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• Interface Builder caching bad data (voodoo)

  - by Ryan Townshend

  Sometimes IB will hold onto old or bad references, and I cannot seem to remove or edit them. EDIT I have made this a wiki question with the intention of gathering more data on the phenomenon. Answers involving situations where other coders have encountered this are welcome. This happened to me again last night with a table controller. When I created a spike project to try and reproduce the error, the system worked the way I anticipated. Then back in the actual project the bad behavior continued, even if I remove the xib file and all controllers involved. Creating a whole new project with none of the original (problematic) xib and nib files worked correctly. This question is not about the specifics of this incident but about this type of incident in IB. Does anyone know more about this type of bad IB behaviour, and possibly a more stylish way to to eliminate it than nuking the project? Note, removing the offending IB files and recreating them in the same project has not solved this for me in the past, only whole new projects. Answers regarding examples of when/how this glitch has been observed/created are welcome as well.

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• Not showing error when calling another function in Spring

  - by Javi

  Hello, I have a controller with 2 methods. The first one just add some lists to the model (the lists of my comboboxes) and return a JSP with a form. The second one validates the data and if there aren't errors it saves the data. The code looks like this: public String showForm(Model model){ //load some data into some lists return "tiles:myJSPfile"; } public String save(@Valid @ModelAttribute("MyData") Data data, BindingResult result, Model model){ if(result.hasErrors()){ //there are errors: show form with error messages //(but I need to reload the combobox lists) return showForm(model); } //save data } The problem is that in this way I don't see the error messages in the form (though I see by the debugger that it has found errors). I've thought that the problem comes because the showForm method doesn't have the error messages because it can't see the BindingResult, so I've added BindingResult as a parameter of showForm method, but it still doesn't work. I've added My Model Attribute as well but I get the same problem. If I just return the JSP file in the save method I can see the errors, but in this way I would need to add again in this other method the lists I had already added in the showForm (duplicated code). I can't save the data in session scope so it's compulsory to get again the lists after getting the error. if(result.hasErrors()){ //there are errors: show form with error messages return "tiles:myJSPfile"; } Why are errors not shown when I call a function to display my JSP different from the one I used for the validation? What's the best way to do this? Thanks.

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• Rails form with a better URL

  - by Sam

  Wow, switching to REST is a different paradigm for sure and is mainly a headache right now. view <% form_tag (businesses_path, :method => "get") do %> <%= select_tag :business_category_id, options_for_select(@business_categories.collect {|bc| [bc.name, bc.id ]}.insert(0, ["All Containers", 0]), which_business_category(@business_category) ), { :onchange => "this.form.submit();"} %> <% end %> controller def index @business_categories = BusinessCategory.find(:all) if params[:business_category_id].to_i != 0 @business_category = BusinessCategory.find(params[:business_category_id]) @businesses = @business_category.businesses else @businesses = Business.all end respond_to do |format| format.html # index.html.erb format.xml { render :xml => @businesses } end end routes map.resources What I want to to is get a better URL than what this form is presenting which is the following: http://localhost:3000/businesses?business_category_id=1 Without REST I would have do something like http://localhost:3000/business/view/bbq bbq as permalink or I would have done http://localhost:300/business_categories/view/bbq and get the business that are associated with the category but I don't really know the best way of doing this. So the two questions are what is the best logic of finding a business by its categories using the latter form and number two how to get that in a pretty URL all through RESTful routes in Rails.

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• Rails does not display error messages on a form in a custom method

  - by slythic

  Hi all, I've created a custom method called checkout in my app. I create an order (which is done my adding products to my "cart"), assign it to my client, and then I head to my checkout screen where I confirm the items and enter their customer order number and complete the order (submit). Everything works great except that it doesn't display error messages. I'm able to display a flash error notice (seen in complete_order method) when things go wrong but it doesn't specify the details like a normal form would. The error messages should appear if the customer order number is not unique for that client. Below is the custom method (checkout) related code. Order Model: validates_uniqueness_of :customer_order_number, :scope => :client_id Orders_controller: def checkout @order = current_order end def complete_order @order = current_order respond_to do |format| if @order.update_attributes(params[:order]) @order.complete #sets submitted datetime and state to 'complete' flash[:notice] = 'Thank you! Your order is being processed.' format.html { redirect_to( products_path ) } format.xml { head :ok } else flash[:error] = 'Please review your items' #added to confirm an error is present format.html { redirect_to( checkout_path ) } format.xml { render :xml => @order.errors, :status => :unprocessable_entity } end end end And the form in the checkout view: <% form_for @order, :url => { :controller => "orders", :action => "complete_order" } do |f| %> <%= f.error_messages %> <%= f.text_field :customer_order_number, :label => "Purchase Order Number" %> <p> <%= f.submit 'Complete Order', :confirm => 'Are you sure?' %> <small> or <%= link_to 'cancel', current_cart_path %></small> </p> <% end %> Any idea how I can display the specific error messages? Thank you in advance! -Tony

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• iPhone Core Data does not refresh table

  - by Brian515

  Hi all, I'm trying to write an application with Core Data, and I have been able to successfully read and write to the core data database. However, if I write to the database in one view controller, my other view controllers will not see the change until the app is closed then reopened again. This is really frustrating. I'm not entirely sure how to get the refresh - (void)refreshObject:(NSManagedObject *)object mergeChanges:(BOOL)flag method to work. How do I get a reference to my managed object? Anyways, here's the code I'm using to read the data back. This is in the viewDidLoad method. NSFetchRequest *request = [[NSFetchRequest alloc] init]; NSEntityDescription *entity = [NSEntityDescription entityForName:@"Website" inManagedObjectContext:managedObjectContext]; [request setEntity:entity]; NSSortDescriptor *sortDescriptor = [[NSSortDescriptor alloc] initWithKey:@"siteName" ascending:NO]; NSArray *sortDescriptors = [[NSArray alloc] initWithObjects:sortDescriptor, nil]; [request setSortDescriptors:sortDescriptors]; [sortDescriptor release]; [sortDescriptors release]; NSError *error = nil; NSMutableArray *mutableFetchResults = [[managedObjectContext executeFetchRequest:request error:&error] mutableCopy]; if(mutableFetchResults == nil) { //Handle the error } [self setNewsTitlesArray:mutableFetchResults]; [mutableFetchResults release]; [request release]; [newsSourcesTableView reloadData]; Thanks for help in advance!

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• Authorization and Jquery dialog problem.

  - by bbrepols

  Hi, I have a little problem with a Jquery dialog for an action that requires a role. In my example, the user can click on a delete button and must confirm the action. In my controller, the Delete action requires a role, if the user is in the required role, the object is deleted. The problem: How to alert the user if * the element was deleted (redirect to the Index view) * there was an error (alert with the message) * he doesn't have the rights to delete (alert with the message) Before using the authorize filter, the delete action returned a JSON with a Boolean that indicates if there was an error, an URL to redirect on success and a message to alert on error. As I can't return a JSON from my filter, I created an other method with the authorize filter that returns a partial view with the confirm content. If the user doesn't have the rights, the filter returns a partial view with an unauthorized exception content. The problem: How to distinct which partial view was returned. When I create the dialog, I need to know for the buttons function. Thanks!

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• 2 different routes on one page?

  - by Dejan.S

  Hi I'm pretty new with MVC2 or MVC in general. If it's one thing I get caught up with it's routes. Like now I got this scenario. Im going from the regular site to Admin. My navigation is the same partialview on both I just do a check which data to render something like this. <% if (!Request.RawUrl.Contains("Admin")){%> <% foreach (var site in Model) { %> <%= Html.MenuItem(site.BelongSite, "Sida", "Site", site.BelongSite) %> | <%} %> <%} else {%> <%= Html.ActionLink("Konfig", "Konfigurera", "Admin") %> <% } %> My route looks like this routes.MapRoute( "Admin", // Route name "Admin/{action}/{name}", // URL with parameters new { controller = "Admin", action = "konfigurera", name = UrlParameter.Optional } // Parameter defaults ); On my View called Konfigurera I got Edit sites and they use the route above and it works great. The navigation tho dont get no action assigned to it. It's just <a href='Admin/'> The navigation is in the shared folder, and it is a strongly typed. Any Ideas? I been struggling with this for about a hour now Thanks for any input

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• Model binding & derived model classes

  - by Richard Ev

  Does ASP.NET MVC offer any simple way to get model binding to work when you have model classes that inherit from others? In my scenario I have a View that is strongly typed to List<Person>. I have a couple of classes that inherit from Person, namely PersonTypeOne and PersonTypeTwo. I have three strongly typed partial views with names that match these class names (and render form elements for the properties of their respective models). This means that in my main View I can have the following code: <% for(int i = 0; i < Model.Count; i++) { Html.RenderPartial(Model[i].GetType().Name, Model[i]); } %> This works well, apart from when the user submits the form the relevant controller action method just gets a List<Person>, rather than a list of Person, PersonTypeOne and PersonTypeTwo. This is pretty much as expected as the form submission doesn't contain enough information to tell the default model binder to create any instances of PersonTypeOne and PersonTypeTwo classes. So, is there any way to get such functionality from the default model binder?

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• running .net application over a network

  - by Marlon

  Hello, I need some advice please. I need to enable a .Net application to run over a network share, the problem is that this will be on clients network shares and so the path will not be identical. I've had a quick look at ClickOnce and the publish options in VS2008 but it wants a specific network share location - and I'm assuming this location gets stored somewhere when it does its thing. At the moment the job is being done with a old VB6 application and so gets around all these security issues, but that application is poorly written and almost impossible to maintain so it really needs to go. Is it possible for the domain controller to be set up to allow this specific .Net application to execute? Any other options would be welcomed as I want to get this little application is very business critical. I aught to say that the client networks are schools, and thus are often quite locked down as are the client machines, so manually adding exceptions to each client machine is a big no no. Marlon --Edit-- Apologies, I forgot to mention we're restricted to .net 2.0 for the moment, we are planning to upgrade this to 4.0 but that won't be immediate.

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• Entity Framework - Insert/Update new entity with child-entities

  - by Christina Mayers

  I have found many questions here on SO and articles all over the internet but none really tackled my problem. My model looks like this (I striped all non essential Properties): Everyday or so "Play" gets updated (via a XML-file containing the information). internal Play ParsePlayInfo(XDocument doc) { Play play = (from p in doc.Descendants("Play") select new Play { Theatre = new Theatre() { //Properties }, //Properties LastUpdate = DateTime.Now }).SingleOrDefault(); var actors = (from a in doc.XPathSelectElement(".//Play//Actors").Nodes() select new Lecturer() { //Properties }); var parts = (from p in doc.XPathSelectElement(".//Play//Parts").Nodes() select new Part() { //Properties }).ToList(); foreach (var item in parts) { play.Parts.Add(item); } var reviews = (from r in doc.XPathSelectElement(".//Play//Reviews").Nodes() select new Review { //Properties }).ToList(); for (int i = 0; i < reviews.Count(); i++) { PlayReviews pR = new PlayReviews() { Review = reviews[i], Play = play, //Properties }; play.PlayReviews.Add(pR); } return play; } If I add this "play" via Add() every Childobject of Play will be inserted - regardless if some exist already. Since I need to update existing entries I have to do something about that. As far as I can tell I have the following options: add/update the child entities in my PlayRepositories Add-Method restructure and rewrite ParsePlayInfo() so that get all the child entities first, add or update them and then create a new Play. The only problem I have here is that I wanted ParsePlayInfo() to be persistence ignorant, I could work around this by creating multiple parse methods (eg ParseActors() ) and assign them to play in my controller (I'm using ASP.net MVC) after everything was parsed and added Currently I am implementing option 1 - but it feels wrong. I'd appreciate it if someone could guide me in the right direction on this one.

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• Login with Kohana auth module - what am I doing wrong?

  - by keithjgrant

  I'm trying to login with the following controller action, but my login attempt keeps failing (I get the 'invalid username and/or password' message). What am I doing wrong? I also tried the other method given in the examples in the auth documentation, Auth::instance()->login($user->username, $form->password);, but I get the same result. Kohana version is 2.3.4. public function login() { $auth = Auth::instance(); if ($auth->logged_in()) { url::redirect('/account/summary'); } $view = new View('login'); $view->username = ''; $view->password = ''; $post = $this->input->post(); $form = new Validation($post); $form->pre_filter('trim', 'username') ->pre_filter('trim', 'password') ->add_rules('username', 'required'); $failed = false; if (!empty($post) && $form->validate()) { $login = array( 'username' => $form->username, 'password' => $form->password, ); if (ORM::factory('user')->login($login)) { url::redirect('/accounts/summary'); } else { $view->username = $form->username; $view->message = in_array('required', $form->errors()) ? 'Username and password are required.' : 'Invalid username and/or password.'; } } $view->render(true); }

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• Passing data between ViewControllers versus doing local Fetch in each VC

  - by Tofrizer

  Hi All, I'm developing an iPhone app using Core Data and I'm looking for some general advice and recommendations on whether its acceptable to pass data between ViewControllers versus doing a local fetch in each ViewController as you navigate to it. Ordinarily I would say it all depends on various factors (e.g. performance etc) but the passing data approach is so prevalent in my app and I'm spooked by all the stories about Apple rejecting apps because of not conforming to their standard guidelines. So let me put another way -- is it non-standard to pass data between VC's? The reason I pass data so much is because each ViewController is just another view on to data present in my object model / graph. Once I have a handle on my first object in the first view controller (which I of course do have to fetch), I can use the existing object composition / relationships to drill down into the next level of detail into data and so I just pass these objects to the next VC. Separately, one possible downside with this passing-data-to-each-VC approach is I don't benefit from (what I perceive to be) the optimisation/benefits that NSFetchedResultsController provides in terms of efficient memory usage and section handling. My app is read-only but I do have one table with 5000 rows and I'm curious if I am missing out on NSFetchedResultsController benefits. Any thoughts on this as well? Can I somehow still benefit from NSFetchedResultsController goodness without having to do a full fetch (as I would have already passed in the data from my previous VC)? Thanks a lot.

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• Display subclass data in XCode Expression window

  - by Nick VanderPyle

  I'm debugging an iPhone application I've written using XCode 3.2 and I cannot view the relevant public properties of an object I pull from Core Data. When I watch the object in the Expressions window it only displays the data from the base NSManagedObject. I'd like to see the properties that are on the subclass, not the superclass. If it helps, here's some of the code I'm using. Settings is a subclass of NSManagedObject. I created it using XCode's built-in modeler. Declared like: @interface Settings : NSManagedObject { } @property (nonatomic, retain) NSNumber * hasNews; @property (nonatomic, retain) NSString * logoUrl; @property (nonatomic, retain) NSNumber * hasPaymentGateway; @property (nonatomic, retain) NSString * customerCode; ... In the interface of my controller I have: Settings *settings; I populate settings with: settings = (Settings *)[NSEntityDescription insertNewObjectForEntityForName:@"Settings" inManagedObjectContext:UIAppManagedObjectContext()]; I then set the properties like: settings.hasNews = [NSNumber numberWithBool:TRUE]; I've tried casting settings as (Settings *) in the Expression window but that doesn't help. All I see are the properties to NSManagedObject. I'm using NSLog but would rather not.

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• Creating search functionality with Laravel 4

  - by Mitch Glenn

  I am trying to create a way for users to search through all the products on a website. When they search for "burton snowboards", I only want the snowboards with the brand burton to appear in the results. But if they searched only "burton", then all products with the brand burton should appear. This is what I have attempted to write but isn't working for multiple reasons. Controller: public function search(){ $input = Input::all(); $v= Validator::make($input, Product::$rules); if($v->passes()) { $searchTerms = explode(' ', $input); $searchTermBits = array(); foreach ($searchTerms as $term) { $term = trim($term); if (!empty($term)){ $searchTermBits[] = "search LIKE '%$term%'"; } } $result = DB::table('products') ->select('*') ->whereRaw(". implode(' AND ', $searchTermBits) . ") ->get(); return View::make('layouts/search', compact('result')); } return Redirect::route('/'); } I am trying to recreate the first solution given for this stackoverflow.com problem The first problem I have identified is that i'm trying to explode the $input, but it's already an array. So i'm not sure how to go about fixing that. And the way I have written the ->whereRaw(". implode(' AND ', $searchTermBits) . "), i'm sure isn't correct. I'm not sure how to fix these problems though, any insights or solutions will be greatly appreciated.

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• Problems setting up AuthLogic

  - by sscirrus

  Hi all, I'm trying to set up a simple login using AuthLogic into my User table. Every time I try, the login fails and I don't know why. I'm sure this is a simple error but I've been hitting a brick wall with it for a while. #user_sessions_controller def create @user_session = UserSession.new(params[:user_session]) if @user_session.save flash[:notice] = "Login successful!" else flash[:notice] = "We couldn't log you in. Please try again!" redirect_to :controller => "index", :action => "index" end end #_user_login.html.erb (this is the partial from my index page where Users log in) <% form_tag user_session_path do %> <p><label for="login">Login:</label> <%= text_field_tag "login", nil, :class => "inputBox", :id => "login", </p> <p><label for="password">Password: </label> <%= password_field_tag "password", nil, :class => "inputBox", :id => "password", </p> <p><%= submit_tag "submit", :class => "submit" %></p> <% end %> I had Faker generate some data for my user table but I cannot log in! Every time I try it just redirects to index. Where am I going wrong? Thanks everybody.

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• UIView Animation Inconsistent Result

  - by Josh Kahane

  I am trying to make use of UIView animation to slide my views across the screen. I have a UIScrollView in my view controller, in which I have my UIViews. I alos have this method: -(void)translateView:(UIView *)view toRect:(CGRect)rect withDuration:(CGFloat)duration { [UIView animateWithDuration:duration animations:^ { view.frame = rect; } completion:^(BOOL finished) { //Finished }]; } I call this to move my UIView in an animated fashion to a CGRect of my choice over a certain time. I have a loop which creates and slides out 7 views. This works great, I call it like below, the loop of course calling this 7 times on different views: [self translateView:cell toRect:translationRect withDuration:0.7]; However, I can't then call this again immediately afterwards, just nothing happens. Although, lets say I call this again after a 2 second NSTimer, the animation does run, but then when i scroll my UIScrollView, the view I just animated jumps back to its previous CGRect. Hope you can help, its all feeling very un-explanetory, Ill post more code if it isn't making any sense, thanks.

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• ASP.NET MVC routing issue with Google Chrome client

  - by synergetic

  My Silverlight 4 app is hosted in ASP.NET MVC 2 web application. It works fine when I browse with Internet Explorer 8. However Google Chrome (version 5) cannot find ASP.NET controllers. Specifically, the following ASP.NET controller works both with Chrome and IE. //[OutputCache(NoStore = true, Duration = 0, VaryByParam = "None")] public ContentResult TestMe() { ContentResult result = new ContentResult(); XElement response = new XElement("SvrResponse", new XElement("Data", "my data")); result.Content = response.ToString(); return result; } If I uncomment [OutputCache] attribute then it works with IE but not with Chrome. Also, I use custom model binding with controllers, so if I write the following: public ContentResult TestMe(UserContext userContext) { ... } it also works with IE, but again not with Chrome which gives me error message saying that resource was not found. Of course, I configured IIS 6 for handling all requests via aspnet_isapi.dll and I have registered custom model binder in my web app's Global.asax inside Application_Start() method. Can someone explain me what might be the cause? Thank you.

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• How would the 'Model' in a Rails-type webapp be implemented in a functional programming langauge?

  - by ceptorial

  In MVC web development frameworks such as Ruby on Rails, Django, and CakePHP, HTTP requests are routed to controllers, which fetch objects which are usually persisted to a backend database store. These objects represent things like users, blog posts, etc., and often contain logic within their methods for permissions, fetching and/or mutating other objects, validation, etc. These frameworks are all very much object oriented. I've been reading up recently on functional programming and it seems to tout tremendous benefits such as testability, conciseness, modularity, etc. However most of the examples I've seen for functional programming implement trivial functionality like quicksort or the fibonnacci sequence, not complex webapps. I've looked at a few 'functional' web frameworks, and they all seem to implement the view and controller just fine, but largely skip over the whole 'model' and 'persistence' part. (I'm talking more about frameworks like Compojure which are supposed to be purely functional, versus something Lift which conveniently seems to use the OO part of Scala for the model -- but correct me if I'm wrong here.) I haven't seen a good explanation of how functional programming can be used to provide the metaphor that OO programming provides, i.e. tables map to objects, and objects can have methods which provide powerful, encapsulated logic such as permissioning and validation. Also the whole concept of using SQL queries to persist data seems to violate the whole 'side effects' concept. Could someone provide an explanation of how the 'model' layer would be implemented in a functionally programmed web framework?

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• backbone.js Model.get() returns undefined, scope using coffeescript + coffee toaster?

  - by benipsen

  I'm writing an app using coffeescript with coffee toaster (an awesome NPM module for stitching) that builds my app.js file. Lots of my application classes and templates require info about the current user so I have an instance of class User (extends Backbone.Model) stored as a property of my main Application class (extends Backbone.Router). As part of the initialization routine I grab the user from the server (which takes care of authentication, roles, account switching etc.). Here's that coffeescript: @user = new models.User @user.fetch() console.log(@user) console.log(@user.get('email')) The first logging statement outputs the correct Backbone.Model attributes object in the console just as it should: User _changing: false _escapedAttributes: Object _pending: Object _previousAttributes: Object _silent: Object attributes: Object account: Object created_on: "1983-12-13 00:00:00" email: "[email protected]" icon: "0" id: "1" last_login: "2012-06-07 02:31:38" name: "Ben Ipsen" roles: Object __proto__: Object changed: Object cid: "c0" id: "1" __proto__: ctor app.js:228 However, the second returns undefined despite the model attributes clearly being there in the console when logged. And just to make things even more interesting, typing "window.app.user.get('email')" into the console manually returns the expected value of "[email protected]"... ? Just for reference, here's how the initialize method compiles into my app.js file: Application.prototype.initialize = function() { var isMobile; isMobile = navigator.userAgent.match(/(iPhone|iPod|iPad|Android|BlackBerry)/); this.helpers = new views.DOMHelpers().initialize().setup_viewport(isMobile); this.user = new models.User(); this.user.fetch(); console.log(this.user); console.log(this.user.get('email')); return this; }; I initialize the Application controller in my static HTML like so: jQuery(document).ready(function(){ window.app = new controllers.Application(); }); Suggestions please and thank you!

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• Passing a URL as a URL parameter

  - by Andrea

  I am implementing OpenId login in a CakePHP application. At a certain point, I need to redirect to another action, while preserving the information about the OpenId identity, which is itself a URL (with GET parameters), for instance https://www.google.com/accounts/o8/id?id=31g2iy321i3y1idh43q7tyYgdsjhd863Es How do I pass this data? The first attempt would be function openid() { ... $this->redirect(array('controller' => 'users', 'action' => 'openid_create', $openid)); } but the obvious problem is that this completely messes up the way CakePHP parses URL parameters. I'd need to do either of the following: 1) encode the URL in a CakePHP friendly manner for passing it, and decoding it after that, or 2) pass the URL as a POST parameter but I don't know how to do this. EDIT: In response to comments, I should be more clear. I am using the OpenId component, and I have a working OpenId implementation. What I need to do is to link OpenId with an existing user system. When a new user logs in via OpenId, I ask for more details, and then create a new user with this data. The problem is that I have to keep the OpenId URL throughout this process.

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• MVC : Checkboxes generated using JavaScript not appearing in FormCollection on postback

  - by Andy Evans

  I took over another project (written by one contractor, modified by another and now it's not working) written using MVC/C# where a view that has a table (see below) is dynamically populated using JSON/Javascript - the first column of which is a checkbox. View (spark view engine) <table id='component_list' name='component_list' cellpadding='0' border='0' cellspacing='0'> <thead> <tr> <th>&nbsp;</th> <th>Component</th> <th>Component Type</th> <th>Evenflo Part #</th> <th>Supplier Part #</th> <th>Supplier</th> <th>Requirement</th> <th>Location</th> <th>Region</th> </tr> </thead> <tbody> </tbody> </table> When the page is rendered, I look at the source for the page and do not see the table data (I wouldn't expect to see this). However, when the form is posted back, controller, the FormCollection is empty. Supposedly this had been working before the last contractor got their hands on it - which is another post all together. My goal right now is having the checkboxes in the FormCollection. Any suggestions would be greatly appreciated. Thanks,

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• Memory leak when returning object

  - by Yakattak

  I have this memory leak that has been very stubborn for the past week or so. I have a class method I use in a class called "ArchiveManager" that will unarchive a specific .dat file for me, and return an array with it's contents. Here is the method: +(NSMutableArray *)unarchiveCustomObject { NSMutableArray *array = [NSMutableArray arrayWithArray:[NSKeyedUnarchiver unarchiveObjectWithFile:/* Archive Path */]]; return array; } I understand I don't have ownership of it at this point, and I return it. CustomObject *myObject = [[ArchiveManager unarchiveCustomObject] objectAtIndex:0]; Then, later when I unarchive it in a view controller to be used (I don't even create an array of it, nor do I make a pointer to it, I just reference it to get something out of the array returned by unarchiveCustomIbject (objectAtIndex). This is where Instruments is calling a memory leak, yet I don't see how this can leak! Any ideas? Thanks in advance. Edit: CustomObject initWithCoder added: -(id)initWithCoder:(NSCoder *)aDecoder { if (self = [super init]) { self.string1 = [aDecoder decodeObjectForKey:kString1]; self.string2 = [aDecoder decodeObjectForKey:kString2]; self.string3 = [aDecoder decodeObjectForKey:kString3]; UIImage *picture = [[UIImage alloc] initWithData:[aDecoder decodeObjectForKey:kPicture]]; self.picture = picture; self.array = [aDecoder decodeObjectForKey:kArray]; [picture release]; } return self; }

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• Binding, Prefixes and generated HTML

  - by Vman

  MVC newbie question re binders. Supposing I have two strongly typed partial actions that happen to have a model attributes with the same name, and are rendered in the same containing page i.e.: Class Friend {string Name {get; set ;} DateTime DOB {get; set ;}} Class Foe {string Name {get; set ;} string ReasonForDislike {get; set ;}} Both partials will have a line: <%= Html.TextBoxFor(model => model.Name) %> And associated controller actions: public ActionResult SaveFriend(Friend friend) public ActionResult SaveFoe(Foe foe) My problem is that both will render on my containing page with the same id (of course, bad for lots of reasons). I’m aware of the [Bind] attribute that allows me add a prefix, resulting in code: public ActionResult SaveFriend([Bind(Prefix = “friend”)] Friend friend) <%= Html.TextBox("friend.Name", Model. Name) %> //Boo, no TextBoxFor :( But this still doesn’t cut it. I can just about tolerate the loss of the strongly typed TextBoxFor helpers but I’ve yet to get clientside validation to work with prefixes: I’ve tried: <%= Html.ValidationMessage("friend.Name") %> ...and every other variant I can think of. I seem to need the model to be aware of the prefix in both directions but bind only applies when mapping the inbound request. It seems (to me) a common scenario but I’m struggling to find examples out there. What am I missing! Thanks in advance.

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• How do I write a J2EE/EJB Singleton?

  - by Bears will eat you

  A day ago my application was one EAR, containing one WAR, one EJB JAR, and a couple of utility JAR files. I had a POJO singleton class in one of those utility files, it worked, and all was well with the world: EAR |--- WAR |--- EJB JAR |--- Util 1 JAR |--- Util 2 JAR |--- etc. Then I created a second WAR and found out (the hard way) that each WAR has its own ClassLoader, so each WAR sees a different singleton, and things break down from there. This is not so good. EAR |--- WAR 1 |--- WAR 2 |--- EJB JAR |--- Util 1 JAR |--- Util 2 JAR |--- etc. So, I'm looking for a way to create a Java singleton object that will work across WARs (across ClassLoaders?). The @Singleton EJB annotation seemed pretty promising until I found that JBoss 5.1 doesn't seem to support that annotation (which was added as part of EJB 3.1). Did I miss something - can I use @Singleton with JBoss 5.1? Upgrading to JBoss AS 6 is not an option right now. Alternately, I'd be just as happy to not have to use EJB to implement my singleton. What else can I do to solve this problem? Basically, I need a semi-application-wide* hook into a whole bunch of other objects, like various cached data, and app config info. As a last resort, I've already considered merging my two WARs into one, but that would be pretty hellish. *Meaning: available basically anywhere above a certain layer; for now, mostly in my WARs - the View and Controller (in a loose sense).

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• MVC 2 - Name Attributes on HTML Input Field when using Parent/Child Entities

  - by Click Ahead

  Hi All, I'm pretty new to MVC 2 using the Entity Framework. I have two tables Company {ID int identity PK,Name nvarchar} and User {ID int identity PK,UserName nvarchar,CompanyID int FK}. A Foreign Key exists between User and Company. I generated my ADO.NET Entity Data Model, a Controller and a view to insert a record. My HTML form has the fields Company and UserName and the idea is when I click save a Company and User is inserted into the database. Sounds straight forward right! My question is as follows: I created a strongly-typed view derived from my 'User' entity. I'm using the the html helper Html.TextBoxFor(model = model.Organisation.Name) but the html name attribute for this input field is 'Organisation.Name'. My problem with this is that the dot throws up all sorts of issues in JQuery, which sees this as a property. If I want to change the name I read that I can use DataAnnotations but because I used the Entity Designer this involves using Buddy Classes. Seems like a bit of overkill just to change the html name attribute on this input field. Am I approaching this the right way or am I missing something here? Thanks for the help !

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