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  • Get index of nth occurrence of char in a string

    - by StickFigs
    I'm trying to make a function that returns the index of the Nth occurrence of a given char in a string. Here is my attempt: private int IndexOfNth(string str, char c, int n) { int index = str.IndexOf(c) + 1; if (index >= 0) { string temp = str.Substring(index, str.Length - index); for (int j = 1; j < n; j++) { index = temp.IndexOf(c) + 1; if (index < 0) { return -1; } temp = temp.Substring(index, temp.Length - index); } index = index + (str.Length); } return index; } This should find the first occurrence, chop off that front part of the string, find the first occurrence from the new substring, and on and on until it gets the index of the nth occurrence. However I failed to consider how the index of the final substring is going to be offset from the original actual index in the original string. How do I make this work? Also as a side question, if I want the char to be the tab character do I pass this function '\t' or what?

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  • PHP Form Validation

    - by JM4
    This question will undoubtedly be difficult to answer and ask in a way that makes sense but I'll try my best: I have a form which uses PHP to display certain sections of the form such as: <?php if ($_SESSION['EnrType'] == "Individual") { display only form information for individual enrollment } ?> and <?php if ($_SESSION['Num_Enrs'] > 6) { display only form information for 7 total members enrollment } ?> In each form piece, unique information is collected about each enrollee but the basic criteria for each enrollee is the same, i.e. All enrollee's must use have a value in the FirstName field. Each field is named according to the enrollee number, i.e. Num1FirstName; Num2FirstName. I have a PHP validation script which is absolutely fantastic and am not looking to change it but the issue I am running into is duplication of the script in order to validate ALL fields in one swoop. On submission, all POSTED items are run through my validation script and based on the rules set return an error if they do not equal true. Sample code: if (isset($_POST['submit'])) { // import the validation library require("validation.php"); $rules = array(); // stores the validation rules //All Enrollee Rules $rules[] = "required,Num1FirstName,Num2FirstName,The First Name field is required."; The script above does the following, $rules[] ="REQUIREMENT,fieldname,error message" where requirement gives criteria (in this case, simply that a value is passed), fieldname is the name of the field being validated, and error message returns the error used. My Goal is to use the same formula above and have $rules[] run through ALL firstnames and return the error posted ONLY if they exist (i.e. dont check for member #7's first name if it doesnt exist on the screen). If I simply put a comma between the 'fieldnames' this only checks for the first, then second, and so on so this wont work. Any ideas?

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  • I can't read the value from a radio button.

    - by Corey
    <html> <head> <title>Tip Calculator</title> <script type="text/javascript"><!-- function calculateBill(){ var check = document.getElementById("check").value; /* I try to get the value selected */ var tipPercent = document.getElementById("tipPercent").value; /* But it always returns the value 15 */ var tip = check * (tipPercent / 100) var bill = 1 * check + tip; document.getElementById('bill').innerHTML = bill; } --></script> </head> <body> <h1 style="text-align:center">Tip Calculator</h1> <form id="f1" name="f1"> Average Sevice: 15%<input type="radio" id="tipPercent" name="tipPercent" value="15" /> <br /> Excellent Sevice: 20%<input type="radio" id="tipPercent" name="tipPercent" value="20" /> <br /><br /> <label>Check Amount</label> <input type="text" id="check" size="10" /> <input type="button" onclick="calculateBill()" value="Calculate" /> </form> <br /> Total Bill: <p id="bill"></p> </body> </html>

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  • ajax html vs xml/json responses - perfomance or other reasons

    - by pedalpete
    I've got a fairly ajax heavy site and some 3k html formatted pages are inserted into the DOM from ajax requests. What I have been doing is taking the html responses and just inserting the whole thing using jQuery. My other option is to output in xml (or possibly json) and then parse the document and insert it into the page. I've noticed it seems that most larger site do things the json/xml way. Google Mail returns xml rather than formatted html. Is this due to performance? or is there another reason to use xml/json vs just retrieving html? From a javascript standpoint, it would seem injecting direct html is simplest. In jQuery I just do this jQuery.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "getpage.php", data: requestData, success: function(response){ jQuery('div#putItHear').html(response); } with an xml/json response I would have to do jQuery.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "getpage.php", data: requestData, success: function(xml){ $("message",xml).each(function(id) { message = $("message",xml).get(id); $("#messagewindow").prepend(""+$("author",message).text()+ ": "+$("text",message).text()+ ""); }); } }); clearly not as efficient from a code standpoint, and I can't expect that it is better browser performance, so why do things the second way?

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  • State Animation on ListBox ItemTemplate

    - by Peanut
    I have a listbox which reads from Observable collection, and is ItemTemplate'ed: <DataTemplate x:Key="DataTemplate1"> <Grid x:Name="grid" Height="47.333" Width="577" Opacity="0.495"> <Image HorizontalAlignment="Left" Margin="10.668,8,0,8" Width="34" Source="{Binding ImageLocation}"/> <TextBlock Margin="56,8,172.334,8" TextWrapping="Wrap" Text="{Binding ApplicationName}" FontSize="21.333"/> <Grid x:Name="grid1" HorizontalAlignment="Right" Margin="0,10.003,-0.009,11.33" Width="26" Opacity="0" RenderTransformOrigin="0.5,0.5"> <Image HorizontalAlignment="Stretch" Margin="0" Source="image/downloads.png" Stretch="Fill" MouseDown="Image_MouseDown" /> </Grid> </Grid> </DataTemplate> <ListBox x:Name="searchlist" Margin="8" ItemTemplate="{DynamicResource DataTemplate1}" ItemsSource="{Binding SearchResults}" SelectionChanged="searchlist_SelectionChanged" ItemContainerStyle="{DynamicResource ListBoxItemStyle1}" /> In general, my question is "What is the easiest way to do Animation on Particular Items in this listbox As they are selected? Basically the image inside the "grid1" will be setting its opacity to 1, slowly. I would prefer to use states, but I do not know of any way to just tell blend and xaml to "When a selected item is changed, change the image opacity to 1 over a period of .3 seconds". Infact, I have been doing this in the .cs file using the VisualStateManager. Also, there is another issue. When the selected index is changed, we goto the CS file and look at SelectedItem. SelectedItem returns an instance of the Object in which it was bound to (The object inside the observable collection), and NOT an instance of the DataTemplate/ListItem etc. So how am I able to pull the correct image out of this list? State animation with VisualStateManager I can handle fine if its just normal things, but when it comes to generated listboxes' items, I'm lost. Thanks

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  • Piping EOF problems with stdio and C++/Python

    - by yeus
    I got some problems with EOF and stdio. I have no idea what I am doing wrong. When I see an EOF in my program I clear the stdin and next round I try to read in a new line. The problem is: for some reason the getline function immediatly (from the second run always, the first works just as intended) returns an EOF instead of waiting for a new input from py python process... Any idea? alright Here is the code: #include <string> #include <iostream> #include <iomanip> #include <limits> using namespace std; int main(int argc, char **argv) { for (;;) { string buf; if (getline(cin,buf)) { if (buf=="q") break; /*****///do some stuff with input //my actual filter program cout<<buf; /*****/ } else { if ((cin.rdstate() & istream::eofbit)!=0)cout<<"eofbit"<<endl; if ((cin.rdstate() & istream::failbit)!=0)cout<<"failbit"<<endl; if ((cin.rdstate() & istream::badbit)!=0)cout<<"badbit"<<endl; if ((cin.rdstate() & istream::goodbit)!=0)cout<<"goodbit"<<endl; cin.clear(); cin.ignore(numeric_limits<streamsize>::max()); //break;//I am not using break, because I //want more input when the parent //process puts data into stdin; } } return 0; } and in python: from subprocess import Popen, PIPE import os from time import sleep proc=Popen(os.getcwd()+"/Pipingtest",stdout=PIPE,stdin=PIPE,stderr=PIPE); while(1): sleep(0.5) print proc.communicate("1 1 1") print "running"

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  • How to find Tomcat's PID and kill it in python?

    - by 4herpsand7derpsago
    Normally, one shuts down Apache Tomcat by running its shutdown.sh script (or batch file). In some cases, such as when Tomcat's web container is hosting a web app that does some crazy things with multi-threading, running shutdown.sh gracefully shuts down some parts of Tomcat (as I can see more available memory returning to the system), but the Tomcat process keeps running. I'm trying to write a simple Python script that: Calls shutdown.sh Runs ps -aef | grep tomcat to find any process with Tomcat referenced If applicable, kills the process with kill -9 <PID> Here's what I've got so far (as a prototype - I'm brand new to Python BTW): #!/usr/bin/python # Imports import sys import subprocess # Load from imported module. if __init__ == "__main__": main() # Main entry point. def main(): # Shutdown Tomcat shutdownCmd = "sh ${TOMCAT_HOME}/bin/shutdown.sh" subprocess.call([shutdownCmd], shell=true) # Check for PID grepCmd = "ps -aef | grep tomcat" grepResults = subprocess.call([grepCmd], shell=true) if(grepResult.length > 1): # Get PID and kill it. pid = ??? killPidCmd = "kill -9 $pid" subprocess.call([killPidCmd], shell=true) # Exit. sys.exit() I'm struggling with the middle part - with obtaining the grep results, checking to see if their size is greater than 1 (since grep always returns a reference to itself, at least 1 result will always be returned, methinks), and then parsing that returned PID and passing it into the killPidCmd. Thanks in advance!

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  • MATLAB: impoint getPosition strange behaviour

    - by tguclu
    I have a question about the values returned by getPosition. Below is my code. It lets the user set 10 points on a given image: figure ,imshow(im); colorArray=['y','m','c','r','g','b','w','k','y','m','c']; pointArray = cell(1,10); % Construct boundary constraint function fcn = makeConstrainToRectFcn('impoint',get(gca,'XLim'),get(gca,'YLim')); for i = 1:10 p = impoint(gca); % Enforce boundary constraint function using setPositionConstraintFcn setPositionConstraintFcn(p,fcn); setColor(p,colorArray(1,i)); pointArray{i}=p; getPosition(p) end When I start to set points on the image I get results like [675.000 538.000], which means that the x part of the coordinate is 675 and the y part is 538, right? This is what the MATLAB documentation says, but since the image is 576*120 (as displayed in the window) this is not logical. It seemed to me like, somehow, getPosition returns the y coordinate first. I need some clarification on this. Thanks for help

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  • Delphi TRttiType.GetMethods return zero TRttiMethod instances

    - by conciliator
    I've recently been able to fetch a TRttiType for an interface using TRttiContext.FindType using Robert Loves "GetType"-workaround ("registering" the interface by an explicit call to ctx.GetType, e.g. RType := ctx.GetType(TypeInfo(IMyPrettyLittleInterface));). One logical next step would be to iterate the methods of said interface. Consider program rtti_sb_1; {$APPTYPE CONSOLE} uses SysUtils, Rtti, mynamespace in 'mynamespace.pas'; var ctx: TRttiContext; RType: TRttiType; Method: TRttiMethod; begin ctx := TRttiContext.Create; RType := ctx.GetType(TypeInfo(IMyPrettyLittleInterface)); if RType <> nil then begin for Method in RType.GetMethods do WriteLn(Method.Name); end; ReadLn; end. This time, my mynamespace.pas looks like this: IMyPrettyLittleInterface = interface ['{6F89487E-5BB7-42FC-A760-38DA2329E0C5}'] procedure SomeProcedure; end; Unfortunately, RType.GetMethods returns a zero-length TArray-instance. Are there anyone able to reproduce my troubles? (Note that in my example I've explicitly fetched the TRttiType using TRttiContext.GetType, not the workaround; the introduction is included to warn readers that there might be some unresolved issues regarding rtti and interfaces.) Thanks!

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  • Installing Rails on Mountain Lion

    - by Jordan Medlock
    I was wondering if you could help me find why I cannot install Ruby on Rails on my MBP with OS X Mountain Lion. It's a weird problem and I'll give you as much info as I can. I've installed ruby and it's working at version 1.9.3 And I've installed ruby gems and it's worked for every other gem I've tried to install. It's version is 1.8.24 When I run $ sudo gem install rails it replies with the message: Successfully installed rails-3.2.8 1 gem installed Although when I ask it rails -v it returns: `Rails is not currently installed on this system. To get the latest version, simply type: $ sudo gem install rails You can then rerun your "rails" command.` What should I do? The rails bash file (/usr/bin/rails) contains: #!/usr/bin/ruby # Stub rails command to load rails from Gems or print an error if not installed. require 'rubygems' version = ">= 0" if ARGV.first =~ /^_(.*)_$/ and Gem::Version.correct? $1 then version = $1 ARGV.shift end begin gem 'railties', version or raise rescue Exception puts 'Rails is not currently installed on this system. To get the latest version, simply type:' puts puts ' $ sudo gem install rails' puts puts 'You can then rerun your "rails" command.' exit 0 end load Gem.bin_path('railties', 'rails', version) That must mean that the gem files aren't there or are old or corrupted How can I check that?

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  • URL equals and checking Internet access

    - by James P.
    On http://java.sun.com/j2se/1.5.0/docs/api/java/net/URL.html it states that: Compares this URL for equality with another object. If the given object is not a URL then this method immediately returns false. Two URL objects are equal if they have the same protocol, reference equivalent hosts, have the same port number on the host, and the same file and fragment of the file. Two hosts are considered equivalent if both host names can be resolved into the same IP addresses; else if either host name can't be resolved, the host names must be equal without regard to case; or both host names equal to null. Since hosts comparison requires name resolution, this operation is a blocking operation. Note: The defined behavior for equals is known to be inconsistent with virtual hosting in HTTP. According to this, equals will only work if name resolution is possible. Since I can't be sure that a computer has internet access at a given time, should I just use Strings to store addresses instead? Also, how do I go about testing if access is available when requested?

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  • WCF service reference namespace differs from original

    - by Thorarin
    I'm having a problem regarding namespaces used by my service references. I have a number of WCF services, say with the namespace MyCompany.Services.MyProduct (the actual namespaces are longer). As part of the product, I'm also providing a sample C# .NET website. This web application uses the namespace MyCompany.MyProduct. During initial development, the service was added as a project reference to the website and uses directly. I used a factory pattern that returns an object instance that implements MyCompany.Services.MyProduct.IMyService. So far, so good. Now I want to change this to use an actual service reference. After adding the reference and typing MyCompany.Services.MyProduct in the namespace textbox, it generates classes in the namespace MyCompany.MyProduct.MyCompany.Services.MyProduct. BAD! I don't want to have to change using directives in several places just because I'm using a proxy class. So I tried prepending the namespace with global::, but that is not accepted. Note that I hadn't even deleted the original assembly references yet, and "reuse types" is enabled, but no reusing was done, apparently. However, I don't want to keep the assembly references around in my sample website for it to work anyway. The only solution I've come up with so far is setting the default namespace for my web application to MyCompany (because it cannot be empty), and adding the service reference as Services.MyProduct. Suppose that a customer wants to use my sample website as a starting point, and they change the default namespace to OtherCompany.Whatever, this will obviously break my workaround. Is there a good solution to this problem? To summarize: I want to generate a service reference proxy in the original namespace, without referencing the assembly. Note: I have seen this question, but there was no solution provided that is acceptable for my use case. Edit: As John Saunders suggested, I've submitted some feedback to Microsoft about this: Feedback item @ Microsoft Connect

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  • Any merit to a lazy-ish juxt function?

    - by NielsK
    In answering a question about a function that maps over multiple functions with the same arguments (A: juxt), I came up with a function that basically took the same form as juxt, but used map: (defn could-be-lazy-juxt [& funs] (fn [& args] (map #(apply %1 %2) funs (repeat args)))) => ((juxt inc dec str) 1) [2 0 "1"] => ((could-be-lazy-juxt inc dec str) 1) (2 0 "1") => ((juxt * / -) 6 2) [12 3 4] => ((could-be-lazy-juxt * / -) 6 2) (12 3 4) As posted in the original question, I have little clue about the laziness or performance of it, but timing in the REPL does suggest something lazy-ish is going on. => (time (apply (juxt + -) (range 1 100))) "Elapsed time: 0.097198 msecs" [4950 -4948] => (time (apply (could-be-lazy-juxt + -) (range 1 100))) "Elapsed time: 0.074558 msecs" (4950 -4948) => (time (apply (juxt + -) (range 10000000))) "Elapsed time: 1019.317913 msecs" [49999995000000 -49999995000000] => (time (apply (could-be-lazy-juxt + -) (range 10000000))) "Elapsed time: 0.070332 msecs" (49999995000000 -49999995000000) I'm sure this function is not really that quick (the print of the outcome 'feels' about as long in both). Doing a 'take x' on the function only limits the amount of functions evaluated, which probably is limited in it's applicability, and limiting the other parameters by 'take' should be just as lazy in normal juxt. Is this juxt really lazy ? Would a lazy juxt bring anything useful to the table, for instance as a compositing step between other lazy functions ? What are the performance (mem / cpu / object count / compilation) implications ? Is that why the Clojure juxt implementation is done with a reduce and returns a vector ? Edit: Somehow things can always be done simpler in Clojure. (defn could-be-lazy-juxt [& funs] (fn [& args] (map #(apply % args) funs)))

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  • Google Maps InfoBubble pixelOffset

    - by Sam
    I am trying to implement a custom infoBubble that has the box opening to the side of a marker. This has turned out to be harder than expected. Using the normal infoWindow you can use pixelOffset. See here for the documentation Using infoBubble this does not seem to be the case. Is there anyway of using pixelOffset in an infoBubble, or something that will do the same thing? I have found this very difficult to search for, as using a google search such as this returns no relevant results Google Search Below is all my resources I have been using. Example of infoBubble here. My JavaScript to setup the map and infoBubble here. And now my javascript here just in-case the jsfiddle link is broken. <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function () { init(); }); function init() { //Setup the map var googleMapOptions = { center: new google.maps.LatLng(53.5167, -1.1333), zoom: 13, mapTypeId: google.maps.MapTypeId.ROADMAP }; //Start the map var map = new google.maps.Map(document.getElementById("map_canvas"), googleMapOptions); var marker = new google.maps.Marker({ position: new google.maps.LatLng(53.5267, -1.1333), title: "Just a test" }); marker.setMap(map); infoBubble = new InfoBubble({ map: map, content: '<div class="phoneytext">Some label</div>', //position: new google.maps.LatLng(-35, 151), shadowStyle: 1, padding: '10px', //backgroundColor: 'rgb(57,57,57)', borderRadius: 5, minWidth: 200, arrowSize: 10, borderWidth: 1, borderColor: '#2c2c2c', disableAutoPan: true, hideCloseButton: false, arrowPosition: 7, backgroundClassName: 'phoney', pixelOffset: new google.maps.Size(130, 120), arrowStyle: 2 }); infoBubble.open(map, marker); } </script>

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  • Using parameterized function calls in SELECT statements. SQL Server

    - by geekzlla
    I have taken over some code from a previous developer and have come across this SQL statement that calls several SQL functions. As you can see, the function calls in the select statement pass a parameter to the function. How does the SQL statement know what value to replace the variable with? For the below sample, how does the query engine know what to replace nDeptID with when it calls, fn_SelDeptName_DeptID(nDeptID) nDeptID IS a column in table Note. SELECT STATEMENT: SELECT nCustomerID AS [Customer ID], nJobID AS [Job ID], dbo.fn_SelDeptName_DeptID(nDeptID) AS Department, nJobTaskID AS JobTaskID, dbo.fn_SelDeptTaskDesc_OpenTask(nJobID, nJobTaskID) AS Task, nStandardNoteID AS StandardNoteID, dbo.fn_SelNoteTypeDesc(nNoteID) AS [Note Type], dbo.fn_SelGPAStandardNote(nStandardNoteID) AS [Standard Note], nEntryDate AS [Entry Date], nUserName as [Added By], nType AS Type, nNote AS Note FROM Note WHERE nJobID = 844261 ORDER BY nJobID, Task, [Entry Date] ====================== Function fn_SelDeptName_DeptID: ALTER FUNCTION [dbo].[fn_SelDeptName_DeptID] (@iDeptID int) RETURNS varchar(25) -- Used by DataCollection for Job Tracking -- if the Deptartment isnt found return an empty string BEGIN -- Return the Department name for the given DeptID. DECLARE @strDeptName varchar(25) IF @iDeptID = 0 SET @strDeptName = '' ELSE BEGIN SET @strDeptName = (SELECT dName FROM Department WHERE dDeptID = @iDeptID) IF (@strDeptName IS NULL) SET @strDeptName = '' END RETURN @strDeptName END ========================== Thanks in advance.

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  • Retrieving license type (linux/windows/windows+sqlserver) for an Amazon EC2 instance via the API?

    - by Geir
    I need to calculate the hourly running costs for my Amazon EC2 instances. This varies even between instances with same hardware configs (instance types) because I use different amazon images (AMIs): some plain windows server and some windows server with sql server (both of them have additional costs compared with plain linux instances) The EC2 Java API has a describeInstances() method which returns Instance objects with metadata such as instance id, instance type (m1.small/large...), state (running,stopped..) public ip, etc. This Instance object also has a .getLicense().getPool() which according to the Java API should return "The license pool from which this license was used (ex: 'windows')." I thought this is were it may also give 'windows+sqlserver' or something to that effect. The getLicense() method does however return null.. I've navigated around the EC2 web console, not being able to find this information, but I'm hoping that it is possible - otherwise it would mean that you cannot identify the true hourly cost of an particular instance unless you know which AMI was used to create it in the first place (plain windows server or windows server with sql server). Anyone? Thanks :) /Geir

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  • Static Property losing its value intermittently ?

    - by joedotnot
    Is there something fundamentally wrong with the following design, or can anyone see why would the static properties sometimes loose their values ? I have a class library project containing a class AppConfig; this class is consumed by a Webforms project. The skeleton of AppConfig class is as follows: Public Class AppConfig Implements IConfigurationSectionHandler Private Const C_KEY1 As String = "WebConfig.Key.1" Private Const C_KEY2 As String = "WebConfig.Key.2" Private Const C_KEY1_DEFAULT_VALUE as string = "Key1defaultVal" Private Const C_KEY2_DEFAULT_VALUE as string = "Key2defaultVal" Private Shared m_field1 As String Private Shared m_field2 As String Public Shared ReadOnly Property ConfigValue1() As String Get ConfigValue1= m_field1 End Get End Property Public Shared ReadOnly Property ConfigValue2() As String Get ConfigValue2 = m_field2 End Get End Property Public Shared Sub OnApplicationStart() m_field1 = ReadSetting(C_KEY1, C_KEY1_DEFAULT_VALUE) m_field2 = ReadSetting(C_KEY2, C_KEY1_DEFAULT_VALUE) End Sub Public Overloads Shared Function ReadSetting(ByVal key As String, ByVal defaultValue As String) As String Try Dim setting As String = System.Configuration.ConfigurationManager.AppSettings(key) If setting Is Nothing Then ReadSetting = defaultValue Else ReadSetting = setting End If Catch ReadSetting = defaultValue End Try End Function Public Function Create(ByVal parent As Object, ByVal configContext As Object, ByVal section As System.Xml.XmlNode) As Object Implements System.Configuration.IConfigurationSectionHandler.Create Dim objSettings As NameValueCollection Dim objHandler As NameValueSectionHandler objHandler = New NameValueSectionHandler objSettings = CType(objHandler.Create(parent, configContext, section), NameValueCollection) Return 1 End Function End Class The Static Properties get set once on application start, from the Application_Start event of the Global.asax Sub Application_Start(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As EventArgs) //Fires when the application is started AppConfig.OnApplicationStart() End Sub Thereafter, whenever we want to access a value in the Web.Config from anywhere, e.g. aspx page code-behind or another class or referenced class, we simply call the static property. For example, AppConfig.ConfigValue1() AppConfig.ConfigValue2() This is turn returns the value stored in the static backing fields m_field1, m_field2 Problem is sometimes these values are empty string, when clearly the Web.Config entry has values. Is there something fundamentally wrong with the above design, or is it reasonable to expect the static properties would keep their value for the life of the Application session?

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  • How to populate a listview in ASP.NET 3.5 through a dataset?

    - by EasyDot
    Is it possible to populate a listview with a dataset? I have a function that returns a dataset. Why im asking this is because my SQL is quite complicated and i can't convert it to a SQLDataSource... Public Function getMessages() As DataSet Dim dSet As DataSet = New DataSet Dim da As SqlDataAdapter Dim cmd As SqlCommand Dim SQL As StringBuilder Dim connStr As StringBuilder = New StringBuilder("") connStr.AppendFormat("server={0};", ConfigurationSettings.AppSettings("USERserver").ToString()) connStr.AppendFormat("database={0};", ConfigurationSettings.AppSettings("USERdb").ToString()) connStr.AppendFormat("uid={0};", ConfigurationSettings.AppSettings("USERuid").ToString()) connStr.AppendFormat("pwd={0};", ConfigurationSettings.AppSettings("USERpwd").ToString()) Dim conn As SqlConnection = New SqlConnection(connStr.ToString()) Try SQL = New StringBuilder cmd = New SqlCommand SQL.Append("SELECT m.MESSAGE_ID, m.SYSTEM_ID, m.DATE_CREATED, m.EXPIRE_DATE, ISNULL(s.SYSTEM_DESC,'ALL SYSTEMS') AS SYSTEM_DESC, m.MESSAGE ") SQL.Append("FROM MESSAGE m ") SQL.Append("LEFT OUTER JOIN [SYSTEM] s ") SQL.Append("ON m.SYSTEM_ID = s.SYSTEM_ID ") SQL.AppendFormat("WHERE m.SYSTEM_ID IN ({0}) ", sSystems) SQL.Append("OR m.SYSTEM_ID is NULL ") SQL.Append("ORDER BY m.DATE_CREATED DESC; ") SQL.Append("SELECT mm.MESSAGE_ID, mm.MODEL_ID, m.MODEL_DESC ") SQL.Append("FROM MESSAGE_MODEL mm ") SQL.Append("JOIN MODEL m ") SQL.Append(" ON m.MODEL_ID = mm.MODEL_ID ") cmd.CommandText = SQL.ToString cmd.Connection = conn da = New SqlDataAdapter(cmd) da.Fill(dSet) dSet.Tables(0).TableName = "BASE" dSet.Tables(1).TableName = "MODEL" Return dSet Catch ev As Exception cLog.EventLog.logError(ev, cmd) Finally 'conn.Close() End Try End Function

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  • Using JQuery to traverse DOM structure, finding a specific <table> element located after HTML 'comme

    - by Shadow
    I currently have a website source code (no control over the source) which contains certain content that needs to be manipulated. This would be simple on the surface, however there is no unique ID attribute on the tag in question that can uniquely identify it, and therefore allow for further traversal. Here is a snippet of the source code, surrounding the tag in question. ... <td width="100%"> <!--This table snaps the content columns(one or two)--> <table border="0" width="100%"> ... Essentially, the HTML comment stuck out as an easy way to gain access to that element. Using the JQuery comment add-on from this question, and some help from snowlord comment below, I have been able to identify the comment and retrieve the following output using the 'dump' extension. $('td').comments().filter(":contains('This table snaps the content columns(one or two)')").dump(); returns; jQuery Object { 0 = DOMElement [ nodeName: DIV nodeValue: null innerHTML: [ 0 = String: This table snaps the content columns(one or two) ] ] } However I am not sure how to traverse to the sibling element in the DOM. This should be simple, but I haven't had much selector experience with JQuery. Any suggestions are appreciated.

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  • Twitter api - no more than 150 requests per hour....

    - by RenegadeAndy
    Hi. I am writing a twitter app using jtwitter - and its running inside a server inside my work. Anyway - whenever i run it from work it returns the error below and I am only making a couple requests per hour: HTTP/1.1 400 Bad Request {"request":"/1/statuses/user_timeline.json?count=6&id=cicsdemo&","error":"Rate limit exceeded. Clients may not make more than 150 requests per hour."} ] 2010-06-03 18:44:49 zero.timer.TimerTask::run Thread-3 SEVERE [ CWPZA3100E: Exception during processing for timer task, "twitterTimer". Exception: java.lang.ClassCastException: winterwell.jtwitter.Twitter$Status incompatible with java.lang.String ] I run the same code from home - its fine. So obviously at some point twitter thinks our work is all coming from one direct IP - which is why its hitting a limit which it shouldnt. Do I have any choice or workaround - can i make the limit be counted from my direct machine IP - or to my account instead of IP? Can i use a proxy? Has any body else had this problem and solved it?! Before anyone asks the APP must live inside my work - it cannot run anywhere else! Cheers, Andy

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  • Choosing a method for a webservice

    - by Wrikken
    I'm asked to set up a new webservice which should be easily usable in whatever language (php, .NET, Java, etc.) possible. Of course rolling my own can be done, accepting different content-types (xml / x-www-form-urlencoded (normal post) / json / etc.), but an existing method or mechanism would of course be prefered, cutting down time spent on development for the consumers of the service. The webservice does accept modifications / sets (it is not only simply data retrieval), but those will most likely be quite a lot less then gets (we estimate about 2.5% sets, 97.5 gets). The term webservice here indicates the protocol should go over HTTP, not being able to implement it totally client sided (javascript in the end-users browser etc.), as it needs specific user authentication. Both gets and sets are pretty light on the parameter count (usually 1 to 4). Methods like REST (which I'd prefer for only gets), XML-RPC & SOAP (might be a bit overkill, but has the advantage of explicitly defined methods and returns) are the usual suspects. What in your opinion / experience is the most widely 'spoken' and most easily implementable protocol in different languages (seen from the consumers' viewpoint) which could fullfill this need?

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  • What is the best way to return result from business layer to presentation layer when using linq - I

    - by samsur
    I have a business layer that has DTOs that are used in the presentation layer. This application uses entity framework. Here is an example of a class called RoleDTO public class RoleDTO { public Guid RoleId { get; set; } public string RoleName { get; set; } public string RoleDescription { get; set; } public int? OrganizationId { get; set; } } In the BLL I want to have a method that returns a list of DTO.. I would like to know which is the better approach: returning IQueryable or list of DTOs. Although i feel that returning Iqueryable is not a good idea because the connection needs to be open. Here are the 2 different methods using the different approaches public class RoleBLL { private servicedeskEntities sde; public RoleBLL() { sde = new servicedeskEntities(); } public IQueryable<RoleDTO> GetAllRoles() { IQueryable<RoleDTO> role = from r in sde.Roles select new RoleDTO() { RoleId = r.RoleID, RoleName = r.RoleName, RoleDescription = r.RoleDescription, OrganizationId = r.OrganizationId }; return role; } Note: in the above method the datacontext is a private attribute and set in the constructor, so that the connection stays opened. Second approach public static List GetAllRoles() { List roleDTO = new List(); using (servicedeskEntities sde = new servicedeskEntities()) { var roles = from pri in sde.Roles select new { pri.RoleID, pri.RoleName, pri.RoleDescription }; //Add the role entites to the DTO list and return. This is necessary as anonymous types can be returned acrosss methods foreach (var item in roles) { RoleDTO roleItem = new RoleDTO(); roleItem.RoleId = item.RoleID; roleItem.RoleDescription = item.RoleDescription; roleItem.RoleName = item.RoleName; roleDTO.Add(roleItem); } return roleDTO; } Please let me know, if there is a better approach - Thanks,

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  • FluentNHibernate mapping of composite foreign keys

    - by Faron
    I have an existing database schema and wish to replace the custom data access code with Fluent.NHibernate. The database schema cannot be changed since it already exists in a shipping product. And it is preferable if the domain objects did not change or only changed minimally. I am having trouble mapping one unusual schema construct illustrated with the following table structure: CREATE TABLE [Container] ( [ContainerId] [uniqueidentifier] NOT NULL, CONSTRAINT [PK_Container] PRIMARY KEY ( [ContainerId] ASC ) ) CREATE TABLE [Item] ( [ItemId] [uniqueidentifier] NOT NULL, [ContainerId] [uniqueidentifier] NOT NULL, CONSTRAINT [PK_Item] PRIMARY KEY ( [ContainerId] ASC, [ItemId] ASC ) ) CREATE TABLE [Property] ( [ContainerId] [uniqueidentifier] NOT NULL, [PropertyId] [uniqueidentifier] NOT NULL, CONSTRAINT [PK_Property] PRIMARY KEY ( [ContainerId] ASC, [PropertyId] ASC ) ) CREATE TABLE [Item_Property] ( [ContainerId] [uniqueidentifier] NOT NULL, [ItemId] [uniqueidentifier] NOT NULL, [PropertyId] [uniqueidentifier] NOT NULL, CONSTRAINT [PK_Item_Property] PRIMARY KEY ( [ContainerId] ASC, [ItemId] ASC, [PropertyId] ASC ) ) CREATE TABLE [Container_Property] ( [ContainerId] [uniqueidentifier] NOT NULL, [PropertyId] [uniqueidentifier] NOT NULL, CONSTRAINT [PK_Container_Property] PRIMARY KEY ( [ContainerId] ASC, [PropertyId] ASC ) ) The existing domain model has the following class structure: The Property class contains other members representing the property's name and value. The ContainerProperty and ItemProperty classes have no additional members. They exist only to identify the owner of the Property. The Container and Item classes have methods that return collections of ContainerProperty and ItemProperty respectively. Additionally, the Container class has a method that returns a collection of all of the Property objects in the object graph. My best guess is that this was either a convenience method or a legacy method that was never removed. The business logic mainly works with Item (as the aggregate root) and only works with a Container when adding or removing Items. I have tried several techniques for mapping this but none work so I won't include them here unless someone asks for them. How would you map this?

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  • How can I update a record using a correlated subquery?

    - by froadie
    I have a function that accepts one parameter and returns a table/resultset. I want to set a field in a table to the first result of that recordset, passing in one of the table's other fields as the parameter. If that's too complicated in words, the query looks something like this: UPDATE myTable SET myField = (SELECT TOP 1 myFunctionField FROM fn_doSomething(myOtherField) WHERE someCondition = 'something') WHERE someOtherCondition = 'somethingElse' In this example, myField and myOtherField are fields in myTable, and myFunctionField is a field return by fn_doSomething. This seems logical to me, but I'm getting the following strange error: 'myOtherField' is not a recognized OPTIMIZER LOCK HINTS option. Any idea what I'm doing wrong, and how I can accomplish this? *UPDATE: * Based on Anil Soman's answer, I realized that the function is expecting a string parameter and the field being passed is an integer. I'm not sure if this should be a problem as an explicit call to the function using an integer value works - e.g. fn_doSomething(12345) seems to automatically cast the number to an string. However, I tried to do an explicit cast: UPDATE myTable SET myField = (SELECT TOP 1 myFunctionField FROM fn_doSomething(CAST(myOtherField AS varchar(1000))) WHERE someCondition = 'something') WHERE someOtherCondition = 'somethingElse' Now I'm getting the following error: Line 5: Incorrect syntax near '('.

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  • fgets in c don't return a portion of an string

    - by Marc
    Hi! I'm totally new in C, and I'm trying to do a little application that searches a string into a file, my problem is that I need to open a big file (more than 1GB) with just one line inside and fgets return me the entire file (I'm doing test with a 10KB file). actually this is my code: #include <stdio.h> #include <string.h> int main(int argc, char *argv[]) { char *search = argv[argc-1]; int retro = strlen(search); int pun = 0; int sortida; int limit = 10; char ara[20]; FILE *fp; if ((fp = fopen ("SEARCHFILE", "r")) == NULL){ sortida = -1; exit (1); } while(!feof(fp)){ if (fgets(ara, 20, fp) == NULL){ break; } //this must be a 20 bytes line, but it gets the entyre 10Kb file printf("%s",ara); } sortida = 1; if(fclose(fp) != 0){ sortida = -2; exit (1); } return 0; } What can I do to find an string into a file? I'v tried with GREP but it don't helps, because it returns the position:ENTIRE_STRING. I'm open to ideas. Thanks in advance!

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