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  • Programatic re-evalutation of MVVM command's "can execute" state

    - by dzs
    Hello! I'm writing a WPF application using the MVVM pattern, based on the following article: WPF Apps With The Model-View-ViewModel Design Pattern I have two buttons on my View with the buttons' "Command" property bound (with data binding) to a given instance of the RelayCommand class (see "Figure 3 The RelayCommand Class" from the article above). The RelayCommand class has support for checking whether the given command can be executed. WPF automatically disables buttons whose command cannot be executed. Each of my commands (in the ViewModel class) start a background operation, and the command cannot be executed again until the background operation is finished. The RelayCommand instances have information whether the background operation is still working or it is finished. My problem is the following: after pressing the any of the buttons, the buttons automaticaly go disabled (which is OK) because the background operation started and the command cannot be executed until it is finished, but after the operation had finished, the buttons don't go enabled automatically because their command's "can be executed" predicate is not automatically reevaluated. The reevaluation can be manually triggered by having the application loose and regain focus (by pressing ALT+TAB). After doing this trick, the buttons get enabled once again. How can I programatically reevaluate the buttons' command's "can execute" state?

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  • BASH if conditions

    - by Daniil
    Hi, I did ask a question before. The answer made sense, but I could never get it to work. And now I gotta get it working. But I cannot figure out BASH's if statements. What am I doing wrong below: START_TIME=9 STOP_TIME=17 HOUR=$((`date +"%k"`)) if [[ "$HOUR" -ge "9" ]] && [[ "$HOUR" -le "17" ]] && [[ "$2" != "-force" ]] ; then echo "Cannot run this script without -force at this time" exit 1 fi The idea is that I don't want this script to continue executing, unless forced to, during hours of 9am to 5pm. But it will always evaluate the condition to true and thus won't allow me to run the script. ./script.sh [action] (-force) Thx Edit: The output of set -x: $ ./test2.sh restart + START_TIME=9 + STOP_TIME=17 ++ date +%k + HOUR=11 + [[ 11 -ge 9 ]] + [[ 11 -le 17 ]] + [[ '' != \-\f\o\r\c\e ]] + echo 'Cannot run this script without -force at this time' Cannot run this script without -force at this time + exit 1 and then with -force $ ./test2.sh restart -force + START_TIME=9 + STOP_TIME=17 ++ date +%k + HOUR=11 + [[ 11 -ge 9 ]] + [[ 11 -le 17 ]] + [[ '' != \-\f\o\r\c\e ]] + echo 'Cannot run this script without -force at this time' Cannot run this script without -force at this time + exit 1

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  • Applescript from Mac App says "Expected end of line but found \U201c\"\U201d."

    - by Rasmus Styrk
    I am trying to perform a copy/paste for my to the the last active app, here's my code: NSString *appleScriptSource = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"\ntell application \"%@\" to activate\ntell application \"System Events\" to tell process \"%@\"\nkeystroke \"v\" using command down\nend tell", [lastApp localizedName], [lastApp localizedName]]; NSDictionary *error; NSAppleScript *aScript = [[NSAppleScript alloc] initWithSource:appleScriptSource]; NSAppleEventDescriptor *aDescriptor = [aScript executeAndReturnError:&error]; The problem is that on some computers it works just fine, but on others it fails. My error output from error that is returned by executeAndReturnError is: 2012-06-13 17:43:19.875 Mini Translator[1206:303] (null) (error: { NSAppleScriptErrorBriefMessage = "Expected end of line but found \U201c\"\U201d."; NSAppleScriptErrorMessage = "Expected end of line but found \U201c\"\U201d."; NSAppleScriptErrorNumber = "-2741"; NSAppleScriptErrorRange = "NSRange: {95, 1}"; }) I can't seem to figure out what it means or why it happens. We tried copying the generated apple-script code into the Apple Script editor, and here it works just fine. My App is sandboxed - i have added the bundle identifiers for the key "com.apple.security.temporary-exception.apple-events" for the apps i want to support. Any suggestions?

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  • Possible to recover mysql root pass with sudo server access?

    - by jonathonmorgan
    I've inherited development for a website on vps hosting, and have login info for a user with sudo privileges, but don't have the password for the mysql root user. After digging around a little, it looks like the only way to fix this is to stop mysql (something like this: http://waoewaoe.wordpress.com/2010/02/03/recover-reset-mysql-root-password/). But because the website it's serving is currently in production, I'm hoping you guys can enlighten me to any potential consequences (or let me know if there's typically a file where the password would be accessible). a) during the time mysql is stopped, information in the database won't be accessible, right -- even by other users? b) will resetting the root password have any impact on other users after mysql has restarted? Will their username/passwords still be valid? The current application is using an account with limited privileges to read/write to the database, and while 5min downtime in the middle of the night would probably go unnoticed, half a day while I tie up loose ends/figure out what I screwed up will land in me hot water. Thanks in advance for your help!

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  • Calling MethodBase's Invoke on a constructor (reflection)

    - by Alix
    Hi everyone. First of all, sorry if this has been asked before. I've done a pretty comprehensive search and found nothing quite like it, but I may have missed something. And now to the question: I'm trying to invoke a constructor through reflection, with no luck. Basically, I have an object that I want to clone, so I look up the copy constructor for its type and then want to invoke it. Here's what I have: public Object clone(Object toClone) { MethodBase copyConstructor = type.GetConstructor( new Type[] { toClone.GetType() }); return method.Invoke(toClone, new object[] { toClone }); //<-- doesn't work } I call the above method like so: List list = new List(new int[] { 0, 1, 2 }); List clone = (List) clone(list); Now, notice the invoke method I'm using is MethodBase's invoke. ConstructorInfo provides an invoke method that does work if invoked like this: return ((ConstructorInfo) method).Invoke(new object[] { toClone }); However, I want to use MethodBase's method, because in reality instead of looking up the copy constructor every time I will store it in a dictionary, and the dictionary contains both methods and constructors, so it's a Dictionary<MethodBase>, not Dictionary<ConstructorInfo>. I could of course cast to ConstructorInfo as I do above, but I'd rather avoid the casting and use the MethodBase method directly. I just can't figure out the right parameters. Any help? Thanks so much.

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  • sIFR header with inside span

    - by Pokepoke
    I've got the following situation: <h2>This text is <span>pretty awesome</span></h2> I'm trying to give both a different style like this (only the css): h2 { font-size: 21px; text-transform: uppercase; line-height: 37px; height: 36px; text-align: right; margin-right: 10px; } h2 span { font-size: 16px; color: #666666; text-transform: lowercase; } Now just calling this like the following things doenst work and only displays the general H2 style: sIFR.replace(headache, { selector: 'h2', css: ['.sIFR-root { stylesforh2 } '], wmode: 'transparent' }); sIFR.replace(headache, { selector: 'h2 span', css: ['.sIFR-root { stylesforspan } '], wmode: 'transparent' }); neither does this work: sIFR.replace(headache, { selector: 'h2', css: ['.sIFR-root { stylesforh2 }, span { stylesforspan} '], wmode: 'transparent' }); I'm a sIFR firsttimer and I'm problably doing something silly wrong, but I cant figure it out. Can someone tell me how its done properly? Using sIFRT version 3, revision 436. Tnx in advance

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  • Problem with JMX query of Coherence node MBeans visible in JConsole

    - by Quinn Taylor
    I'm using JMX to build a custom tool for monitoring remote Coherence clusters at work. I'm able to connect just fine and query MBeans directly, and I've acquired nearly all the information I need. However, I've run into a snag when trying to query MBeans for specific caches within a cluster, which is where I can find stats about total number of gets/puts, average time for each, etc. The MBeans I'm trying to access programatically are visible when I connect to the remote process using JConsole, and have names like this: Coherence:type=Cache,service=SequenceQueue,name=SEQ%GENERATOR,nodeId=1,tier=back It would make it more flexible if I can dynamically grab all type=Cache MBeans for a particular node ID without specifying all the caches. I'm trying to query them like this: QueryExp specifiedNodeId = Query.eq(Query.attr("nodeId"), Query.value(nodeId)); QueryExp typeIsCache = Query.eq(Query.attr("type"), Query.value("Cache")); QueryExp cacheNodes = Query.and(specifiedNodeId, typeIsCache); ObjectName coherence = new ObjectName("Coherence:*"); Set<ObjectName> cacheMBeans = mBeanServer.queryMBeans(coherence, cacheNodes); However, regardless of whether I use queryMBeans() or queryNames(), the query returns a Set containing... ...0 objects if I pass the arguments shown above ...0 objects if I pass null for the first argument ...all MBeans in the Coherence:* domain (112) if I pass null for the second argument ...every single MBean (128) if I pass null for both arguments The first two results are the unexpected ones, and suggest a problem in the QueryExp I'm passing, but I can't figure out what the problem is. I even tried just passing typeIsCache or specifiedNodeId for the second parameter (with either coherence or null as the first parameter) and I always get 0 results. I'm pretty green with JMX — any insight on what the problem is? (FYI, the monitoring tool will be run on Java 5, so things like JMX 2.0 won't help me at this point.)

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  • How do you go about finding out whether an idea you've had has already been patented?

    - by Iain Fraser
    I have an idea for image copy-protection that I'm in the process of coding up and plan on selling to one of my clients who sells images online. If successful I think there would be a lot of people in a similar situation to my client who would be interested in the code also. I think this is a fairly unique idea that could be packaged into a saleable product - but if I did do this, I wouldn't want some big corporation decending on me with their lawyers after all my hard work. So before I put too much work into this I'd really like to know how I'd go about finding if this idea has been patented already and whether I'd get in trouble if I sold my product and if it would be worthwhile patenting the idea myself. Although I find the idea of software patenting abhorrent, it would be more to protect myself from the usual suspects than to stop fellow-developers from using the idea (if it is in fact a worthwhile one). I live in Australia, so an idea of who to go and see and a ball park figure of how much money I'd be looking at having to pay would be fantastic (in orders of a magnitude: 100s, 1000s, 10s of thousands of dollars, etc). Cheers Iain

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  • Deploying .NET COM dll, getting error (0x80070002)

    - by Brett
    I have a .NET COM assembly I am attempting to deploy to a web server (IIS 6 Win 2003). We have successfully deployed this assembly to our test environment, but the production environment is not working. The assembly is being called from a classic ASP page. Every time that page tries to initialize the assembly with “Set LTMRender = CreateObject("LTMRender.Render")”, I get an error “Error Type:, (0x80070002)”. This error seems to indicate a permission denied, or file not found type problem. I created a test app to see if the assembly works outside of the web page. The .exe initializes the assembly, and then makes a call designed to fail which in turn causes the assembly to produce a log file. It works if I run the .exe in the same folder as the assembly, but fails if I run it elsewhere. For some reason, the assembly is not accessible from outside it’s folder. I can’t figure out why this won’t work. Things I have confirmed: The deployment folder has adequate permissions. We have confirmed that the folder the assembly in installed in has the correct permissions for all the necessary user accounts. The Assembly is signed with a strong name, and was registered with regasm.exe C:_WebSites\LTMRender\LTMRender.dll /codebase /tlb:C:_WebSites\LTMRender\LTMRender.tlb. Regasm reported success. The Assembly has the attribute and relevant GUID’s set correctly. Any tips? EDIT We ran filemon against my testapp.exe and it seems to have indicated what the problem is. When testapp.exe runs in D:_websites\DocWebV2\ or D:_websites\DocWebV2\ LTMRender\ folder, it succeeds and filemon is showing D:_websites\DocWebV2\LTMRender\pinPDF.dll SUCCESS If I run my testapp.exe in the D:_websites\DocWebV2\Client – where my asp pages run, it shows D:_websites\DocWebV2\pinPDF.dll NAME NOT FOUND and then D:_websites\DocWebV2\pinPDF\pinPDF.dll FILE NOT FOUND I’m not sure why it is not looking in the correct folder if it’s under this particular folder only.

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  • ASP.NET MVC: How to validate an Ajax form with a specified UpdateTargetID?

    - by Bryan Roth
    I'm trying to figure out how to show validation errors after a user submits an Ajax form that has its UpdateTargetID property set. I'm stumped on how to update the Ajax form with the validation errors without returning the Create PartialView into the results div. If the form is valid, then it should return the Records PartialView. Create.ascx <% Using Ajax.BeginForm("Create", "Record", New Record With {.UserID = Model.UserID}, New AjaxOptions With { .UpdateTargetId = "results", .LoadingElementId = "loader" })%> Date Located <%= Html.TextBoxFor(Function(model) model.DateLocated)%> <%= Html.ValidationMessageFor(Function(model) model.DateLocated) %> Description <%= Html.TextBoxFor(Function(model) model.Description)%> <%= Html.ValidationMessageFor(Function(model) model.Description) %> <input id="btnSave" type="submit" value="Create" /> <span id="loader" class="loader">Saving...</span> <%End Using%> Records.ascx <div id="results"> ... </div> RecordController.vb Function Create(ByVal newRecord As Record) As ActionResult ValidateRecord(newRecord) If Not ModelState.IsValid Then Return PartialView("Create", newRecord) End If _repository.Add(newRecord) _repository.Save() Dim user = _repository.GetUser(newRecord.UserID) Return PartialView("Records", user) End Function

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  • StructureMap resolve dependency through injection instead of service location

    - by Chris Marisic
    In my project I register many ISerializers implementations with the assembly scanner. FWIW this is the code that registers my ISerializers Scan(scanner => { scanner.AssemblyContainingType<ISerializer>(); scanner.AddAllTypesOf<ISerializer>().NameBy(type => type.Name); scanner.WithDefaultConventions(); }); Which then correctly registers ISerializer (...ISerializer) Scoped as: Transient JsonSerializer Configured Instance of ...JsonSerializer BsonSerializer Configured Instance of ...BsonSerializer And so forth. Currently the only way I've been able to figure out how to resolve the serializer I want is to hardcode a service location call with jsonSerializer = ObjectFactory.GetNamedInstance<ISerializer>("JsonSerializer"); Now I know in my class that I specifically want the jsonSerializer so is there a way to configure a rule or similar that says for ISerializer's to connect the named instance based on the property name? So that I could have MySomeClass(ISerializer jsonSerializer, ....) And StructureMap correctly resolve this scenario? Or am I approaching this wrong and perhaps I should just register the concrete type that implements ISerializer and then just specifically use MySomeClass(JsonSerializer jsonSerializer, ....) for something along these lines with the concrete class?

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  • How to access empty ASP.NET ListView.ListViewItem to apply a style after all databinding is done?

    - by Caroline S.
    We're using a ListView with a GroupTemplate to create a three-column navigation menu with six items in each column, filling in two non-data-bound rows in the last column with an EmptyItemTemplate that contains an empty HTML list item. That part works fine, but I also need to programmatically add a CSS class to the sixth (last) item in each column. That part is also working fine for the first two columns because I'm assigning the CSS class in the DataBound event, where I can iterate through the ListView.Items collection and access the sixth item in the first two columns by using a modulus operator and counter. The problem comes in the last column, where the EmptyItemTemplate has correctly filled in two empty list items, to the last of which I also need to add this CSS class. The empty items are not included in the ListView.Items collection (that's just ListViewDataItems, and the empty items are ListViewItems). I cannot find a way to access the entire collection of ListViewItems after binding. Am I missing something? I know I can access the empty items during ItemCreated, but I can't figure out how to determine where the item I'm creating falls in the flow, and whether it's the last one. Any help would be appreciated, if this can even be done -- I'm a bit stuck.

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  • url rewrite & redirect question

    - by Shawn
    Say currently I have url like : http://mydomain.com/showpost.php?p=123 Now I want to make it prettier : http://mydomain.com/123/post-title I'm using apache rewrite which grabs segment '123' and put the url back to http://mydomain.com/showpost.php?p=123 OK. Here is the problem. I want to redirect the original non-pretty urls which were indexed by Google to the pretty versions, I want this because I heard that Google may punish me if he sees multiple urls pointing to identical content. So I need to redirect /showpost.php?p=123 to /123/post-title This I have to do in my php code coz there's no way Apache to be able to figure out the 'post-title', but if I put the redirect code in php code, then it will be a infinite loop, such as : Request : /showpost.php?p=123 redirected to : /123/post-title rewritten to: /showpost.php?p=123 redirected again to : /123/post-title ... So on and so forth. Sorry I should Google the solution first but I really don't know how to describe my situation in English to make Google return reasonable results. Please help me. Thanks.

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  • C# Using Enumerable Range and Except with custom class to determine missing sequence number

    - by Jon
    I have a List<MyClass> The class is like this: private class MyClass { public string Name{ get; set; } public int SequenceNumber { get; set; } } I want to work out what Sequence numbers might be missing. I can see how to do this here however because this is a class I am unsure what to do? I think I can handle the except method ok with my own IComparer but the Range method I can't figure out because it only excepts int so this doesn't compile: Enumerable.Range(0, 1000000).Except(chqList, MyEqualityComparer<MyClass>); Here is the IComparer: public class MyEqualityComparer<T> : IEqualityComparer<T> where T : MyClass { #region IEqualityComparer<T> Members public bool Equals(T x, T y) { return (x == null && y == null) || (x != null && y != null && x.SequenceNumber.Equals(y.SequenceNumber)); } /// </exception> public int GetHashCode(T obj) { if (obj == null) { throw new ArgumentNullException("obj"); } return obj.GetHashCode(); } #endregion }

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  • Web Workers - Transferable Objects for JSON

    - by kclem06
    HTML 5 Web workers are very slow when using worker.postMessage on a large JSON object. I'm trying to figure out how to transfer a JSON Object to a web worker - using the 'Transferable Objects' types in Chrome, in order to increase the speed of this. Here is what I'm referring to and appears it should speed this up quite a bit: http://updates.html5rocks.com/2011/12/Transferable-Objects-Lightning-Fast I'm having trouble finding a good example of this (and I don't believe I want to use an ArrayBuffer). Any help would be appreciated. I'm imagining something like this: worker = new Worker('workers.js'); var large_json = {}; for(var i = 0; i < 20000; ++i){ large_json[i] = i; large_json["test" + i] = "string"; }; //How to make this call to use Transfer Objects? Takes approx 2 seconds to serialize this for me currently. worker.webkitPostMessage(large_json);

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  • SqlLite/Fluent NHibernate integration test harness initialization not repeatable after large data se

    - by Mark Rogers
    In one of my main data integration test harnesses I create and use Fluent NHibernate's SingleConnectionSessionSourceForSQLiteInMemoryTesting, to get a fresh session for each test. After each test, I close the connection, session, and session factory, and throw out the nested StructureMap container they came from. This works for almost any simple data integration test I can think, including ones that utilize Fluent NHib's PersistenceSpecification object. When I test the application's lengthy database bootstrapping process, which creates and saves thousands of domain objects, I start seeing issues. It's not that the setup and tear down fails, in fact, the test successfully bootstraps the in-memory database as the application would bootstrap the real database in the production environment. The problem occurs when the database bootstrapping occurs a second time on a new in-memory database, with a new session and session factory. The error is: NHibernate.StaleStateException : Unexpected row count: 0; expected: 1 The row count is indeed Unexpected, the row that the application under test is looking for should be in the session. You see, it's not that any data from the last integration test is sticking around, it's that for some reason the session just stops working mid-database-boostrap. And I've looked everywhere for a place I might be holding on to an old session and I can't find one. I've searched through the code for static singleton objects, but there are none anywhere near the code in question. I have a couple StructureMap InstanceScope singleton's but they are getting thrown out with each nested container that is lost after every test teardown. I've tried every possible variation on disposing and closing every object involved with each test teardown and it still fails on this lengthy database bootstrap. But non-bootstrap related database tests appear to work fine. I'm starting to run out of options and may have to surrender lengthy database integration tests in favor of WatiN-based acceptance tests. Can anyone give me any clue about how I can figure out why some of my SingleConnectionSessionSourceForSQLiteInMemoryTesting aren't repeatable? Any advice at all, about how to make an NHibernate SqlLite database integration test harness repeatable?

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  • TypeError: Error #1009 - (Null reference error) With Flash.

    - by Wind Chimez
    I am not an expert in flash, but i do work with AS and tweak Flash projects , though not having deep expertise in it. Currently i need to revamp a flash website done by one another guy, and the code base given to me, upon execution is throwing the following error. "--- TypeError: Error #1009: Cannot access a property or method of a null object reference. at NewSite_fla::MainTimeline/__setProp_ContactOutP1_ContactOut_Contents_0() at NewSite_fla::MainTimeline/frame1() --" The structure of the project is like, it has the different sections split into different movie clips. There is no single main timeline, but click actions on different areas of seperate movie clips will take them between one another. All the AS logic of event handling are written inline in FLA , no seperate Document class exists. Preloader Movie clip is the first one getting loaded. As i understood the error is getting thrown initially itself, and it is not happening due to any Action script logic written inline, because it is throwing error even before hitting the first inline AS code. I am not able to figure Out what exactly it causing the problem, or where to resolve it. I setup the stuff online, for reference if anybody want to take a look at it, and here is the link.You need to have flash debugger turned ON in your browser, if need to see the exception getting triggered. http://tinyurl.com/2alvlfx I really got stuck at this point. Any help will be great.I had not seen the particular solution i am looking for anywhere yet, though Error #1009 is common.

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  • Can a function return an object? Objective-C and NSMutableArray

    - by seaworthy
    I have an NSMutableArray. It's members eventually become members of an array instance in a class. I want to put the instantiantion of NSMutable into a function and to return an array object. If I can do this, I can make some of my code easier to read. Is this possible? Here is what I am trying to figure out. //Definition: > function Objects (float a, float b) { > NSMutableArray *array = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; > [array addObject:[NSNumber numberWithFloat:a]]; > [array addObject:[NSNumber numberWithFloat:b]]; > //[release array]; ???????? return array; > } //Declaration: Math *operator = [[Math alloc] init]; [operator findSum:Objects(20.0,30.0)]; My code compiles if I instantiate NSMutableArray right before I send the message to the receiver. I know I can have an array argument along with the method. What I have problem seeing is how to use a function and to replace the argument with a function call. Any help is appreciated. I am interested in the concept not in suggestions to replace the findSum method.

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  • Cant get a location

    - by user1891806
    Iam trying to get a location (latitute and longitude), I cant figure out what Im doing wrong but my location keeps returning null. Anybody knows what I am doing wrong? public class ParseJSON extends Activity implements LocationListener { private TextView latituteField; private TextView longitudeField; LocationManager lm; String provider; int lat; int lon; @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.test); lm = (LocationManager) getSystemService(Context.LOCATION_SERVICE); Criteria crit = new Criteria(); provider = lm.getBestProvider(crit, false); Location location = lm.getLastKnownLocation(provider); if (location != null){ lat = (int) location.getLatitude(); lon = (int) location.getLongitude(); latituteField = (TextView) findViewById(R.id.lattest); longitudeField = (TextView) findViewById(R.id.lontest); latituteField.setText(lat); longitudeField.setText(String.valueOf(lon)); } else { Toast.makeText(ParseJSON.this, "Couldnt get location", Toast.LENGTH_SHORT); } String readWeatherFeed = readWeatherFeed(); try { JSONArray jsonArray = new JSONArray(readWeatherFeed); Log.i(ParseJSON.class.getName(), "Number of entries " + jsonArray.length()); for (int i = 0; i < jsonArray.length(); i++) { JSONObject jsonObject = jsonArray.getJSONObject(i); Log.i(ParseJSON.class.getName(), jsonObject.getString("text")); } } catch (Exception e) { e.printStackTrace(); } } I dont have a clue, thanks in advance

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  • Date difference in Javascript (ignoring time of day)

    - by Alan
    I'm writing an equipment rental application where clients are charged a fee for renting equipment based on the duration (in days) of the rental. So, basically, (daily fee * number of days) = total charge. For instant feedback on the client side, I'm trying to use Javascript to figure out the difference in two calendar dates. I've searched around, but nothing I've found is quite what I'm looking for. Most solutions I've seen are of the form: function dateDiff1(startDate, endDate) { return ((endDate.getTime() - startDate.getTime()) / 1000*60*60*24); } My problem is that equipment can be checked out and returned at any time of day during those two dates with no additional charge. The above code is calculating the number of 24 hour periods between the two dates, when I'm really interested in the number of calendar days. For example, if someone checked out equipment at 6am on July 6th and returned it at 10pm on July 7th, the above code would calculate that more than one 24 hour period had passed, and would return 2. The desired result is 1, since only one calendar date has elapsed (i.e. the 6th to the 7th). The closest solution I've found is this function: function dateDiff2(startDate, endDate) { return endDate.getDate() - startDate.getDate(); } which does exactly what I want, as long as the two dates are within the same month. However, since getDate() only returns the day of month (i.e. 1-31), it doesn't work when the dates span multiple months (e.g. July 31 to August 1 is 1 day, but the above calcuates 1 - 31, or -29). On the backend, in PHP, I'm using gregoriantojd(), which seems to work just fine (see this post for an example). I just can't find an equivalent solution in Javascript. Anyone have any ideas?

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  • Asp.net web forms, Asp Identity - how to store claims from Facebook, Twitter, etc

    - by user2959352
    This request is based upon the new Visual Studio 2013 integration of Asp.net Identity stuff. I have seen some of the posts regarding this question for MVC, but for the life of me cannot get it to work for standard Web Forms. What I'm trying to do is populate the AspNetUserClaims table from the claims that I get back from Facebook (or other service). I actually can see the values coming back in the OnAuthenticated below, but cannot for the life of me figure out how to add these claims to the context of the currently logged in user? There are literally hundreds of MVC examples surrounding this, but alas no Web Forms examples. This should be completely straightforward, but for some reason I cannot match up the context of the currently logged in user to the claims and credentials coming back from Facebook. Currently after the OnAuthenticated fires, it obviously returns me to the page (RegisterExternalLogin.aspx) as the built-in example provides. However, the claims are gone, the context of the login to Facebook is gone, and I can't do anything else at this point. So the ultimate question is, HOW does one populate the claims FROM Facebook into the AspNetUserClaims table based upon the context of the currently logged in user WITHOUT using MVC? var fboptions = new FacebookAuthenticationOptions(); fboptions.AppId = "xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx"; fboptions.AppSecret = "yyyyyyyyyyyyyyyyyyyyyy"; fboptions.Scope.Add("email"); fboptions.Scope.Add("friends_about_me"); fboptions.Scope.Add("friends_photos"); fboptions.Provider = new FacebookAuthenticationProvider() { OnAuthenticated = (context) => { foreach (var v in context.User) { context.Identity.AddClaim(new System.Security.Claims.Claim(v.Key, v.Value.ToString())); } context.Identity.AddClaim(new System.Security.Claims.Claim("FacebookAccessToken", context.AccessToken)); return Task.FromResult(0); }, }; app.UseFacebookAuthentication(fboptions);

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  • Core Data: Inverse relationship only mirrors when I edit the mutableset. Not sure why.

    - by zorn
    My model is setup so Business has many clients, Client has one business. Inverse relationship is setup in the mom file. I have a unit test like this: - (void)testNewClientFromBusiness { PTBusiness *business = [modelController newBusiness]; STAssertTrue([[business clients] count] == 0, @"is actually %d", [[business clients] count]); PTClient *client = [business newClient]; STAssertTrue([business isEqual:[client business]], nil); STAssertTrue([[business clients] count] == 1, @"is actually %d", [[business clients] count]); } I implement -newClient inside of PTBusiness like this: - (PTClient *)newClient { PTClient *client = [NSEntityDescription insertNewObjectForEntityForName:@"Client" inManagedObjectContext:[self managedObjectContext]]; [client setBusiness:self]; [client updateLocalDefaultsBasedOnBusiness]; return client; } The test fails because [[business clients] count] is still 0 after -newClient is called. If I impliment it like this: - (PTClient *)newClient { PTClient *client = [NSEntityDescription insertNewObjectForEntityForName:@"Client" inManagedObjectContext:[self managedObjectContext]]; NSMutableSet *group = [self mutableSetValueForKey:@"clients"]; [group addObject:client]; [client updateLocalDefaultsBasedOnBusiness]; return client; } The tests passes. My question(s): So am I right in thinking the inverse relationship is only updated when I interact with the mutable set? That seems to go against some other Core Data docs I've read. Is the fact that this is running in a unit test without a run loop have anything to do with it? Any other troubleshooting recommendations? I'd really like to figure out why I can't set up the relationship at the client end.

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  • IE6 PNG-transparency CSS hack not working

    - by John
    I looked around and decided to use a CSS approach rather than rely on JS... I figure the kind of corporate users stuck with IE6 might also have JS disabled by IT departments. So In my HTML I have: <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Strict//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-strict.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" xml:lang="en" lang="en"> <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html;charset=utf-8" /> <title>My Page</title> <link rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" href="default.css" /> <!--[if IE 6]><link rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" href="ie6.css"><![endif]--> </head> <body> <img src="media/logo.png"/> </body> Then my ie6.css consists simply of: img { filter: progid:DXImageTransform.Microsoft.AlphaImageLoader(...); } However none of this makes the slightest difference, no transparency. I commented out all the rest of the page so it is literally that one and still no luck. I removed the default.css stylesheet and still no difference.

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  • Display object in just a certain viewport

    - by PSilo
    Hi I got 4 viewports and one large that I can switch between now I got an object namely the camera and the cameras target position that I show with rendering a sphere at those locations. I want to show the cameras position in 3 of my viewports but not in the last which is the camera display but at the moment I got an all or nothing scenario. void display(int what) { if(what==5){ glMatrixMode(GL_MODELVIEW); glLoadIdentity(); camControll();} if(what==1){ glMatrixMode(GL_MODELVIEW); glLoadIdentity(); gluLookAt(75,15,-5,0,5,-5,0,1,0);} if(what==2){ glMatrixMode(GL_MODELVIEW); glLoadIdentity(); gluLookAt(0,110,0,0,0,0,1,0,0);} if(what==3){ glMatrixMode(GL_PROJECTION); glLoadIdentity(); gluPerspective(45.0f, float(320) / float(240), 0.1f, 100.0f); glMatrixMode(GL_MODELVIEW); glLoadIdentity(); camControll();} if(what==4){ glMatrixMode(GL_MODELVIEW); glLoadIdentity(); gluLookAt(185,75,25,0,28,0,0,1,0);} //glMatrixMode(GL_MODELVIEW); //glLoadIdentity(); ////gluLookAt(cos(shared.time) * shared.distance, 10, sin(shared.time) * shared.distance, 0, 0, 0, 0, 1, 0); ////ca.orbitYaw(0.05); //ca.lookAt(); glClearColor(0, 0, 0, 1); glClear(GL_COLOR_BUFFER_BIT|GL_DEPTH_BUFFER_BIT); drawScene(); // scene that all views should render drawCamera(); / camera position that only certain views should render glutSwapBuffers(); } I'm thinking that perhaps I could do one sweep for first the 3 viewports and then call glutSwapBuffers() and then do the other viewport without the camera position but some stuttering I previously had was traced to glutSwapBuffers() being called for each viewport so I guess there has to be another way only that I cant figure it out.

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  • Setup SSL (self signed cert) with tomcat

    - by Danny
    I am mostly following this page: http://tomcat.apache.org/tomcat-6.0-doc/ssl-howto.html I used this command to create the keystore keytool -genkey -alias tomcat -keyalg RSA -keystore /etc/tomcat6/keystore and answered the prompts Then i edited my server.xml file and uncommented/edited this line <Connector port="8443" protocol="HTTP/1.1" SSLEnabled="true" maxThreads="150" scheme="https" secure="true" clientAuth="false" sslProtocol="TLS" keystoreFile="/etc/tomcat6/keystore" keystorePass="tomcat" /> then I go to the web.xml file for my project and add this into the file <security-constraint> <web-resource-collection> <web-resource-name>Security</web-resource-name> <url-pattern>/*</url-pattern> </web-resource-collection> <user-data-constraint> <transport-guarantee>CONFIDENTIAL</transport-guarantee> </user-data-constraint> </security-constraint> When I try to run my webapp I am met with this: Unable to connect Firefox can't establish a connection to the server at localhost:8443. * The site could be temporarily unavailable or too busy. Try again in a few moments. * If you are unable to load any pages, check your computer's network connection. If I comment out the lines I've added to my web.xml file, the webapp works fine. My log file in /var/lib/tomcat6/logs says nothing. I can't figure out if this is a problem with my keystore file, my server.xml file or my web.xml file.... Any assistance is appreciated I am using tomcat 6 on ubuntu.

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