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  • What is faster: multiple `send`s or using buffering?

    - by dauerbaustelle
    I'm playing around with sockets in C/Python and I wonder what is the most efficient way to send headers from a Python dictionary to the client socket. My ideas: use a send call for every header. Pros: No memory allocation needed. Cons: many send calls -- probably error prone; error management should be rather complicated use a buffer. Pros: one send call, error checking a lot easier. Cons: Need a buffer :-) malloc/realloc should be rather slow and using a (too) big buffer to avoid realloc calls wastes memory. Any tips for me? Thanks :-)

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  • ReaderWriterLockSlim question.

    - by Kamarey
    There are lots written about the ReaderWriterLockSlim class which allows multiple read and a single write. All of these (at least that I had found) tell how to use it without much explanation why and how it works. The standard code sample is: lock.EnterUpgradeableReadLock(); try { if (test if write is required) { lock.EnterWriteLock(); try { change the resourse here. } finally { lock.ExitWriteLock(); } } } finally { lock.ExitUpgradeableReadLock(); } The question is: if upgradeable lock permits only a single thread to enter its section, why I should call EnterWriteLock method within? What will happen if I don't? Or what will happen if instead of EnterUpgradeableReadLock I will call EnterWriteLock and will write to a resource without using upgradeable lock at all?

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  • Scala methods ending in _=

    - by Alexey Romanov
    I seem to remember Scala treating methods ending in _= specially, so something like this: object X { var x: Int = 0; def y_=(n : Int) { x = n }} X.y = 1 should call X.y_=(1). However, in 2.8.0 RC1, I get an error message: <console>:6: error: value y is not a member of object X X.y = 1 ^ Interestingly, just trying to call the method without parentheses fails as well: scala> X.y_= 1 <console>:1: error: ';' expected but integer literal found. X.y_= 1 ^ Am I misremembering something which does actually exist or did I just invent it out of whole cloth?

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  • how to increment a javascript variable title that is within a php while loop

    - by steve
    I'm building multiple countdown clocks on one page. The number of countdown clocks varies from day to day so I need to call javascript several times from within "while" code in php to produce different clocks. The following code works but it's based on knowing how many clocks are needed before I start: <script language="javascript" src="countdown.js"></script> <script language="javascript"> var cd1 = new countdown('cd1'); cd1.Div = "clock1"; cd1.TargetDate = "<?php echo "$clocktime"; ?>"; cd1.DisplayFormat = "%%D%% days, %%H%% hours, %%M%% minutes, %%S%% seconds until event AAA happens"; </script> <div id="clockwrapper"><div id="clock1">[clock]</div></div> <script language="javascript" src="countdown.js"></script> <script language="javascript"> var cd2 = new countdown('cd2'); cd2.Div = "clock2"; cd2.TargetDate = "02/01/2011 5:30:30 PM"; cd2.DisplayFormat = "%%D%% days, %%H%% hours, %%M%% minutes, %%S%% seconds until event BBB happens..."; </script> <div id="clockwrapper"><div id="clock2">[clock]</div></div> So if I keep on calling the javascript above (the code with cd1 in it) all previous "cd1" clocks change to the latest clock because it is being overwritten. Somehow I need to call javascript from within my "while" loop in php and have cd1 become cd2, then cd3 so that the clocks work as they're supposed to. How do I go about doing this? I don't know how to call the javascript several times and increment the variable cd1 within the javascript. I tried something like this but couldn't get it to work. $id=mysql_result($result,$i,"id"); while($id){ $cd = ("$cd"."$id"); ?> <script language="javascript" src="countdown.js"></script> <script language="javascript"> var <?php echo "$cd"; ?> = new countdown('<?php echo "$cd"; ?>'); .... </script> <div id="clockwrapper"><div id="<?php echo "$cd"; ?>">[clock]</div></div> <?php $id=mysql_result($result,$i,"id"); } ?> Surely there is some easy way of getting around this that I don't know about. Thanks

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  • Android on TabHost little more depth of the problem, there is the hard return key on the treatment.

    - by user365723
    Hello everybody, I have a question on the Android Activity, for example I have a TabHost, and there are included four Activities, the first tab is a search Activity, enter a keyword in the current result of this Activity to return, and in the current Activity display. Is called to display the search results themselves. And after searching several times, and then return to key mobile phone keypad, the display is the result of the last search keyword, I want the press back key to return to the last call of the Activity or TabHost. Should I do? By the way, in a tab in the use of Intent calls a Activity, eg: host.addTab (host.newTabSpec ("friend"). setIndicator ("search") . SetContent (new Intent (this, Search.class))); In this Activity in the need to call another Activity, e.g: startActivity (new Intent (this, Other.class)); Also called another Activity displayed on this tab, but not yet jump out of the show. I ask how you can achieve this?

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  • Saving a 'Date' using DataMapper on AppEngine+JRuby

    - by Ryan Montgomery
    I have a a model as follows: class Total include DataMapper::Resource property :id, Serial property :amount, Float, :default => 0.00 property :day, Date belongs_to :calendar end I am trying to select a specific Total from the data-store. class Calendar include DataMapper::Resource property :id, Serial property :name, String has n, :totals def get_total_for(date) return Total.first(:day => date, :calendar => self) end end When I call get_total_for(DateTime.now) I receive the following error on the call to the data-store. java.lang.IllegalArgumentException: day: org.jruby.RubyObject is not a supported property type. Is Date not allowed for usage in AppEngine? Is this a DataMapper issue? I have tried changing the name of the :day property to something else (hoping it was just a name conflict) but it doesn't seem to matter. Thanks for any help you can provide.

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  • How to store a function in a member of class? (Using function as callback)

    - by Dane
    I want to store a function as a class member and call it inside the class? Pretty much like a callback function. My class draw a document but every document must drawn differently. So I want to assign a function (written outside of the class) into one of the members of the class and then call it when I want to draw the document. This function mostly is responsible for transforming objects according to each specific document. Here is my class: class CDocument { public: CDocument(); ~CDocument(); void *TransFunc(); } void Transform() { } int main() CDocument* Doc = new CDocument(); Doc->TransFunc = Transform(); } I know that this is probably simple question, but I couldn't find the answer by googling or searching SO.

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  • Grid view update event form javascript

    - by pranay
    I have grid control select <%--Select--% </ItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateField> </columns> <pagersettings mode="NumericFirstLast" position="Top" pagebuttoncount="5" /> <pagerstyle backcolor="Pink" /> </cc:AppEngineGridView> my code on row create protected override void OnRowCreated(GridViewRowEventArgs e) { try { if (e.Row.RowType == DataControlRowType.DataRow) { e.Row.ID = this.ID + "_" + e.Row.RowIndex; e.Row.Attributes.Add("onmouseover", "this.style.cursor='pointer';this.style.font.weight='bolder';"); e.Row.Attributes.Add("onclick", "DoNav('" + ((LinkButton)e.Row.FindControl("lbtn1")).ClientID + "');"); } } protected void grduser_RowUpdating(object sender, GridViewUpdateEventArgs e) { grdview_RowClickCommand(sender, e); } Javascript : function DoNav(id) { $("#"+id).click(); } Now my question is when i click on the row it do post back but it didnt call rowupdate event How can do this i.e using javascript to call row update command of the grid.

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  • Cleanup ActiveRecord field

    - by Beer Brother
    I have model Article it has field title with some text that may contain some "magic" patterns. In some cases i need to process text in title and other cases i don't, but in last case i need to get string w/o that patterns. For example i have title value like "Something **very** interesting" and when i call @article.title i need to get cleaned up string like "Something very interesting", but when i call @article.title_raw i need get original string. The problem also is that i have working application and i cannt do "revolution" but what way to go... -- Excuse me for my bad English.

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  • The remote server returned an error: (407) Proxy Authentication Required

    - by chris
    I'm getting this error when I call a web service: "The remote server returned an error: (407) Proxy Authentication Required". I get the general idea and I can get the code to work by adding myProxy.Credentials= NetworkCredential("user", "password", "domain"); or by using DefaultCredentials in code. My problem is that the call to the web service works in production without this. It seems like there is a non code solution involving Machine.config, but what is it? At the moment I can't get to the production boxes machine.config file to see what that looks like. I tried updating my machine.config as follows, but I still get the 407 error.

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  • Choosing a JavaScript Asynch-Loader

    - by Prisoner ZERO
    I’ve been looking at various asynchronous resource-loaders and I’m not sure which one to use yet. Where I work we have disparate group-efforts whose class-modules may use different versions of jQuery (etc). As such, nested dependencies may differ, as well. I have no control over this, so this means I need to dynamically load resources which may use alternate versions of the same library. As such, here are my requirements: Load JavaScript and CSS resource files asynchronously. Manage dependency-order and nested-dependencies across versions. Detect if a resource is already loaded. Must allow for cross-domain loading (CDN's) (optional) Allow us to unload a resource. I’ve been looking at: Curl RequireJS JavaScriptMVC LABjs I might be able to fake these requirements myself by loading versions into properly-namespaced variables & using an array to track what is already loaded...but (hopefully) someone has already invented this. So my questions are: Which ones do you use? And why? Are there others that my satisfy my requirements fully? Which do you find most eloquent and easiest to work with? And why?

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  • Moving Function With Arguments To RequireJS

    - by Jazimov
    I'm not only relatively new to JavaScript but also to RequireJS (coming from string C# background). Currently on my web page I have a number of JavaScript functions. Each one takes two arguments. Imagine that they look like this: functionA(x1, y1) { ... } functionB(x2, y2) { ... } functionC(x3, y3) { ... } Currently, these functions exist in a tag on my HTML page and I simply call each as needed. My functions have dependencies on KnockoutJS, jQuery, and some other JS libraries. I currently have Script tags that synchronously load those external .js dependencies. But I want to use RequireJS so that they're loaded asynchronously, as needed. To do this, I plan to move all three functions above into an external .js file (a type of AMD "module") called MyFunctions.js. That file will have a define() call (to RequireJS's define function) that will look something like this: define(["knockout", "jquery", ...], function("ko","jquery", ...) {???} ); My question is how to "wrap" my functionA, functionB, and functionC functions where the ??? is above so that I can use those functions on my page as needed. For example, in the onclick event handler for a button on my HTML page, I would want to call functionA and pass two it two arguments; same for functionB and functionC. I don't fully understand how to expose those functions when they're wrapped in a define that itself is located in an external .js file. I know that define assures that my listed libraries are loaded asynchronously before the callback function is called, but after that's done I don't understand how the web page's script tags would use my functions. Would I need to use require to ensure they're available, such as: require(["myfunctions"],function({not sure what to put here})] I think I understand the basics of RequireJS but I don't understand how to wrap my functions so that they're in external .js files, don't pollute the global namespace, and yet can still be called from the main page so that arguments can be passed to them. I imagine they're are many ways to do this but in reviewing the RequireJS docs and some videos out there, I can't say I understand how... Thank you for any help.

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  • how do i use htaccess to make http requests work properly

    - by Gabriel
    I currently have css and javascript file calls (amongst other things) like the following: href="/css/default.css" src="/js/ui_control.js" putting the preceding / in to make the files relative to the root. This works great when my page is in the root of the domain. However, I'm currently in the middle of transferring my site to a new hosting provider and as such have a temporary URL which is: HOST-IP/~username As such, all file calls are trying to be called from HOST-IP/css/default.css etc instead of within the ~username sub-folder. Of course I can wait until the domain name servers propagate but that's beside the point. How would I go about writing a rule in the .htaccess file that would redirect all file calls that start with a /, from going to HOST-IP/FILE-CALL, and instead to go to HOST-IP/~USERNAME/FILE-CALL. ? Any ideas?

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  • Why must I rewind IteratorIterator

    - by chris
    $arrayIter = new ArrayIterator( array(1, 2) ); $iterIter = new IteratorIterator($arrayIter); var_dump($iterIter->valid()); //false var_dump($arrayIter->valid()); //true If I first call $iterIter-rewind(), then $iterIter-valid() is true. I'm curious why it requires that rewind() be called. I imagine there's good reason for it, but I would have expected it to simply start iteration at whatever state it's inner iterator is in, and leave it as an option to rewind before beginning iteration. calling next() also seems to put it in a "valid" state(although it advances to the next position, suggesting it was previously at the first position). $arrayIter = new ArrayIterator(array(1,2)); $iterIter = new IteratorIterator($arrayIter); $iterIter->next(); var_dump($iterIter->valid()); Again, I'm curious why I need to call rewind(), despite the inner iterator being in a valid state.

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  • Why would I get a bus error or segmentation fault when calling free() normally?

    - by chucknelson
    I have a very simple test program, running on Solaris 5.8: #include <stdio.h> #include <stdlib.h> int main(void) { char *paths; paths = getenv("PATH"); printf("Paths: %s\n", paths); free(paths); // this causes a bus error return 0; } If I don't call free() at the end, it displays the message fine and exits. If I include the free() call, it crashes with a bus error. I've had other calls to free(), in other programs, cause segmentation faults as well. Even if I allocate the memory for *paths myself, free() will cause a bus error. Is there some reason trying to free up the memory is causing a crash?

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  • How to use the Visual Studio 2012 command line tool from system()

    - by Janice Regan
    I am attempting to compile and run one visual C++ program (project1) from another visual C++ program (project2) using msbuild and other commands available in the Visual studio command line tool but not in the windows command line tool. Everything works fine if I run it in the visual studio command line tool. For example I can build using msbuild and it works just as I want it to. When I try to run the same command in my C++ program using system(), the system call appears to use the Windows command line and therefore cannot find any of the commands (msbuild in this example). I am new to working with system() on windows (although I have extensive experience with it using Linux). Is there some way to make my C++ program use the Visual Studio command line environment when I call system (rather than Windows command line environment)? Using the command window manually is not an option. I need to compile and test a series of 200-300 different versions of the program in the project1. This is why I am writing program2

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  • How do I find resources in a .jar on the classpath?

    - by Brabster
    If I have a collection of resource files in a directory on my classpath, I can enumerate them using ClassLoader.getResources(location). For example if I have /mydir/myresource.properties on the classpath, I can call the classloader's getResources("mydir") and get an enumeration of URLs containing myresource.properties. When I pack up the exact same resources into a .jar, I don't get anything in the enumeration of URLs when I make the call. I've only replaced the folder structure with a jar containing those folders (it's a webapp, so the jar is going into /WEB-INF/lib). I've also got a number of other calls using getResourceAsStream(location) to get other resources individually by name and they're all working fine. What's different about enumerating resources when the resources are in a .jar?

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  • jQuery autosuggest example

    - by RUtt
    I need to implement an "autosuggest" feature on our site but it needs to re-query the on every keystroke after a certain number of keys (like every character after 2 it would need to query again). So the result isn't a limiting search. For example, the autocomplete plugins I've seen work like the following: [looking for a county] 1. customer types 'CA' and the first result would return 'Canada', 'Cambodia', and 'Camaroon' 2. customer continues to type and hits 'M' the new results would query within the only the existing 3 results (producing results of just 'Cambodia' and 'Camaroon') I need a solution that would be the equivalent of querying my datasource on each keystroke. I already have the ajax call that will return my results based on the "typed" params. For example (in the above example), it would need to make an ajax call passing 'ca' first and if the customer kept typing passing 'can' on the 3 character and so forth. Thanks.

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  • Paging Recordsets from SQL Serverside

    - by Jonno
    I've been banging my head off this one for a while. I want to call 1k records from a SQL database and page them per 100. In classic ASP (where I'm moving from) this was dead easy to do with ADODB but with VB using ADO.net I can't find a single way that doesn't involve stored procs (which I want to avoid for now). It seems really stupid to call all 1k and sort it programmatically. Edit: It's SQL Server 2005 / .net 4.0 / Visual Studio 2010. Edit 2: Just to reiterate, I have Googled extensively and don't want to use stored procedures. There are many ways to get paged data but everything I see involves paging the data in the program rather than from the server.

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  • Unmanaged Struct Instance in Managed Class

    - by HeHasMoments
    Hi, I've got a fairly specific problem i've been struggling with for a couple of days. I'm using a native C++, one of the methods takes a ptr to a struct containing fixed size char arrays. e.g. struct userData { char data1[10]; char data2[10]; }; method: short AddItem(long id, userData* data); I'm trying to call to call this from Managed VC++ but I need to have an instance of userData I can keep hold of in my managed class. Can anyone help with how to achieve this? Thanks

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  • Porting C++-code from Windows to Unix: systemcalls colliding with name of functions

    - by marvin2k
    Hi I'm porting some crufty C++ Windows-code to Linux, which uses functions called "open" and "close" inside every class... Very bad style, or? Luckily that wasn't a problem in windows, since their systemcalls are named different. When I try to call the systemcalls open() or close() I'm getting some compiler error about "no matching function for call for class:open()". I can't rename all our functions named "class::open" and "class::close" in the whole code, and I have to use open() and close() since I'm working with serial ports. So my question is: How can I tell the compiler, which open I mean? How can I escape or hide the namespace of a class in C++?

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  • Installing Skype on Amazon EC2 instance

    - by Adrian
    For my application, I need to have Skype working on my Amazon EC2 Windows instance. I got the application installed and am able to log in, however, I can't make a phone call, since I am getting an 'Can't detect your sound card' error. Since I'm trying to inject audio from an audio file into the phone call, I don't need the sound card on the server. Thus, I need a way to bypass this error message. I have tried installing Virtual Audio Cable, which unfortunately didn't work (even though it worked on my desktop machine).

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  • Browser based online game question

    - by Emre
    I am developing a small browser based game in asp.net. Think of a game room which has a capaticy of 22 players and players join the room by clicking a button. ( I am saving the number of players in the room in database) I need to call a method when the number of players in the room is 22. The problem is I don't know how to control the number of players in the room. I mean I think like there need to be a bacground code which has to run all the time at the server and that code controls the number and call the function. It's my first web project(school project) and I hope you all can help me.

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  • How can I receive messages using over http without MSMQ

    - by pduncan
    I need a reliable messaging framework that runs over http/https (due to client security requirements) and that doesn't use MSMQ (because some clients will use Windows XP Home). The clients only need to be able to receive messages, not send them. We already have a message queue on the server for each user, and the receivers have been getting messages by connecting to an HttpHandler on the server and getting a Stream from WebResponse.GetResponseStream() We keep this stream open, and pull messages off of it using Stream.Read(). This MOSTLY works, but Stream.Read() is a blocking call, and we can't reliably interrupt it. We need to be able to stop and start the receiver without losing messages, but the old stream often hangs around, even after we call Thread.Abort on its thread. Any suggestions?

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  • Getting counts of 0 from a query with a double group by

    - by Maltiriel
    I'm trying to write a query that gets the counts for a table (call it item) categorized by two different things, call them type and code. What I'm hoping for as output is the following: Type Code Count 1 A 3 1 B 0 1 C 10 2 A 0 2 B 13 2 C 2 And so forth. Both type and code are found in lookup tables, and each item can have just one type but more than one code, so there's also a pivot (aka junction or join) table for the codes. I have a query that can get this result: Type Code Count 1 A 3 1 C 10 2 B 13 2 C 2 and it looks like (with join conditions omitted): SELECT typelookup.name, codelookup.name, COUNT(item.id) FROM typelookup LEFT OUTER JOIN item JOIN itemcodepivot RIGHT OUTER JOIN codelookup GROUP BY typelookup.name, codelookup.name Is there any way to alter this query to get the results I'm looking for? This is in MySQL, if that matters. I'm not actually sure this is possible all in one query, but if it is I'd really like to know how. Thanks for any ideas.

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