionFactory.OpenSession()) { using(ITransaction transaction = session.BeginTransaction()) { session.Save(imageGallery); transaction.Commit(); } } } And this is my Session Factory helper class: public class NHibernateSessionFactory { private static ISessionFactory _sessionFactory; private static ISessionFactory SessionFactory { get { if(_sessionFactory == null) { _sessionFactory = Fluently.Configure() .Database(MySQLConfiguration.Standard.ConnectionString(MyConnString)) .Mappings(m => m.FluentMappings.AddFromAssemblyOf<ImageGalleryMap>()) .ExposeConfiguration(c => c.Properties.Add("hbm2ddl.keywords", "none")) .BuildSessionFactory(); } return _sessionFactory; } } public static ISession OpenSession() { return SessionFactory.OpenSession(); } } Someone could help me to implements Open Session in View pattern? Thank you.

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  • Backwards compatibility when using Core Data

    - by Alex
    Could anybody shed some light as to why is my app crashing with the following error on iPhone OS 2.2.1 dyld: Symbol not found: _OBJC_CLASS_$_NSPredicate Referenced from: /var/mobile/Applications/456F243F-468A-4969-9BB7-A4DF993AE89C/AppName.app/AppName Expected in: /System/Library/Frameworks/Foundation.framework/Foundation I have weak linked CoreData.framework, and have the Base SDK set to 3.0 and Deployment Target set to SDK 2.2 The app already uses other 3.0 features when available and I did not have any problems with those. But apparently the backward-compatibility methods used for other features do not work with Core Data. The app crashes before app delegate's applicationDidFinishLaunching gets called. Here's the debugger log: [Session started at 2010-05-25 20:17:03 -0400.] GNU gdb 6.3.50-20050815 (Apple version gdb-1119) (Thu May 14 05:35:37 UTC 2009) Copyright 2004 Free Software Foundation, Inc. GDB is free software, covered by the GNU General Public License, and you are welcome to change it and/or distribute copies of it under certain conditions. Type "show copying" to see the conditions. There is absolutely no warranty for GDB. Type "show warranty" for details. This GDB was configured as "--host=i386-apple-darwin --target=arm-apple-darwin".tty /dev/ttys001 Loading program into debugger… sharedlibrary apply-load-rules all warning: Unable to read symbols from "MessageUI" (not yet mapped into memory). warning: Unable to read symbols from "CoreData" (not yet mapped into memory). Program loaded. target remote-mobile /tmp/.XcodeGDBRemote-12038-42 Switching to remote-macosx protocol mem 0x1000 0x3fffffff cache mem 0x40000000 0xffffffff none mem 0x00000000 0x0fff none run Running… [Switching to thread 10755] [Switching to thread 10755] Re-enabling shared library breakpoint 1 Re-enabling shared library breakpoint 2 Re-enabling shared library breakpoint 3 Re-enabling shared library breakpoint 4 Re-enabling shared library breakpoint 5 (gdb) continue warning: Unable to read symbols for ""/Users/alex/iPhone Projects/AppName/build/Debug-iphoneos"/AppName.app/AppName" (file not found). dyld: Symbol not found: _OBJC_CLASS_$_NSPredicate Referenced from: /var/mobile/Applications/456F243F-468A-4969-9BB7-A4DF993AE89C/AppName.app/AppName Expected in: /System/Library/Frameworks/Foundation.framework/Foundation (gdb)

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  • Rails: Custom template for email "deliver_" method?

    - by neezer
    I'm building an email system that stores my different emails in the database and calls the appropriate "deliver_" method via method_missing (since I can't explicitly declare methods since they're user-generated). My problem is that my rails app still tries to render the template for whatever the generated email is, though those templates don't exist. I want to force all emails to use the same template (views/test_email.html.haml), which will be setup to draw their formatting from my database records. How can I accomplish this? I tried adding render :template => 'test_email' in the test_email method in emailer_controller with no luck. models/emailer.rb: class Emailer < ActionMailer::Base def method_missing(method, *args) # not been implemented yet logger.info "method missing was called!!" end end controller/emailer_controller.rb: class EmailerController < ApplicationController def test_email @email = Email.find(params[:id]) Emailer.send("deliver_#{@email.name}") end end views/emails/index.html.haml: %h1 Listing emails %table{ :cellspacing => 0 } %tr %th Name %th Subject - @emails.each do |email| %tr %td=h email.name %td=h email.subject %td= link_to 'Show', email %td= link_to 'Edit', edit_email_path(email) %td= link_to 'Send Test Message', :controller => 'emailer', :action => 'test_email', :params => { :id => email.id } %td= link_to 'Destroy', email, :confirm => 'Are you sure?', :method => :delete %p= link_to 'New email', new_email_path Error I'm getting with the above: Template is missing Missing template emailer/name_of_email_in_database.erb in view path app/views

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  • How do I create Twitter style URL's for my app - Using existing application or app redesign - Ruby o

    - by bgadoci
    I have developed a blog application of sorts that I am trying to allow other users to take advantage of (for free and mostly for family). I wondering if the authentication I have set up will allow for such a thing. Here is the scenario. Currently the application allows for users to sign up for an account and when they do so they can create blog posts and organize those posts via tags. The application displays no data publicly (another words, you have to login to see anything). To gain access you have to create an account and even after you do, you cannot see anyone else's information as the applications filters using the current_user method and displays in the /posts/index.html.erb page. This would be great if a user only wanted to blog and share it with themselves, not really what I am looking for. My question has two parts (hopefully I won't make anyone mad by not putting these into two questions) Is it possible for a particular users data to live at www.myapplication.com/user without moving everything to the /user/show.html.erb file? Is it possible to make some of that information (living at the URL) public but still require login for create and destroy actions. Essentially, exactly like twitter. I am just curious if I can get from where I am (using the current_user methods across controllers to display in /posts/index.html.erb) to where I want to be. My fear is that I have to redesign the app such that the user data lives in the /user/show.html.erb page. Thoughts?

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  • How do I create Twitter style URLs for my app - Using existing application or app redesign - Ruby on

    - by bgadoci
    I have developed a blog application of sorts that I am trying to allow other users to take advantage of (for free and mostly for family). I wondering if the authentication I have set up will allow for such a thing. Here is the scenario. Currently the application allows for users to sign up for an account and when they do so they can create blog posts and organize those posts via tags. The application displays no data publicly (another words, you have to login to see anything). To gain access you have to create an account and even after you do, you cannot see anyone else's information as the applications filters using the current_user method and displays in the /posts/index.html.erb page. This would be great if a user only wanted to blog and share it with themselves, not really what I am looking for. My question has two parts (hopefully I won't make anyone mad by not putting these into two questions) Is it possible for a particular users data to live at www.myapplication.com/user without moving everything to the /user/show.html.erb file? Is it possible to make some of that information (living at the URL) public but still require login for create and destroy actions. Essentially, exactly like twitter. I am just curious if I can get from where I am (using the current_user methods across controllers to display in /posts/index.html.erb) to where I want to be. My fear is that I have to redesign the app such that the user data lives in the /user/show.html.erb page. Thoughts? UPDATE: I am using Clearance for authentication by Thoughtbot. I wonder if there is something I can set in the vendored gem path to represent the /posts/index.html.erb code as the /user/id code and replace id with the user name.

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  • wxPython, Threads, and PostEvent between modules

    - by Sam Starling
    I'm relatively new to wxPython (but not Python itself), so forgive me if I've missed something here. I'm writing a GUI application, which at a very basic level consists of "Start" and "Stop" buttons that start and stop a thread. This thread is an infinite loop, which only ends when the thread is stopped. The loop generates messages, which at the moment are just output using print. The GUI class and the infinite loop (using threading.Thread as a subclass) are held in separate files. What is the best way to get the thread to push an update to something like a TextCtrl in the GUI? I've been playing around with PostEvent and Queue, but without much luck. Here's some bare bones code, with portions removed to keep it concise: main_frame.py import wx from loop import Loop class MainFrame(wx.Frame): def __init__(self, parent, title): # Initialise and show GUI # Add two buttons, btnStart and btnStop # Bind the two buttons to the following two methods self.threads = [] def onStart(self): x = Loop() x.start() self.threads.append(x) def onStop(self): for t in self.threads: t.stop() loop.py class Loop(threading.Thread): def __init__(self): self._stop = threading.Event() def run(self): while not self._stop.isSet(): print datetime.date.today() def stop(self): self._stop.set() I did, at one point, have it working by having the classes in the same file by using wx.lib.newevent.NewEvent() along these lines. If anyone could point me in the right direction, that'd be much appreciated.

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  • PHP - Database schema: version control, branching, migrations.

    - by Billiam
    I'm trying to come up with (or find) a reusable system for database schema versioning in php projects. There are a number of Rails-style migration projects available for php. http://code.google.com/p/mysql-php-migrations/ is a good example. It uses timestamps for migration files, which helps with conflicts between branches. General problem with this kind of system: When development branch A is checked out, and you want to check out branch B instead, B may have new migration files. This is fine, migrating to newer content is straight forward. If branch A has newer migration files, you would need to migrate downwards to the nearest shared patch. If branch A and B have significantly different code bases, you may have to migrate down even further. This may mean: Check out B, determine shared patch number, check out A, migrate downwards to this patch. This must be done from A since the actual applied patches are not available in B. Then, checkout branch B, and migrate to newest B patch. Reverse process again when going from B to A. Proposed system: When migrating upwards, instead of just storing the patch version, serialize the whole patch in database for later use, though I'd probably only need the down() method. When changing branches, compare patches that have been run to patches that are available in the destination branch. Determine nearest shared patch (or oldest difference, maybe) between db table of run patches and patches in destination branch by ID or hash. Could also look for new or missing patches that are buried under a number of shared patches between the two branches. Automatically merge down to the nearest shared patch, using the db table stored down() methods, and then merge up to the branche's latest patch. My question is: Is this system too crazy and/or fraught with consequences to bother developing? My experience with database schema versioning is limited to PHP autopatch, which is an up()-only system requiring filenames with sequential IDs.

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  • Stall in animation

    - by tech74
    Hi , I am using this code from this site http://ramin.firoozye.com/2009/09/29/semi-modal-transparent-dialogs-on-the-iphone/ to show a modal view and remove it. It displays fine ie drops in from the top but when being removed it stalls just on its way out just for a fraction of second but its noticeable how do i get rid of the stall. The view i am showing is view of a viewcontroller which is a memeber of the parent viewcontroller so i call methods like this to display [self showModal:self.modalController.view] to hide [self hideModal:self.modalController.view]; (void) showModal:(UIView*) modalView { UIWindow* mainWindow = (((SessionTalkAppDelegate*) [UIApplication sharedApplication].delegate).window); //CGPoint middleCenter = modalView.center; CGPoint middleCenter = CGPointMake(160, 205); CGSize offSize = [UIScreen mainScreen].bounds.size; //CGPoint offScreenCenter = CGPointMake(offSize.width / 2.0, offSize.height * 1.5); CGPoint offScreenCenter = CGPointMake(offSize.width / 2.0, -100); // start from top modalView.center = offScreenCenter; // we start off-screen [mainWindow addSubview:modalView]; // Show it with a transition effect [UIView beginAnimations:nil context:nil]; [UIView setAnimationDuration:0.3]; // animation duration in seconds [UIView setAnimationCurve:UIViewAnimationCurveEaseInOut]; modalView.center = middleCenter; [UIView commitAnimations]; } // Use this to slide the semi-modal back up. - (void) hideModal:(UIView*) modalView { CGSize offSize = [UIScreen mainScreen].bounds.size; //CGPoint offScreenCenter = CGPointMake(offSize.width / 2.0, offSize.height * 1.5); CGPoint offScreenCenter = CGPointMake(offSize.width / 2.0, -100); [UIView beginAnimations:nil context:modalView]; [UIView setAnimationDuration:0.3]; [UIView setAnimationCurve:UIViewAnimationCurveEaseInOut]; [UIView setAnimationDelegate:self]; [UIView setAnimationDidStopSelector:@selector(hideModalEnded:finished:context:)]; modalView.center = offScreenCenter; [UIView commitAnimations]; } (void) hideModalEnded:(NSString *)animationID finished:(NSNumber *)finished context:(void )context { UIView modalView = (UIView *)context; [modalView removeFromSuperview]; //[modalView release]; }

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  • Doing large updates against indexed view

    - by user217136
    We have an indexed view that runs across three large tables. Two of these tables (A & B) are constantly getting updated with user transactions and the other table (C) contains data product info that is needs to be updated once a week. This product table contains over 6 million records. We need this view across these three tables for our core business process and unfortunately we cannot change this aspect. We even had a sql server MVP come in to help test under load to make sure we have the most efficient configuration. There is one column in the product table that gets utilized in the view and has to be updated each week. The problem we are now encountering is that as volume is increasing on our transactions against tables A & B, the update to Table C is causing deadlocks. I have tried several different methods to no avail: 1) I was hoping that we could change the view so that table C could be a dirty read "WITH (NOLOCK)" but apparently that functionality is not available with indexes views. 2) I thought about updating a new column in Table C and then just renaming it when the process is done but you cannot do that due to the dependency in the view. 3) I also entertained the idea of writing this value to a temporary product table, and then running an ALTER statement against the view to have it point to my new table. however when i did that the indexes on my view were dropped and it took quite a bit of time to recreate them. 4) we tried to do the weekly update in small chunks (as small as 100 records at a time) but we still run into dead locks. questions: a) we are using sql server 2005. Does sql server 2008 have a new functionality with their indexed views that would help us? Is there now a way to do dirty reads w/ an indexed view? b) a better approach to altering an existing view to point to a new table? thanks!

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  • Why ClassCastException on JMS ConnectionFactory lookup in JNDI?

    - by Derek Mahar
    What might be the cause of the following ClassCastException in a standalone JMS client application when it attempts to retrieve a connection factory from the JNDI provider? Exception in thread "main" java.lang.ClassCastException: javax.naming.Reference cannot be cast to javax.jms.ConnectionFactory Here is an abbreviated version of the JMS client that includes only its start() and stop() methods. The exception occurs on the first line in method start() which attempts to retrieve the connection factory from the JNDI provider, a remote LDAP server. The JMS connection factory and destination objects are on a remote JMS server. class JmsClient { private ConnectionFactory connectionFactory; private Connection connection; private Session session; private MessageConsumer consumer; private Topic topic; public void stop() throws JMSException { consumer.close(); session.close(); connection.close(); } public void start(Context context, String connectionFactoryName, String topicName) throws NamingException, JMSException { // ClassCastException occurs when retrieving connection factory. connectionFactory = (ConnectionFactory) context.lookup(connectionFactoryName); connection = connectionFactory.createConnection("username","password"); session = connection.createSession(false, Session.AUTO_ACKNOWLEDGE); topic = (Topic) context.lookup(topicName); consumer = session.createConsumer(topic); connection.start(); } private static Context getInitialContext() throws NamingException, IOException { String filename = "context.properties"; Properties props = new Properties(); props.load(new FileInputStream(filename)); return new InitialContext(props); } }

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  • SQL Server: Is it possible to prevent SQL Agent from failing a step on error?

    - by Kenneth
    I have a stored procedure that runs custom backups for around 60 SQL servers (mixes 2000 through 2008R2). Occasionally, due to issues outside of my control (backup device inaccessible, network error, etc.) an individual backup on one or two databases will fail. This causes this entire step to fail, which means any subsequent backup commands are not executed and half of the databases on a given server may not be backed up. On the 2005+ boxes I am using TRY/CATCH blocks to manage these problems and continue backing up the remaining databases. On a 2000 server however, for example, I have no way to prevent this error from failing the entire step: Msg 3201, Level 16, State 1, Line 1 Cannot open backup device 'db-diff(\PATH\DB-DIFF-03-16-2010.DIF)'. Operating system error 5(Access is denied.). Msg 3013, Level 16, State 1, Line 1 BACKUP DATABASE is terminating abnormally. I am simply asking if anything like TRY/CATCH is possible in SQL 2000? I realize there are no built in methods for this, so I guess I am looking for some creativity. Even when wrapping each backup (or any failing statement) via sp_executesql the job fails instantly. Example: DECLARE @x INT, @iReturn INT PRINT 'Executing statement that will fail with 208.' EXEC @iReturn = Sp_executesql N'SELECT * from TABLETHATDOESNTEXIST;' PRINT Cast(@iReturn AS NVARCHAR) --In SSMS this return code prints. Executed as a job it fails and aborts before this statement.

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  • Trouble parsing quotes with SAX parser (javax.xml.parsers.SAXParser)

    - by johnrock
    When using a SAX parser, parsing fails when there is a " in the node content. How can I resolve this? Do I need to convert all " characters? In other words, anytime I have a quote in a node: <node>characters in node containing "quotes"</node> That node gets butchered into multiple character arrays when the Handler is parsing it. Is this normal behaviour? Why should quotes cause such a problem? Here is the code I am using: import javax.xml.parsers.SAXParser; import javax.xml.parsers.SAXParserFactory; import org.apache.http.HttpEntity; import org.apache.http.HttpResponse; import org.apache.http.client.methods.HttpGet; import org.xml.sax.InputSource; import org.xml.sax.XMLReader; ... HttpGet httpget = new HttpGet(GATEWAY_URL + "/"+ question.getId()); httpget.setHeader("User-Agent", PayloadService.userAgent); httpget.setHeader("Content-Type", "application/xml"); HttpResponse response = PayloadService.getHttpclient().execute(httpget); HttpEntity entity = response.getEntity(); if(entity != null) { SAXParserFactory spf = SAXParserFactory.newInstance(); SAXParser sp = spf.newSAXParser(); XMLReader xr = sp.getXMLReader(); ConvoHandler convoHandler = new ConvoHandler(); xr.setContentHandler(convoHandler); xr.parse(new InputSource(entity.getContent())); entity.consumeContent(); messageList = convoHandler.getMessageList(); }

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  • Object created in Interface Builder getting dealloc'ed too soon

    - by Collin Allen
    The Project I'm working on a relatively simple iPhone OS project that's navigation controller based, with a root table view and a detail table view. Tap an item in the main list to see its details in a pushed table view. The Setup I broke out the data source for both views into their own objects so as not to muddy the purpose of a view controller. Having done this, the table views no longer have data sources since those methods are now in separate files, so I created an instance of each data source class in the appropriate XIB files with the Object item (dragged it in, then set its class). Then, to actually connect the tableviews to their data sources, I set the dataSource outlet of each tableview to the yellow data source object in Interface Builder. The table view delegates are still set to their view controllers. The Problem The root table view works just fine, but when you tap a row to push to the detail view, the data source object gets instantiated as expected, then immediately dealloc'ed, causing a crash (numberOfSectionsInTableView: gets called on the freed object). I can't figure out why the data source is getting automatically dealloc-ed when I need it right then and there for the detail view, as indicated by my data source object creation and tableview connection in Interface Builder. What's more perplexing is that the very approach works fine for the root tableview! The Question Is there anything obvious I'm missing that would cause this to happen? Or, is this even the right way to instantiate a data source for a table view controller? It seems like poor object oriented programming to do it from within the view controller, which should only be concerned with the view. I could cram everything in two table view controller classes and it would probably work, but it would not be as modular as I'd like. Thanks!

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  • Java reflection

    - by heldopslippers
    Hi people. I have a question about reflection I am trying to have some kind of eval() method. So i can call for example: eval("test('woohoo')"); Now I understand the there is no eval method in java but there is reflection. I made the following code: String s = "test"; Class cl = Class.forName("Main"); Method method = cl.getMethod(s, String.class); method.invoke(null, "woohoo"); This works perfectly (of course there is a try, catch block around this code). It runs the test method. However I want to call multiple methods who all have different parameters. I don't know what parameters these are (so not only String.class). But how is this possible? how can I get the parameter types of a method ? I know of the following method: Class[] parameterTypes = method.getParameterTypes(); But that will return the parameterTypes of the method I just selected! with the following statement: Method method = cl.getMethod(s, String.class); Any help would be appreciated !

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