Search Results

Search found 10328 results on 414 pages for 'behavior tree'.

Page 349/414 | < Previous Page | 345 346 347 348 349 350 351 352 353 354 355 356  | Next Page >

• How to update child iFrame's entire html (header+body) inside jQuery's post

  - by knappy

  I have a chat webpage for Firefox that is structured like this ..... Outer HTML -----|......Frameset Frame ------------|...... header: contains jQuery post has returned data: rdata = new_iFrame_html_str, the entire html string of the iFrame that should be updated ------------|...... iFrame --------------------|...... header: contains jQuery --------------------|...... body: chat messages that depends on the header jQuery to behave properly QUESTION: I can't this jQuery post to work, i.e. I can't find a way for this post to update the ENTIRE iFrame (header + body). Things I've tried and FAILED with javascript and jQuery: top.frames['framesetFrame_name'].document.getElementById('iframe_id').contentDocument.body.innerHTML = new_iFrame_html_str; I don't like this because it's only changing the body, not the header, so the behavior generated from jQuery can't be shown top.frames['framesetFrame_name'].document.getElementById('iframe_bucinid').contentWindow.location.reload(); I do not want to reload because a reload makes the iFrame flicker, bad for a chat program top.frames['framesetFrame_name'].document.getElementById('iframe_id').contents().html = new_iFrame_html_str; Not updating anything that shows :( top.frames['framesetFrame_name'].document.getElementById('iframe_id').contentWindow.location.href = new_iFrame_html_str; This is actually the wrong form here, because it should be = url_of_new_content $( top.frames['framesetFrame_name'].document.getElementById('iframe_id') ).html( new_iFrame_html_str ) ; Not updating anything that shows :(

  Read the article

• VirtualBox limits size of .js file, that can be included from guest additions folder?

  - by c69

  This question might belong to SuperUser, but i'll try to ask it here anyway, because i believe, some web developers might encountered this weird behavior. When testing a site for IE8/winXP compatibility on VirtualBox i run into weird issue of $ is undefined, which is caused by jQuery (and jQuery UI) being not included, when referenced by relative path, which resolves to file:/// url. Seemingly because their size was too big (above 200KB). Simply replacing links to those 2 big files to http:// ones solved the issue for me. But here is the question: why did this happen ? is it a misconfiguration ? a bug ? a known design decision ? Details: VirtualBox 4.1.8 host os: win7 64bit, guest os: xp sp3 32 bit guest additions installed, page was launched from VB shared folder the bug was manifesting itself in all browsers (even in opera, which ignores ie security settings, afaik) ie configuration is default script was included like this: <script type="text/javascript" src="js/libs/jquery/jquery-1.7.2.js"> exact size limit was not deducted.

  Read the article

• VS2010 Web Deploy: how to remove absolute paths and automate setAcl?

  - by Julien Lebosquain

  The integrated Web Deployment in Visual Studio 2010 is pretty nice. It can create a package ready to be deployed using MSDeploy on a target IIS machine. Problem is, this package will be redistributed to a client that will install it himself using the "Import Application" from IIS when MSDeploy is installed. The default package created always include the full path from the development machine, "D:\Dev\XXX\obj\Debug\Package\PackageTmp" in the source manifest file. It doesn't prevent installation of course since it was designed this way, but it looks ugly in the import dialog and has no meaning to the client. Worse he will wonder what are those paths and it looks quite confusing. By customizing the .csproj file (by adding MSBuild properties used by the package creation task), I managed to add additional parameters to the package. However, I spent most of the afternoon in the 2600 lines long Web.Publishing.targets trying to understand what parameter influenced the "development path" behavior, in vain. I also tried to use the setAcl to customize security on a given folder after deployment, but I only managed to do this with MSBuild by using a relative path... it shouldn't matter if I resolve the first problem though. I could modify the generated archive after its creation but I would prefer if everything was automatized using MSBuild. Does anyone know how to do that?

  Read the article

• Host ::1 resolves to remote IP

  - by thebuckst0p

  /etc/hosts files usually have this line, ::1 localhost. I thought ::1 was the equivalent of 127.0.0.1/localhost, and from my reading it seems to be the IPv6 version. So I was using it in Apache for firewalling, "Allow from ::1" and it only allowed local. Then suddenly that stopped working, so I pinged ::1 and got a remote IP address. I tracerouted it and it went through my ISP, through some Microsoft server, then another half dozen steps of asterisks... I'm not sure why this would be (the remote IP), but it doesn't seem good. I grep'd my hard drive for the remote IP and it doesn't appear anywhere. Is this some indicator that I'm being hacked, or normal behavior? Maybe my IPv6 settings are wrong? (This is a brand new MacBookPro with Snow Leopard.) Any ideas about this would be great - what is ::1 supposed to be, why would it be remote, should I be worried, how do I get it back to localhost? Thank you!

  Read the article

• SQL Server problems reading columns with a foreign key

  - by illdev

  I have a weird situation, where simple queries seem to never finish for instance SELECT top 100 ArticleID FROM Article WHERE ProductGroupID=379114 returns immediately SELECT top 1000 ArticleID FROM Article WHERE ProductGroupID=379114 never returns SELECT ArticleID FROM Article WHERE ProductGroupID=379114 never returns SELECT top 1000 ArticleID FROM Article returns immediately By 'returning' I mean 'in query analyzer the green check mark appears and it says "Query executed successfully"'. I sometimes get the rows painted to the grid in qa, but still the query goes on waiting for my client to time out - 'sometimes': SELECT ProductGroupID AS Product23_1_, ArticleID AS ArticleID1_, ArticleID AS ArticleID18_0_, Inventory_Name AS Inventory3_18_0_, Inventory_UnitOfMeasure AS Inventory4_18_0_, BusinessKey AS Business5_18_0_, Name AS Name18_0_, ServesPeople AS ServesPe7_18_0_, InStock AS InStock18_0_, Description AS Descript9_18_0_, Description2 AS Descrip10_18_0_, TechnicalData AS Technic11_18_0_, IsDiscontinued AS IsDisco12_18_0_, Release AS Release18_0_, Classifications AS Classif14_18_0_, DistributorName AS Distrib15_18_0_, DistributorProductCode AS Distrib16_18_0_, Options AS Options18_0_, IsPromoted AS IsPromoted18_0_, IsBulkyFreight AS IsBulky19_18_0_, IsBackOrderOnly AS IsBackO20_18_0_, Price AS Price18_0_, Weight AS Weight18_0_, ProductGroupID AS Product23_18_0_, ConversationID AS Convers24_18_0_, DistributorID AS Distrib25_18_0_, type AS Type18_0_ FROM Article AS articles0_ WHERE (IsDiscontinued = '0') AND (ProductGroupID = 379121) shows this behavior. I have no idea what is going on. Probably select is broken ;) I got a foreign key on ProductGroups ALTER TABLE [dbo].[Article] WITH CHECK ADD CONSTRAINT [FK_ProductGroup_Articles] FOREIGN KEY([ProductGroupID]) REFERENCES [dbo].[ProductGroup] ([ProductGroupID]) GO ALTER TABLE [dbo].[Article] CHECK CONSTRAINT [FK_ProductGroup_Articles] there are some 6000 rows and IsDiscontinued is a bit, not null, but leaving this condition out does not change the outcome. Anyone can tell me how to handle such a situation? More info, anyone? Additional Info: this does not seem to be restricted to this Foreign Key, but all/some referencing this entity.

  Read the article

• Flash SWF not initializing until visible - can I force them to initialize?

  - by Jason

  I have an application that needs to render about 100 flash graphs (as well as other DOM stuff) in a series of rows that vertically extend many times beyond the current visible window - in other words, the users have to scroll down see see all the different graphs. This application is also dynamic and when a user changes a value in the DOM (anywhere on the page) it will need to propagate that change to all the Flash graphs at the same time. So I setup all the externalInterface callbacks and was careful to not let any JS start going until the ever-so-important "flashIsReady" call and...it worked great until I tried to update() the existing swf's with new data. Here was the behavior: - All the swfs load (initially) in both IE/Fox = good. - Updating swfs with new content works in IE but not in Fox = not good - Updating swfs with new content works in Fox --ONLY IF-- I scrolled down to the bottom of the page, then back to the top -- BEFORE -- I triggered an update(). So then I started tracing out each time a swf called the JS to say "flash is ready" and I realized, Firfox only renders swfs as they become visible. And To be honest - that's fine and actually, I am pretty sure that IE does this too. But the problem is that not only does Firefox not initialize the swf, Firefox doesn't even acknowledge the swf exists (expect for after onload) if it has not yet been visible. And the proof is that you get JS errors saying: "[FlashDOMID].FlashMethod is not a function". However, scroll down a little, wait until its visible and suddenly the trace starts lighting up "Flash Ready", "Flash Ready", "Flash Ready" and once they are all ready, everything works fine. Someone told me that FF does not init swf's until visible - can I force it? I can post code if you need...but its pretty heavy (hard to strip out the relevant from the rest) and I would like to avoid it (for your sakes) if possible. The question is simple - have you had this happen and if so, did you find a solution? Does anyone now how to force a not-yet-visible swf to initialize? Thanks guys.

  Read the article

• How to implement an ID field on a POCO representing an Identity field in SQL Server?

  - by Dr. Zim

  If I have a Domain Model that has an ID that maps to a SQL Server identity column, what does the POCO look like that contains that field? Candidate 1: Allows anyone to set and get the ID. I don't think we want anyone setting the ID except the Repository, from the SQL table. public class Thing { public int ID {get;set;} } Candidate 2: Allows someone to set the ID upon creation, but we won't know the ID until after we create the object (factory creates a blank Thing object where ID = 0 until we persist it). How would we set the ID after persisting? public class Thing { public Thing () : This (ID: 0) {} public Thing (int ID) { this.ID = ID } private int _ID; public int ID { get { return this.ID;}; } Candidate 3: Methods to set ID? Somehow we would need to allow the Repository to set the ID without allowing the consumer to change it. Any ideas? Is this barking up the wrong tree? Do we send the object to the Repository, save it, throw it away, then create a new object from the loaded version and return that as a new object?

  Read the article

• Weird output of Throwable getMessage()

  - by Ravi Gupta

  Hi I have below pseudo code with throws an exception like this throw new MyException("Bad thing happened","com.stuff.errorCode"); where MyException extends Exception class. So the problem is when I try to get the message from MyException class by calling myEx.getMessage() it returns ???en_US.Bad thing happened??? instead of my original message i.e. Bad thing happened I have checked that MyException class doesn't overrides Throwable class's getMessage() behavior. Below is the how the call passes from MyException.getMessage() to Throwable.getMessage() public MyException(String msg, String sErrorCode){ super(msg); this.sErrorCode = sErrorCode; this.iSeverity = 0; } which then calls public Exception(String message) { super(message); } and finally public Throwable(String message) { fillInStackTrace(); detailMessage = message; } when I do a getMessage on myexception it calls Throwable's getMessage as below public String getMessage() { return detailMessage; } So ideally it should return the original message as I set when throwing the exception. What's the ???en_US thing ?

  Read the article

• MyContainer derived from FrameworkElement with binding support.

  - by alex2k8

  To understand how the binding works, I implemented MyContainer derived from FrameworkElement. This container allowes to set Children and adds them into the logical tree. But the binding by ElementName does not work. What can I do with MyContainer to make it work, leaving the parent as FrameworkElement? C#: public class MyContainer : FrameworkElement { public MyContainer() { Children = new List<FrameworkElement>(); } public List<FrameworkElement> Children { get; set; } protected override IEnumerator LogicalChildren { get { return Children.GetEnumerator(); } } } XAML: <Window x:Class="WpfLogicalTree.Window1" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" xmlns:local="clr-namespace:WpfLogicalTree" Title="Window1" Height="300" Width="300"> <StackPanel> <local:MyContainer> <local:MyContainer.Children> <TextBlock Text="Foo" x:Name="_source" /> <TextBlock Text="{Binding Path=Text, ElementName=_source}" x:Name="_target"/> </local:MyContainer.Children> </local:MyContainer> <Button Click="Button_Click">Test</Button> </StackPanel> </Window> Window1.cs private void Button_Click(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { MessageBox.Show(_target.Text); }

  Read the article

• Python and the self parameter

  - by Svend

  I'm having some issues with the self parameter, and some seemingly inconsistent behavior in Python is annoying me, so I figure I better ask some people in the know. I have a class, Foo. This class will have a bunch of methods, m1, through mN. For some of these, I will use a standard definition, like in the case of m1 below. But for others, it's more convinient to just assign the method name directly, like I've done with m2 and m3. import os def myfun(x, y): return x + y class Foo(): def m1(self, y, z): return y + z + 42 m2 = os.access m3 = myfun f = Foo() print f.m1(1, 2) print f.m2("/", os.R_OK) print f.m3(3, 4) Now, I know that os.access does not take a self parameter (seemingly). And it still has no issues with this type of assignment. However, I cannot do the same for my own modules (imagine myfun defined off in mymodule.myfun). Running the above code yields the following output: 3 True Traceback (most recent call last): File "foo.py", line 16, in <module> print f.m3(3, 4) TypeError: myfun() takes exactly 2 arguments (3 given) The problem is that, due to the framework I work in, I cannot avoid having a class Foo at least. But I'd like to avoid having my mymodule stuff in a dummy class. In order to do this, I need to do something ala def m3(self,a1, a2): return mymodule.myfun(a1,a2) Which is hugely redundant when you have like 20 of them. So, the question is, either how do I do this in a totally different and obviously much smarter way, or how can I make my own modules behave like the built-in ones, so it does not complain about receiving 1 argument too many.

  Read the article

• How can I diff against a revision of a single file using only the default Git GUI tools?

  - by Rich

  I want to view the history of a single file, and then compare a single revision from that history against the current version. On the command line, this is easy: Run: git log -- <filename> Locate the version you want to compare, Run: git diff <commitid> -- <filename> But how can this be done using only the default Git gui tools, git gui and gitk? I know of two methods using gitk, but they're both horribly clunky: Either: Select the New View option from the View menu, Type in the full path to your file into the box labelled Enter files and directories to include, one per line, Locate the version you want to compare by looking at the highlighted items in the top pane, and click on it to select it, Right-click on the current version and select Diff selected - this, Or: Select Tree in the bottom right-hand pane, Locate the file you want to look at, right-click on it, and select Highlight this only, Locate the version you want to compare by looking at the highlighted items in the top pane, and click on it to select it, Right-click on the current version and select Diff selected - this, Click on the file in the bottom right-hand pane to jump to it in the diff output, or scroll manually. Is a better method than this?

  Read the article

• Spring bean initialization in a web app

  - by EugeneP

  We work with a web application and autowire beans using WebApplicationContextUtils in the init method. Could you clarify some details about bean initialization? The question rises from the static factory method. Suppose there's a bean that is created in a static factory method. As we can see, when the web app is deployed, the ContextLoaderListener initializes all the beans present in Spring xml config file. Now happens such a thing. In the static factory method we run a timer that starts ticking. But in reality we wouldn't want it to start ticking unless the bean is injected into a property of the object ! That is question number one - all the beans are automatically initialized on deploy - correct? And after that when we need an injection, it simply feels the link with the address of the object created during initialization, though OBJECT WAS CREATED ON WEB APP DEPLOY, immediately ! (I assume the default singleton-creation Spring behavior) Second question: are all copies of a web app use the same beans, so all beans are WEB-APP wide, every Spring bean is shared between all the copies of this web app running?

  Read the article

• PHP array value becomes blank. What is going on?

  - by Michael Bruce

  I have written a web page that works fine expect for some weird behavior. The code below gets all expected values and populates them correctly except for $v-data["quick_phone_id"] and $v-data["quick_email_id"] which are integers. Those values come out blank in the string I am creating. The value for $v-data["id"] is another integer and works as expected. My only clue is that when I uncomment the commented out line, the code works properly. So I'm guessing this has to do with referencing getting broken for the array. Any ideas? I'd like to fix my code and my PHP knowledge. $contacts = ContactInfo::loadMyContacts($userId); $sb = new StringBuilder(); $idx = 0; //$vals = "vals: ".$contacts[0]->data["quick_phone_id"]; $sb->append(' dataRows = ['); foreach($contacts as $k => $v) { $sb->append('{ id:"'.strval($v->data["id"]).'",'); $sb->append('url:"edit_contact.php?id='.$v->data["id"].'",'); $sb->append('gname:"'.$v->data["given_name"].'",'); $sb->append('fname:"'.$v->data["family_name"].'",'); $sb->append('phone1id2:"'.strval($v->data["quick_phone_id"]).'",'); $sb->append('phone1type:"'.$v->data["quick_phone_type"].'",'); $sb->append('phone1:"'.$v->data["quick_phone"].'",'); $sb->append("email1id2:'".strval($v->data["quick_email_id"])."',"); $sb->append('email1type:"'.$v->data["quick_email_type"].'",'); $sb->append("email1:'".$v->data["quick_email"]."',"); $sb->append("dirty:false },\n"); } $sb->append('];');

  Read the article

• Boost Asio UDP retrieve last packet in socket buffer

  - by Alberto Toglia

  I have been messing around Boost Asio for some days now but I got stuck with this weird behavior. Please let me explain. Computer A is sending continuos udp packets every 500 ms to computer B, computer B desires to read A's packets with it own velocity but only wants A's last packet, obviously the most updated one. It has come to my attention that when I do a: mSocket.receive_from(boost::asio::buffer(mBuffer), mEndPoint); I can get OLD packets that were not processed (almost everytime). Does this make any sense? A friend of mine told me that sockets maintain a buffer of packets and therefore If I read with a lower frequency than the sender this could happen. ¡? So, the first question is how is it possible to receive the last packet and discard the ones I missed? Later I tried using the async example of the Boost documentation but found it did not do what I wanted. http://www.boost.org/doc/libs/1_36_0/doc/html/boost_asio/tutorial/tutdaytime6.html From what I could tell the async_receive_from should call the method "handle_receive" when a packet arrives, and that works for the first packet after the service was "run". If I wanted to keep listening the port I should call the async_receive_from again in the handle code. right? BUT what I found is that I start an infinite loop, it doesn't wait till the next packet, it just enters "handle_receive" again and again. I'm not doing a server application, a lot of things are going on (its a game), so my second question is, do I have to use threads to use the async receive method properly, is there some example with threads and async receive? Thanks for you attention.

  Read the article

• Performance difference in for loop condition?

  - by CSharperWithJava

  Hello all, I have a simple question that I am posing mostly for my curiousity. What are the differences between these two lines of code? (in C++) for(int i = 0; i < N, N > 0; i++) for(int i = 0; i < N && N > 0; i++) The selection of the conditions is completely arbitrary, I'm just interested in the differences between , and &&. I'm not a beginner to coding by any means, but I've never bothered with the comma operator. Are there performance/behavior differences or is it purely aesthetic? One last note, I know there are bigger performance fish to fry than a conditional operator, but I'm just curious. Indulge me. Edit Thanks for your answers. It turns out the code that prompted this question had misused the comma operator in the way I've described. I wondered what the difference was and why it wasn't a && operator, but it was just written incorrectly. I didn't think anything was wrong with it because it worked just fine. Thanks for straightening me out.

  Read the article

• Can a Generic Method handle both Reference and Nullable Value types?

  - by Adam Lassek

  I have a series of Extension methods to help with null-checking on IDataRecord objects, which I'm currently implementing like this: public static int? GetNullableInt32(this IDataRecord dr, int ordinal) { int? nullInt = null; return dr.IsDBNull(ordinal) ? nullInt : dr.GetInt32(ordinal); } public static int? GetNullableInt32(this IDataRecord dr, string fieldname) { int ordinal = dr.GetOrdinal(fieldname); return dr.GetNullableInt32(ordinal); } and so on, for each type I need to deal with. I'd like to reimplement these as a generic method, partly to reduce redundancy and partly to learn how to write generic methods in general. I've written this: public static Nullable<T> GetNullable<T>(this IDataRecord dr, int ordinal) { Nullable<T> nullValue = null; return dr.IsDBNull(ordinal) ? nullValue : (Nullable<T>) dr.GetValue(ordinal); } which works as long as T is a value type, but if T is a reference type it won't. This method would need to return either a Nullable type if T is a value type, and default(T) otherwise. How would I implement this behavior?

  Read the article

• Choosing a W3C valid DOCTYPE and charset combination?

  - by George Carter

  I have a homepage with the following: <DOCTYPE html> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8"> My choice of the DOCTYPE "html" is based on a recommendation for html pages using jQuery. My choice of charset=utf=8 is based on a recommendation to make my pages readable on most browsers. But these choices may be wrong. When I run this page thru the W3C HTML validator, I get messages you see below. Any way I can eliminate the 2 errors? ! Using experimental feature: HTML5 Conformance Checker. The validator checked your document with an experimental feature: HTML5 Conformance Checker. This feature has been made available for your convenience, but be aware that it may be unreliable, or not perfectly up to date with the latest development of some cutting-edge technologies. If you find any issue with this feature, please report them. Thank you. Validation Output: 2 Errors 1. Error Line 18, Column 70: Changing character encoding utf-8 and reparsing. …ntent-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8"> 2. Error Line 18, Column 70: Changing encoding at this point would need non-streamable behavior. …ntent-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8">

  Read the article

• URLLoader.load() issue when using the same URLRequest

  - by Rudy

  Hello, I have an issue with my eventListeners with the URLLoader, but this issue happens in IE, not in FF. public function getUploadURL():void { var request:URLRequest = new URLRequest(); request.url = getPath(); request.method = URLRequestMethod.GET; _loader = new URLLoader(); _loader.dataFormat = URLLoaderDataFormat.TEXT; _loader.addEventListener(Event.COMPLETE, getBaseURL); _loader.load(request); } private function getBaseURL(event:Event):void { _loader.removeEventListener(Event.COMPLETE, getBaseURL); } The issue is that my getBaseURL gets executed automatically after I have executed the code at least once, but that is the case only in IE. What happens is I call my getUploadURL, I make sure the server sends an event that will result in an Event.COMPLETE, so the getBaseURL gets executed, and the listener is removed. If I call the getUploadURL method and put the wrong path, I do not get an Event.COMPLETE but some other event, and getBaseURL should not be executed. That is the correct behavior in FireFox. In IE, it looks like the load() method does not actually call the server, it jumps directly to the getBaseURL() for the Event.COMPLETE. I checked the willTrigger() and hasEventListener() on _loader before assigning the new URLLoader, and it turns out the event has been well removed. I hope I make sense, I simplified my code. To sum up quickly: in FireFox it works well, but in IE, the first call will work but the second call won't really call the .load() method; it seems it uses the previously stored result from the first call. I hope someone can please help me, Thank you, Rudy

  Read the article

• bool as object vs string as object testing equality

  - by Ray Pendergraph

  I am relatively new to C# and I noticed something interesting today that I guess I have never noticed or perhaps I am missing something. Here is an NUnit test to give an example: object boolean1 = false; object booloan2 = false; Assert.That(boolean1 == booloan2); This unit test fails, but this one passes: object string1 = "string"; object string2 = "string"; Assert.That(string1 == string2); I'm not that surprised in and of itself that the first one fails seeing as boolean1 and boolean2 are different references. But it is troubling to me that the first one fails and the second one passes. I read (on MSDN somewhere) that some magic was done to the String class to facilitate this. I think my question really is why wasn't this behavior replicated in bool? As a note... if the boolean1 and 2 are declared as "bool" then there is no problem. Does anyone know the reason for these differences or why it was implemented that way? Can anyone think of a situation where you would want to reference a bool object for anything except its value?

  Read the article

• Find all CSS rules that apply to an element

  - by Carl Byström

  Many tools/APIs provide ways of selecting elements of specific classes or IDs. There's also possible to inspect the raw stylesheets loaded by the browser. However, for browsers to render an element, they'll compile all CSS rules (possibly from different stylesheet files) and apply it to the element. This is what you see with Firebug or the WebKit Inspector - the full CSS inheritance tree for an element. How can I reproduce this feature in pure JavaScript without requiring additional browser plugins? Perhaps an example can provide some clarification for what I'm looking for: <style type="text/css"> p { color :red; } #description { font-size: 20px; } </style> <p id="description">Lorem ipsum</p> Here the p#description element have two CSS rules applied: a red color and a font size of 20 px. I would like to find the source from where these computed CSS rules originate from (color comes the p rule and so on).

  Read the article

• Right way to return proxy model instance from a base model instance in Django ?

  - by sotangochips

  Say I have models: class Animal(models.Model): type = models.CharField(max_length=255) class Dog(Animal): def make_sound(self): print "Woof!" class Meta: proxy = True class Cat(Animal): def make_sound(self): print "Meow!" class Meta: proxy = True Let's say I want to do: animals = Animal.objects.all() for animal in animals: animal.make_sound() I want to get back a series of Woofs and Meows. Clearly, I could just define a make_sound in the original model that forks based on animal_type, but then every time I add a new animal type (imagine they're in different apps), I'd have to go in and edit that make_sound function. I'd rather just define proxy models and have them define the behavior themselves. From what I can tell, there's no way of returning mixed Cat or Dog instances, but I figured maybe I could define a "get_proxy_model" method on the main class that returns a cat or a dog model. Surely you could do this, and pass something like the primary key and then just do Cat.objects.get(pk = passed_in_primary_key). But that'd mean doing an extra query for data you already have which seems redundant. Is there any way to turn an animal into a cat or a dog instance in an efficient way? What's the right way to do what I want to achieve?

  Read the article

• MS Office Excel Ribbon - Cannot change/hide Editing group in Home tab

  - by A9S6

  I have a .net addin for Excel. The addin creates the Ribbon UI for Excel 2007 and re-purposes some existing commands such as Cut, Copy, Paste, Sort etc. For Cut, Copy and Paste I am just overriding their OnAction value to call my own procedure when the buttons are clicked. But for Sort, Sort Asc and Sort Desc commands the case is a little different. When either of the Sort, Sort Asc or Sort Desc buttons are clicked, I want to get notified and then call the default functionality. This was possible in Excel 2003 commandsbars by calling the Execute() method on the CommandBarControl. In Excel 2007, there is a ExecuteMso() method to programmatically click a ribbon element but when the OnAction is overridden, this ExecuteMso() method just executes my own procedure and not the default functionality of that button. So I thought that I will HIDE the Sort buttons in the "Editing" group in Home tab and add my own Sort, Sort Asc and Sort Desc buttons to it. The buttons will call into my procedure first from where I will call the default behavior. Now the problem is that I am unable to change/hide the Editing group (idMso="GroupEditing"). Is this built-in group not editable? I can however HIDE the Clipboard and other groups(but can't add buttons to them). <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8" standalone="yes"?> <customUI xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/office/2006/01/customui"> <ribbon> <tabs> <tab idMso="TabHome"> <group idMso="GroupEditing" visible="false" /> </tab> </tabs> </ribbon> </customUI>

  Read the article

• Users Hierarchy Logic

  - by user342944

  Hi guys, I am writing a user security module using SQLServer 2008 so threfore need to design a database accordingly. Formally I had Userinfo table with UserID, Username and ParentID to build a recursion and populated tree to represent hierarchy but now I have following criteria which I need to develop. I have now USERS, ADMINISTRATORS and GROUPS. Each node in the user hierarchy is either a user, administrator or group. User Someone who has login access to my application Administrator A user who may also manage all their child user accounts (and their children etc) This may include creating new users and assigning permissions to those users. There is no limit to the number of administrators in user structure. The higher up in the hierarchy that I go administrators have more child accounts to manage which include other child administrators. Group A user account can be designated as a group. This will be an account which is used to group one or more users together so that they can be manage as a unit. But no one can login to my application using a group account. This is how I want to create structure Super Administrator administrator ------------------------------------------------------------- | | | Manager A Manager B Manager C (adminstrator) (administrator) (administrator) | ----------------------------------------- | | | Employee A Employee B Sales Employees (User) (User) (Group) | ------------------------ | | | Emp C Emp D Emp E (User) (User) (User) Now how to build the table structure to achieve this. Do I need to create Users table alongwith Group table or what? Please guide I would really appreciate.

  Read the article

• How to use boost::transform_iterator to iterate over modifed std::map values?

  - by Frank

  I have an std::map, and I would like to define an iterator that returns modified values. Typically, a std::map<int,double>::iterator iterates over std::pair<int,double>, and I would like the same behavior, just the double value is multiplied by a constant. I tried it with boost::transform_iterator, but it doesn't compile: #include <map> #include <boost/iterator/transform_iterator.hpp> #include <boost/functional.hpp> typedef std::map<int,double> Map; Map m; m[100] = 2.24; typedef boost::binder2nd< std::multiplies<double> > Function; typedef boost::transform_iterator<Function, Map::value_type*> MultiplyIter; MultiplyIter begin = boost::make_transform_iterator(m.begin(), Function(std::multiplies<double>(), 4)); // now want to similarly create an end iterator // and then iterate over the modified map The error is: error: conversion from 'boost ::transform_iterator< boost::binder2nd<multiplies<double> >, gen_map<int, double>::iterator , boost::use_default, boost::use_default >' to non-scalar type 'boost::transform_iterator< boost::binder2nd<multiplies<double> >, pair<const int, double> * , boost::use_default, boost::use_default >' requested What is gen_map and do I really need it? I adapted the transform_iterator tutorial code from here to write this code ...

  Read the article

• How to sort a list so that managers are always ahead of their subordinates (How do I do a topologica

  - by James Black

  I am working on a project using Groovy, and I would like to take an array of employees, so that no manager follows their subordinates in the array. The reason being that I need to add people to a database and I would prefer not to do it in two passes. So, I basically have: <employees> <employee> <employeeid>12</employeeid> <manager>3</manager> </employee> <employee> <employeeid>1</employeeid> <manager></manager> </employee> <employee> <employeeid>3</employeeid> <manager>1</manager> </employee> </employees> So, it should be sorted as such: employeeid = 1 employeeid = 3 employeeid = 12 The first person should have a null for managers. I am thinking about a binary tree representation, but I expect it will be very unbalanced, and I am not certain the best way to do this using Groovy properly. Is there a way to do this that isn't going to involve using nested loops?

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 345 346 347 348 349 350 351 352 353 354 355 356  | Next Page >