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  • commitAnimations is not resizing my UIImageView subview

    - by AaronG
    I have created a UIView as a subview and to that subview I have added a UIImageView as a subview. UIView *viewCreated; UIButton *buttonCreated; UIImageView *imageViewCreated; CGRect myFrame = CGRectMake(0, 0, 1024, 1024); viewCreated = [[UIView alloc] initWithFrame:myFrame]; [viewCreated setTag:intTag]; viewCreated.backgroundColor = [UIColor redColor]; [self.view addSubview:viewCreated]; [self randomize]; UIImage *d1Image = [UIImage imageNamed:[NSString stringWithFormat:@"image%d.png", randomNumber]]; imageViewCreated = [[UIImageView alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(0.0f,0.0f,1024.0f, 1024.0f)]; [imageViewCreated setImage:[UIImage imageNamed:[NSString stringWithFormat:@"image%d.png", randomNumber]]]; [viewCreated addSubview:imageViewCreated]; //[imageViewCreated release]; return [viewCreated autorelease]; But when this code executes only the first subview is animated and resized. The UiimageView moves 200 pixels to the left but does not get resized. NSLog(@"sender tag %i",[sender tag]); UIView *currentView = [self.view viewWithTag:[sender tag]]; [UIView beginAnimations:nil context:NULL]; [UIView setAnimationDuration:1.5]; currentView.frame = CGRectMake(-200, 0,40, 102); [UIView commitAnimations]; I am pretty sure am I not creating the subviews correctly programmatically, because when I do it in Interface Builder it works as expected. Do I have to do something specific to actually attach the behavior of the second subview to the first subview?

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  • Why Does This Maintainability Index Increase?

    - by Timothy
    I would be appreciative if someone could explain to me the difference between the following two pieces of code in terms of Visual Studio's Code Metrics rules. Why does the Maintainability Index increase slightly if I don't encapsulate everything within using ( )? Sample 1 (MI score of 71) public static String Sha1(String plainText) { using (SHA1Managed sha1 = new SHA1Managed()) { Byte[] text = Encoding.Unicode.GetBytes(plainText); Byte[] hashBytes = sha1.ComputeHash(text); return Convert.ToBase64String(hashBytes); } } Sample 2 (MI score of 73) public static String Sha1(String plainText) { Byte[] text, hashBytes; using (SHA1Managed sha1 = new SHA1Managed()) { text = Encoding.Unicode.GetBytes(plainText); hashBytes = sha1.ComputeHash(text); } return Convert.ToBase64String(hashBytes); } I understand metrics are meaningless outside of a broader context and understanding, and programmers should exercise discretion. While I could boost the score up to 76 with return Convert.ToBase64String(sha1.ComputeHash(Encoding.Unicode.GetBytes(plainText))), I shouldn't. I would clearly be just playing with numbers and it isn't truly any more readable or maintainable at that point. I am curious though as to what the logic might be behind the increase in this case. It's obviously not line-count.

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  • PendingIntents in Notifications

    - by Mariano Kamp
    I would like to show a notification that displays the progress of an ongoing operation. That works well for me. But at the same time the remote view should contain cancel button to stop the ongoing operation. The usual content intent should still do something else, i.e. not cancel the ongoing operation. It seems though that I can only have one intent. I have to specify a contentIntent that is launched when clicking on the notification: If I don't specify that I get something along those lines: E/ActivityManager( 62): Activity Manager Crash E/ActivityManager( 62): java.lang.IllegalArgumentException: contentIntent required ... For the "cancel" button I set another intent: Intent cancelSyncIntent = new Intent("com.xyz.CANCEL_SYNC"); contentView.setOnClickPendingIntent(R.id.cancel_sync, PendingIntent.getBroadcast(context, 0, cancelSyncIntent, 0)); But this never works. I always get the content intent when the button is clicked. It looks like I cannot use buttons in remote views of notifications?! I could probably display a text: "<< Press to cancel operation ", but that seems rather heavy handed.

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  • prevent javascript in the WMD editor's preview box

    - by Justin Grant
    There are many SO questions (e.g. here and here) about how to do server-side scrubbing of Markdown produced by the WMD editor to ensure the HTML generated doesn't contain malicious script, like this: <img onload="alert('haha');" src="http://www.google.com/intl/en_ALL/images/srpr/logo1w.png" /> Unfortunately, this still allows script to show up in the WMD client's preview box. I doubt this is a big deal since if you're scrubbing the HTML on the server, an attacker can't save the bad HTML so no one else will be able to see it later and have their cookies stolen or sessions hijacked by the bad script. But it's still kinda odd to allow an attacker to run any script in the context of your site, and it's probably a bad idea to allow the client preview window to allow different HTML than your server will allow. StackOverflow has clearly plugged this hole. How did they do it? [NOTE: I already figured this out but it required some tricky javascript debugging, so I'm answering my own question here to help others who may want to do ths same thing]

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  • Can not find Driver when using generic database bundle

    - by Marc
    I have a project that is build up from several OSGi bundles. One of them is a generic Database bundle that defines a DataSource that can be used throughout the project. The spring bean definition of this service is: <osgi:service interface="javax.sql.DataSource"> <bean class="org.postgresql.ds.PGPoolingDataSource"> <property name="databaseName" value="xxx" /> <property name="serverName" value="xxx" /> <property name="user" value="xxx" /> <property name="password" value="xxx" /> </bean> </osgi:service> Now, when using this DataSource is a different bundle, we get an error: No suitable driver found for jdbc:postgresql://localhost/xxx I have tried the following to add the org.postgresql.Driver to the DriverManager: Instantiated an empty bean for that Driver in the spring context, like this: <bean class="org.postgresql.Driver" /> Instantiated the Driver statically in one of the classes, like this: Class.forName("org.postgresql.Driver"); Added a file META-INF\services\java.sql.Driver with the content org.postgresql.Driver None of these solutions seems to help.

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  • Multi-account sync with Dropbox API

    - by Dan
    I'm trying to create a web app that lets users share files with each other through Dropbox. At the moment, Dropbox handles all the sharing, and there's one central Dropbox account running on the web server that shares the folder with the people who want it. I'm trying to change it so people don't have to accept a new folder invitation each time. I'd like to have them authorize my app to access an app folder in their Dropbox account, and all their shared folders would go inside there. Any changes they make would get noticed by the app on the server and synced to everyone else's folders. There's a couple things I'm having trouble figuring out to make this work: Do I need to make repeated calls to /delta for every account? I can't think how else I'd do this, but that sounds like it would quickly turn into thousands of requests a minute just polling for updates. When someone adds a file, do I have to upload it once for each account? That seems like a huge waste of bandwidth. I've looked into using /copy_ref, which I think would add a file to another user's account without my app ever touching it, but my app's web interface also allows users to upload files directly to my server, which would then need to be synced with everyone else's folders. That file isn't on Dropbox's servers yet, so /copy_ref obviously wouldn't work. For a little extra context, my app is written in node.js, and I've been playing with this library to interface with Dropbox, which uses their REST API.

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  • Iphone: Problem with moving back and forth between two UIViewController

    - by Harry Pham
    Let me first describe the context of the problem. I have 2 UIViewController call AdminViewController and ButtonReorderViewController. AdminViewController contain 1 button. ButtonReorderViewController contains 1 button and 1 picture. Button in AdminViewController tie to an event call goToReorderButton. The content of goToReorderButton are below: ButtonReorderViewController *buttonReorder = [[ButtonReorderViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"ButtonReorderViewController" bundle:[NSBundle mainBundle]]; UINavigationController *navController = [[UINavigationController alloc] initWithRootViewController:buttonReorder]; //Add a Navigation Controller to the root view [navController setNavigationBarHidden:TRUE]; buttonReorder = (ButtonReorderViewController *) navController; [[buttonReorder view] setFrame:CGRectMake(0, -20, 320, 470)]; [self.view addSubview:buttonReorder.view]; I use UINavigationController to allow me to swipe left and right.So I am in AdminViewController, and I click on goToReorderButton, it load ButtonReorderViewController. I am able to swipe left and right (awesome !!!) So I click the button in ButtonReorderViewController call goToAdmin, simply to go back to the AdminViewController -(void) goToAdmin{ [self.view removeFromSuperview]; } However, as soon as I go back to AdminViewController, I cant click anything at all. The program does not seg fault, it just that I cant click the button at all. if I remove the line buttonReorder = (ButtonReorderViewController *) navController; inside goToReorderButton, then everything work fine. Any idea how to fix this?

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  • Return enum instead of bool from function for clarity ?

    - by Moe Sisko
    This is similar to : http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2908876/net-bool-vs-enum-as-a-method-parameter but concerns returning a bool from a function in some situations. e.g. Function which returns bool : public bool Poll() { bool isFinished = false; // do something, then determine if finished or not. return isFinished; } Used like this : while (!Poll()) { // do stuff during wait. } Its not obvious from the calling context what the bool returned from Poll() means. It might be clearer in some ways if the "Poll" function was renamed "IsFinished()", but the method does a bit of work, and (IMO) would not really reflect what the function actually does. Names like "IsFinished" also seem more appropriate for properties. Another option might be to rename it to something like : "PollAndReturnIsFinished" but this doesn't feel right either. So an option might be to return an enum. e.g : public enum Status { Running, Finished } public Status Poll() { Status status = Status.Running; // do something, then determine if finished or not. return status; } Called like this : while (Poll() == Status.Running) { // do stuff during wait. } But this feels like overkill. Any ideas ?

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  • Why are my Flex resource bundles not being loaded?

    - by Chris R
    I have an Actionscript module in the flex source folder filterModules, which is one of two additional source folders in my project (the main source folder is reports, but I'm not dealing with anything in there right now). Here's the MXML content that references the resources. ... This array is assigned to the dataProvider field of a ComboBox. It's not bound using the bindings, presumably for reasons that made sense to the original developer, and it'd be nontrivial to change the class to make that happen. I additionally have a resource property file in a folder resources/en_US and I have the source folder resources/{locale} in the project source settings. My additional compiler options are -locale en_US. The resource property file is resources/en_US/labels.properties (All paths are relative to the flash builder project root) and contains (amongst other things) these keys: metric.q3 = Overall Satisfaction metric.q5 = Personnel metric.q9a = Issue Resolution metric.q42 = Visit Duration Sat metric.q34 = Visit Duration I have written some FlexUnit tests that run in my local Flash Player that exercise these resources -- they check that every label is represented in the metrics array, for example, so I know that the resource file is loaded when run locally. However, when I copy the module .swf file over to my server, the combo box to which the array is assigned is empty. I copy the .swf like so, if it matters: rsync -rlDv --inplace -T /tmp ~/projects/flex_reports/bin-debug/rankingFilter.swf HOSTNAME:WEBROOT/flashPath/ Why is this? I am not able to debug the remote module because our surrounding site sets up a lot of context and makes some database calls to determine which module to load. I'm hoping to get some pointers on why resource bundles might not show up. I'd understand it if the array was present with wrong labels, but the array is instead completely empty, which is pretty odd.

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  • Problem loading scripts from Ajax Response

    - by konathamrajesh
    The problem is I am using get_info() to make a ajax call to Result.lasso and paste the response in div with id 'test'.I am unable to use the sendForm() function from the page where i am calling the get_info(). I have also tried using different versions of jQuery 1.1.1.3 is working fine.But i am facing the problem while using higher versions of jquery. The error with higher versions is as follows missing } in XML expression [Break on this error] alert('hi');\n test.lasso (line 3) sendForm is not defined [Break on this error] sendForm(); get_info() function definition <script src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.2.6/jquery.min.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <SCRIPT> function get_info() { $.ajax({url: "Result.lasso", context: document.body, success: function(response){ document.getElementById('test').innerHTML = response ;},dataType:"script"}); } </SCRIPT> The code in Result.lasso is as follows [Content_Type: 'text/html; charset=UTF-8'] <script type="text/javascript"> function sendForm() { alert('hi'); } </script> [Date] form name= "abc" method = "get" action = "abcd.lasso"> input type ="text" name = "element1"/> input type = "button" value="Click" onClick = "javascript: sendForm();"/> </form> Please help me out in resolving this problem Thanks, Rajesh Konatham

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  • How can I work out what events are being waited for with WinDBG in a kernel debug session

    - by Benj
    I'm a complete WinDbg newbie and I've been trying to debug a WindowsXP problem that a customer has sent me where our software and some third party software prevent windows from logging off. I've reproduced the problem and have verified that only when our software and the customers software are both installed (although not necessarily running at logoff) does the log off problem occur. I've observed that WM_ENDSESSION messages are not reaching the running windows when the user tries to log off and I know that the third party software uses a kernel driver. I've been looking at the processes in WinDbg and I know that csrss.exe would normally send all the windows a WM_ENDSESSION message. When I ran: !process 82356020 6 To look at csrss.exe's stack I can see: WARNING: Frame IP not in any known module. Following frames may be wrong. 00000000 00000000 00000000 00000000 00000000 0x7c90e514 THREAD 8246d998 Cid 0248.02a0 Teb: 7ffd7000 Win32Thread: e1627008 WAIT: (WrUserRequest) UserMode Non-Alertable 8243d9f0 SynchronizationEvent 81fe0390 SynchronizationEvent Not impersonating DeviceMap e1004450 Owning Process 82356020 Image: csrss.exe Attached Process N/A Image: N/A Wait Start TickCount 1813 Ticks: 20748 (0:00:05:24.187) Context Switch Count 3 LargeStack UserTime 00:00:00.000 KernelTime 00:00:00.000 Start Address 0x75b67cdf Stack Init f80bd000 Current f80bc9c8 Base f80bd000 Limit f80ba000 Call 0 Priority 14 BasePriority 13 PriorityDecrement 0 DecrementCount 0 Kernel stack not resident. ChildEBP RetAddr Args to Child f80bc9e0 80500ce6 00000000 8246d998 804f9af2 nt!KiSwapContext+0x2e (FPO: [Uses EBP] [0,0,4]) f80bc9ec 804f9af2 804f986e e1627008 00000000 nt!KiSwapThread+0x46 (FPO: [0,0,0]) f80bca24 bf80a4a3 00000002 82475218 00000001 nt!KeWaitForMultipleObjects+0x284 (FPO: [Non-Fpo]) f80bca5c bf88c0a6 00000001 82475218 00000000 win32k!xxxMsgWaitForMultipleObjects+0xb0 (FPO: [Non-Fpo]) f80bcd30 bf87507d bf9ac0a0 00000001 f80bcd54 win32k!xxxDesktopThread+0x339 (FPO: [Non-Fpo]) f80bcd40 bf8010fd bf9ac0a0 f80bcd64 00bcfff4 win32k!xxxCreateSystemThreads+0x6a (FPO: [Non-Fpo]) f80bcd54 8053d648 00000000 00000022 00000000 win32k!NtUserCallOneParam+0x23 (FPO: [Non-Fpo]) f80bcd54 7c90e514 00000000 00000022 00000000 nt!KiFastCallEntry+0xf8 (FPO: [0,0] TrapFrame @ f80bcd64) This waitForMultipleObjects looks interesting because I'm wondering if csrss.exe is waiting on some event which isn't arriving to allow the logoff. Can anyone tell me how I might find out what event it's waiting for anything else I might do to further investigate the problem?

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  • How to transform a production to LL(1) for a list separated by a semicolon?

    - by Subb
    Hi, I'm reading this introductory book on parsing (which is pretty good btw) and one of the exercice is to "build a parser for your favorite language." Since I don't want to die today, I thought I could do a parser for something relatively simple, ie a simplified CSS. Note: This book teach you how to right a LL(1) parser using the recursive-descent algorithm. So, as a sub-exercice, I am building the grammar from what I know of CSS. But I'm stuck on a production that I can't transform in LL(1) : //EBNF block = "{", declaration, {";", declaration}, [";"], "}" //BNF <block> =:: "{" <declaration> "}" <declaration> =:: <single-declaration> <opt-end> | <single-declaration> ";" <declaration> <opt-end> =:: "" | ";" This describe a CSS block. Valid block can have the form : { property : value } { property : value; } { property : value; property : value } { property : value; property : value; } ... The problem is with the optional ";" at the end, because it overlap with the starting character of {";", declaration}, so when my parser meet a semicolon in this context, it doesn't know what to do. The book talk about this problem, but in its example, the semicolon is obligatory, so the rule can be modified like this : block = "{", declaration, ";", {declaration, ";"}, "}" So, Is it possible to achieve what I'm trying to do using a LL(1) parser?

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  • Does ASP.NET need to be configured for Full Trust to implement 'PageHandlerFactory' ?

    - by Kev
    Our hosting platform (running IIS6/ASP.NET 2.0) is configured to run under partial trust. In the machine wide web.config file we set the ASP.NET trust level to Medium (and lock to prevent overrides) and use a modified policy file. When trying to add a custom HttpHandler to handle .aspx requests for a website running in this configuration I get the following security exception: Security Exception Description: The application attempted to perform an operation not allowed by the security policy. To grant this application the required permission please contact your system administrator or change the application's trust level in the configuration file. Exception Details: System.Security.SecurityException: Request failed. Source Error: An unhandled exception was generated during the execution of the current web request. Information regarding the origin and location of the exception can be identified using the exception stack trace below. Stack Trace: [SecurityException: Request failed.] System.Reflection.Assembly._GetType(String name, Boolean throwOnError, Boolean ignoreCase) +0 System.Reflection.Assembly.GetType(String name, Boolean throwOnError, Boolean ignoreCase) +42 System.Web.Compilation.CompilationUtil.GetTypeFromAssemblies(AssemblyCollection assembliesCollection, String typeName, Boolean ignoreCase) +172 System.Web.Compilation.BuildManager.GetType(String typeName, Boolean throwOnError, Boolean ignoreCase) +291 System.Web.Configuration.ConfigUtil.GetType(String typeName, String propertyName, ConfigurationElement configElement, XmlNode node, Boolean checkAptcaBit, Boolean ignoreCase) +52 I'm using a class derived from PageHandlerFactory, for example: public class MyPageHandlerFactory : PageHandlerFactory { public override System.Web.IHttpHandler GetHandler(System.Web.HttpContext context, string requestType, string virtualPath, string path) { // CustomPageHandler derives from System.Web.UI.Page return new CustomPageHandler(); } } My web.config httpHandler configuration is as follow: <httpHandlers> <add verb="*" path="*.aspx" type="MyPageHandler.MyPageHandlerFactory" /> </httpHandlers> The documentation for PageHandlerFactory shows that PageHandlerFactory is decorated with the following attributes: [PermissionSetAttribute(SecurityAction.LinkDemand, Unrestricted = true)] [PermissionSetAttribute(SecurityAction.InheritanceDemand, Unrestricted = true)] public class PageHandlerFactory : IHttpHandlerFactory Does this mean that I need to set ASP.NET to run at Full Trust to be able to create my own PageHandlerFactory classes?

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  • Weird bug with C++ lambda expressions in VS2010

    - by Andrei Tita
    In a couple of my projects, the following code: class SmallClass { public: int x1, y1; void TestFunc() { auto BadLambda = [&]() { int g = x1 + 1; //ok int h = y1 + 1; //c2296 int l = static_cast<int>(y1); //c2440 }; int y1_copy = y1; //it works if you create a local copy auto GoodLambda = [&]() { int h = y1_copy + 1; //ok int l = this->y1 + 1; //ok }; } }; generates error C2296: '+' : illegal, left operand has type 'double (__cdecl *)(double)' or alternatively error C2440: 'static_cast' : cannot convert from 'double (__cdecl *)(double)' to 'int' You get the picture. It also happens if catching by value. The error seems to be tied to the member name "y1". It happened in different classes, different projects and with (seemingly) any type for y1; for example, this code: [...] MyClass y1; void TestFunc() { auto BadLambda = [&]()->void { int l = static_cast<int>(y1); //c2440 }; } generates both these errors: error C2440: 'static_cast' : cannot convert from 'MyClass' to 'int' No user-defined-conversion operator available that can perform this conversion, or the operator cannot be called error C2440: 'static_cast' : cannot convert from 'double (__cdecl *)(double)' to 'int' There is no context in which this conversion is possible It didn't, however, happen in a completely new project. I thought maybe it was related to Lua (the projects where I managed to reproduce this bug both used Lua), but I did not manage to reproduce it in a new project linking Lua. It doesn't seem to be a known bug, and I'm at a loss. Any ideas as to why this happens? (I don't need a workaround; there are a few in the code already). Using Visual Studio 2010 Express version 10.0.40219.1 Sp1Rel.

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  • Dynamically added JTable not displaying

    - by Graza
    Java Newbie here. I have a JFrame that I added to my netbeans project, and I've added the following method to it, which creates a JTable. Problem is, for some reason when I call this method, the JTable isn't displayed. Any suggestions? public void showFromVectors(Vector colNames, Vector data) { jt = new javax.swing.JTable(data, colNames); sp = new javax.swing.JScrollPane(jt); //NB: "this" refers to my class DBGridForm, which extends JFrame this.add(sp,java.awt.BorderLayout.CENTER); this.setSize(640,480); } The method is called in the following context: DBGridForm gf = new DBGridForm(); //DBGridForm extends JFrame DBReader.outMatchesTable(gf); gf.setVisible(true); ... where DBReader.outMatchesTable() is defined as static public void outMatchesTable(DBGridForm gf) { DBReader ddb = new DBReader(); ddb.readMatchesTable(null); gf.showFromVectors(ddb.lastRsltColNames, ddb.lastRsltData); } My guess is I'm overlooking something, either about the swing classes I'm using, or about Java. Any ideas?

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  • How to return all records and whether a related record exists?

    - by David Glenn
    Using Entity Framework 4 CTP5 I have a basic model and a basic DbContext that works public class Customer { public int CustomerId { get; set; } public int Name { get; set; } //... public ICollection<Address> Addresses { get; set; } public bool HasAddress { get { return Addresses.Count > 0; } } } public class Address { public int AddressId { get; set; } public string StreetLine1 { get; set; } //.... public Customer Customer { get; set; } } How can I query my DbContext to return all customers and whether they have an address? A customer can have multiple addresses and I don't want to return all the addresses for each customer when I am only interested in whether they have an address or not. I use context.Customers.Include(c => c.Addresses) but that returns all addresses for each customer

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  • How do I simulate "In" using Linq2Sql

    - by flipdoubt
    I often find myself with a list of disconnected Linq2Sql objects or keys that I need to re-select from a Linq2Sql data-context to update or delete in the database. If this were SQL, I would use IN in the SQL WHERE clause, but I am stuck with what to do in Linq2Sql. Here is a sample of what I would like to write: public void MarkValidated(IList<int> idsToValidate) { using(_Db.NewSession()) // Instatiates new DataContext { // ThatAreIn <- this is where I am stuck var items = _Db.Items.ThatAreIn(idsToValidate).ToList(); foreach(var item in items) item.Validated = DateTime.Now; _Db.SubmitChanges(); } // Disposes of DataContext } Or: public void DeleteItems(IList<int> idsToDelete) { using(_Db.NewSession()) // Instatiates new DataContext { // ThatAreIn <- this is where I am stuck var items = _Db.Items.ThatAreIn(idsToValidate); _Db.Items.DeleteAllOnSubmit(items); _Db.SubmitChanges(); } // Disposes of DataContext } Can I get this done in one trip to the database? If so, how? Is it possible to send all those ints to the database as a list of parameters and is that more efficient than doing a foreach over the list to select each item one at a time?

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  • Why is my PHP string being converted to 1?

    - by animuson
    Ok, so here's the quick rundown. I have a function to generate the page numbers. This: <?php die($ani->e->tmpl->pages("/archive", 1, 15, 1, true)); ?> will output Single Page like expected. But this: <?php $page_numbers = $ani->e->tmpl->pages("/archive", 1, 15, 1, true); ?> <?= $page_numbers ?> will output a simple 1 to the page. Why is it getting converted to a 1? I would expect it to store the 'Single Page' string to the page_numbers variable and then output it (like an echo) exactly the same. EDIT: Running a var_dump($page_numbers) returns int(1)... Here is the entire function in context: <?php // other functions... function show_list() { global $ani; $page_numbers = $ani->e->tmpl->pages("/archive", 1, 15, 1, true); ob_start(); ?> <!-- content:start --> <?php $archive_result = $ani->e->db->build(array("select" => "*", "from" => "animuson_archive", "orderby" => "0-time", "limit" => 15)); while ($archive = $ani->e->db->fetch($archive_result)) { ?> <h2><a href="/archive/article/<?= $archive['aid'] ?>/<?= $archive['title_nice'] ?>"><?= $archive['title'] ?></a></h2> <!-- breaker --> <?php } ?> <?= var_dump($page_numbers) ?> <!-- content:stop --> <?php $ani->e->tmpl->process("box", ob_get_clean()); } // other functions... ?>

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  • Strange resource not found issue?

    - by xBroak
    i seem to be having a very strange problem, when the app is run on my test phone it works perfectly, and plays a sound from the raw folder via soundpool on button press, however when i submit my app to testing after building it it crashes on 120+ devices for 'Resource not found' codes below: Please also note, the file is in fact there, in both the R file, in the compiled APK file and i have also cleaned numerous times. http://www.appthwack.com/public/FUVGFZn42q '01-03 21:09:36.828 26762 26762 W System.err: java.lang.RuntimeException: Unable to start activity ComponentInfo{appinventor.ai_Broak.PaintballWiz/com.muo.paintballwiz.PaintballWiz}: android.content.res.Resources$NotFoundException: File res/raw/pballshot.ogg from drawable resource ID #0x7f050000 - 1 occurrence' soundPool = new SoundPool(4, AudioManager.STREAM_MUSIC, 100); //soundPoolMap = new SparseIntArray(); soundPoolMap = new HashMap<Integer, Integer>(); // soundPoolMap.put(soundID, soundPool.load(this, R.raw.midi_sound, 1)); int myAudioFile = getResId("pballshot", R.raw.class); soundPoolMap.put(soundID, soundPool.load(PaintballWiz.this, myAudioFile, 1)); audioManager = (AudioManager) getSystemService(Context.AUDIO_SERVICE); curVolume = audioManager .getStreamVolume(AudioManager.STREAM_MUSIC); maxVolume = audioManager .getStreamMaxVolume(AudioManager.STREAM_MUSIC); leftVolume = curVolume / maxVolume; rightVolume = curVolume / maxVolume; soundPool.play(soundID, leftVolume, rightVolume, priority, no_loop, normal_playback_rate); soundPool.play(soundID, 0, 0, 1, -1, 1f);

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  • How to make safe frequent DataSource switches for AbstractRoutingDataSource?

    - by serg555
    I implemented Dynamic DataSource Routing for Spring+Hibernate according to this article. I have several databases with same structure and I need to select which db will run each specific query. Everything works fine on localhost, but I am worrying about how this will hold up in real web site environment. They are using some static context holder to determine which datasource to use: public class CustomerContextHolder { private static final ThreadLocal<CustomerType> contextHolder = new ThreadLocal<CustomerType>(); public static void setCustomerType(CustomerType customerType) { Assert.notNull(customerType, "customerType cannot be null"); contextHolder.set(customerType); } public static CustomerType getCustomerType() { return (CustomerType) contextHolder.get(); } public static void clearCustomerType() { contextHolder.remove(); } } It is wrapped inside some ThreadLocal container, but what exactly does that mean? What will happen when two web requests call this piece of code in parallel: CustomerContextHolder.setCustomerType(CustomerType.GOLD); //<another user will switch customer type here to CustomerType.SILVER in another request> List<Item> goldItems = catalog.getItems(); Is every web request wrapped into its own thread in Spring MVC? Will CustomerContextHolder.setCustomerType() changes be visible to other web users? My controllers have synchronizeOnSession=true. How to make sure that nobody else will switch datasource until I run required query for current user? Thanks.

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  • EF 6 Code First Many to many With Payload and self referencing many to many

    - by lesley86
    I Have the problem where i have a many to many relationship and on one of the tables there will be a self referencing many to many. So basically a school have zero or many groups and many groups can have 0 or many schools. The groups table will contain a parent child many to many with itself because a group can be a child of another group or it can have no children and that child can have a child, one child can also have many parents or a entity can have no parents. I created a mapping table with Payload to solvethe first many to many problem. code snippet public class School { public virtual ICollection<SchoolGroupMap> SchoolGroupMaps } public class SchoolGroup { public virtual ICollection<SchoolGroupMap> SchoolGroupMaps } public class SchoolGroupMap { public virtual School School public virtual SchoolGroup SchoolGroup } i Then tried modifying the code the following way for the the self referencing many to many public class SchoolGroup { public virtual ICollection<SchoolGroupMap> SchoolGroupMaps public virtual ICollection<SchoolGroup> Parents public virtual ICollection<SchoolGroup> Children } I changed the context with has many and an auto mapping table (forgive me i have been trying so many things today i do not have the exact code). I received an error the properties on the classes must match. Can anyone help please. I want to do create navigation properties on the self referencing many to many. Also a seed example would be appreciated regards

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  • Atomic swap in GNU C++

    - by Steve
    I want to verify that my understanding is correct. This kind of thing is tricky so I'm almost sure I am missing something. I have a program consisting of a real-time thread and a non-real-time thread. I want the non-RT thread to be able to swap a pointer to memory that is used by the RT thread. From the docs, my understanding is that this can be accomplished in g++ with: // global Data *rt_data; Data *swap_data(Data *new_data) { #ifdef __GNUC__ // Atomic pointer swap. Data *old_d = __sync_lock_test_and_set(&rt_data, new_data); #else // Non-atomic, cross your fingers. Data *old_d = rt_data; rt_data = new_data; #endif return old_d; } This is the only place in the program (other than initial setup) where rt_data is modified. When rt_data is used in the real-time context, it is copied to a local pointer. For old_d, later on when it is sure that the old memory is not used, it will be freed in the non-RT thread. Is this correct? Do I need volatile anywhere? Are there other synchronization primitives I should be calling? By the way I am doing this in C++, although I'm interested in whether the answer differs for C. Thanks ahead of time.

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  • Managing logs/warnings in Python extensions

    - by Dimitri Tcaciuc
    TL;DR version: What do you use for configurable (and preferably captured) logging inside your C++ bits in a Python project? Details follow. Say you have a a few compiled .so modules that may need to do some error checking and warn user of (partially) incorrect data. Currently I'm having a pretty simplistic setup where I'm using logging framework from Python code and log4cxx library from C/C++. log4cxx log level is defined in a file (log4cxx.properties) and is currently fixed and I'm thinking how to make it more flexible. Couple of choices that I see: One way to control it would be to have a module-wide configuration call. # foo/__init__.py import sys from _foo import import bar, baz, configure_log configure_log(sys.stdout, WARNING) # tests/test_foo.py def test_foo(): # Maybe a custom context to change the logfile for # the module and restore it at the end. with CaptureLog(foo) as log: assert foo.bar() == 5 assert log.read() == "124.24 - foo - INFO - Bar returning 5" Have every compiled function that does logging accept optional log parameters. # foo.c int bar(PyObject* x, PyObject* logfile, PyObject* loglevel) { LoggerPtr logger = default_logger("foo"); if (logfile != Py_None) logger = file_logger(logfile, loglevel); ... } # tests/test_foo.py def test_foo(): with TemporaryFile() as logfile: assert foo.bar(logfile=logfile, loglevel=DEBUG) == 5 assert logfile.read() == "124.24 - foo - INFO - Bar returning 5" Some other way? Second one seems to be somewhat cleaner, but it requires function signature alteration (or using kwargs and parsing them). First one is.. probably somewhat awkward but sets up entire module in one go and removes logic from each individual function. What are your thoughts on this? I'm all ears to alternative solutions as well. Thanks,

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  • how to make the user add and delete in android

    - by user3678019
    i have 1 activity .. and in this activity i have 2 web view next to each other , i would like to add , ADD and Delete Button that can add one more web view next to the last web view , and the delete wish will delete any of the web view the user choose . and i want to make the user but it in the order he want like webview 1 first then webview 2 second how can i do this this is mu main.xml <RelativeLayout xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" xmlns:tools="http://schemas.android.com/tools" android:layout_width="match_parent" android:layout_height="match_parent" tools:context="test.zezo.test.Main$PlaceholderFragment" > <HorizontalScrollView android:id="@+id/horizontalScrollView2" android:layout_width="match_parent" android:layout_height="match_parent" android:layout_alignParentLeft="true" android:layout_alignParentRight="true" android:layout_alignParentTop="true" > <LinearLayout android:layout_width="match_parent" android:layout_height="match_parent" android:orientation="horizontal" > <WebView android:id="@+id/webView1" android:layout_width="350dp" android:layout_height="match_parent" android:layout_alignParentLeft="true" /> <WebView android:id="@+id/webView22" android:layout_width="350dp" android:layout_height="match_parent" android:layout_toRightOf="@+id/webView1" android:layout_alignParentLeft="true" /> </LinearLayout> </HorizontalScrollView> and this is a part of my main.java webView = (WebView) findViewById(R.id.webView1); String url = "http://google.com"; webView.getSettings().setJavaScriptEnabled(true); webView.loadUrl(url); webView.setWebChromeClient(new WebChromeClient()); webView.setWebViewClient(new WebViewClient()); WebView webView22 = (WebView)findViewById(R.id.webView22); webView22.getSettings().setJavaScriptEnabled(true); webView22.loadUrl("google.com); webView22.setWebChromeClient(new WebChromeClient()); webView22.setWebViewClient(new WebViewClient()); so how can i do the ADD and DELETE and re Order Buttons to it and one more thing it should be save so when he reopen the app it will be the same as after he add or delete or re order

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  • WCF service consuming passively issued SAML token

    - by Neillyboy
    What is the best way to pass an existing SAML token from a website already authenticated via a passive STS? We have built an Identity Provider which is issuing passive claims to the website for authentication. We have this working. Now we would like to add some WCF services into the mix - calling them from the context of the already authenticated web application. Ideally we would just like to pass the SAML token on without doing anything to it (i.e. adding new claims / re-signing). All of the examples I have seen require the ActAs sts implementation - but is this really necessary? This seems a bit bloated for what we want to achieve. I would have thought a simple implementation passing the bootstrap token into the channel - using the CreateChannelActingAs or CreateChannelWithIssuedToken mechanism (and setting ChannelFactory.Credentials.SupportInteractive = false) to call the WCF service with the correct binding (what would that be?) would have been enough. We are using the Fabrikam example code as reference, but as I say, think the ActAs functionality here is overkill for what we are trying to achieve.

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