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  • Drupal Studs help me with my form_alter hook ( I am almost there)

    - by user363036
    So I think I am almost there conceptually but need some missing pointers. Objective is to add a few more fields to the normal user registration form, style it a little, then submit it with storing the extra fields in a table. This is what I have so far. Can someone give me the final nudge and get me going. Please help me. Also how do I apply some minor styling like aligning the new form fields ? Thank you so much !!!!!!!!! function module_menu() { $items = array(); $items['school/registration'] = array( 'title' = 'Upgraded Registration Form', 'page callback' ='module_school_register', 'type' = MENU_CALLBACK ); return $items; }//end of the function function module_school_register(){ return drupal_get_form('form_school_register'); }//end of the function function module_school_form_alter(&$form, $form_state, $form_id) { dsm($form_id); if ($form_id == 'user_registration_form') { // modify the "#submit" form property by prepending another submit handler array $form['#submit'] = array_merge( array('_module_registration_submit' = array()), $form['#submit'] ); } } function _module_registration_submit($form_id, $form_values) { // store extra data in different table } function module_registration_validate($form, &$form_state) { $error=0; //Validation stuff here, set $error to true if something went wrong, or however u want to do this. Completely up to u in how u set errors. if ($error) { form_set_error('new_field_name', 'AHH SOMETHING WRONG!'); } }

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  • Adding <tr> from repeater's ItemDataBound Event

    - by nemiss
    My repeater's templates generate a table, where each item is a table row. When a very very specific condition is met (itemdata), I want to add an additional row to the table from this event. How can I do that? protected void rptData_ItemDataBound(object sender, RepeaterItemEventArgs e) { if (e.Item.ItemType == ListItemType.Item || e.Item.ItemType == ListItemType.AlternatingItem) { bool tmp = bool.Parse(DataBinder.Eval(e.Item.DataItem, "somedata").ToString()); if (!tmp && e.Item.ItemIndex != 0) { //Add row after this item } } } I can use e.Item.Controls.Add() and add TableRow but for that I need to locate a table right? How can I solve that? UPDATE I will explain now why I need this: I am creating a sort of message board, where data entries are displayed in a tabled style. The first items in the table are "important" items after those items, i want to add this row. I could solved it using 2 repeaters, where the first repeater will be bounded to pinned items, and the second repeater will be bounded to refular items. But I don't want to have to repeaters nor I want to complex the business logic for separating the fetched data to pinned and not-pinned collection. I think the best opton is to do it "onfly", using one repeater and one datasource.

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  • Nest input inside f.label ( rails form generation )

    - by Mike
    I want to use the f.label method to create my form element labels, however - i want to have the form element nested inside the label. Is this possible? -- From W3C -- To associate a label with another control implicitly, the control element must be within the contents of the LABEL element. In this case, the LABEL may only contain one control element. The label itself may be positioned before or after the associated control. In this example, we implicitly associate two labels with two text input controls: <FORM action="..." method="post"> <P> <LABEL> First Name <INPUT type="text" name="firstname"> </LABEL> <LABEL> <INPUT type="text" name="lastname"> Last Name </LABEL> </P> </FORM>

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  • Why do I get an error while trying to set the content of a tabspec in android?

    - by rushinge
    I have an android activity in which I'm using tabs. public class UnitActivity extends TabActivity { @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.unit_view); TabHost tabHost = getTabHost(); TabSpec spec; spec = tabHost.newTabSpec("controls"); spec.setIndicator("Control"); spec.setContent(R.layout.unit_control); tabHost.addTab(spec); spec = tabHost.newTabSpec("data"); spec.setIndicator("Data"); spec.setContent(R.layout.unit_data); tabHost.addTab(spec); } } However when I run the program it crashes with the error: "Could not create tab content because could not find view with id 2130903042". I don't understand what the problem is because R.layout.unit_data refers to a layout file in my resource directory (res/layout/unit_data.xml) as far as I can tell unit_data.xml is well formed and I've even referenced it successfully in another activity class UnitData extends Activity { @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.unit_data); Toast.makeText(this, "Hi from UnitData.onCreate", 5); } } which does not give an error and renders the layout just fine. What's going on? Why can't I reference this layout when creating a tab?

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  • Custom Server to communicate with my software?

    - by Zachary Brown
    I am working on a major project that I need for work. I am working on a project that requires software validation. I would like this to be handled by a custom server I will write in Python, this server will be the "gateway" between the user and product activation. The software program will be purchased from other companies in volume licensing. So this is what I need the server to do: 1). The user clicks to activate their software. (easy, all is good so far) 2). The software gets the distributor's id from another online server. ( this is also easy, and already coded.) 3). Then, the software asks my custom server if the distributor is allowed to activate anymore copies of the software. 4). The server will then check ( an online encoded text file ) to see if the distributor can or can't. If they can, it will tell the software that registration can proceede, at which point the software will pass the software serial number to the server. I have done my best to explain what I am trying to accomplish, but if something is not quite sensible, please let me know. Thanks to all members of Stackoverflow.com for the help in the past, and those who will help me now. I am using Python 2.6 Win. XP Home Edition

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  • How to parse XML to flex Data Grid contents.

    - by Jeeva
    My xml file which is in a webserver is show below. <root> <userdetails> <username>raja</username> <status>offline</status> </userdetails> <userdetails> <username>Test</username> <status>online</status> </userdetails> </root> How can i parse this to flex data grid contents. I tried with below coding < ?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"? < mx:Application xmlns:mx="http://www.adobe.com/2006/mxml" layout="absolute" creationComplete="initApp()" < mx:HTTPService id="userList" result="handleData(event)" resultFormat="object" url="http://apps.facebook.com/ajparkin/user_list.xml" / <mx:Script> <![CDATA[ import mx.collections.ArrayCollection; import mx.rpc.events.ResultEvent; import mx.controls.Alert; public function initApp():void { userList.send(); } [Bindable] var userdetailsArray:ArrayCollection; private function handleData(evt:ResultEvent):void { this.userdetailsArray= evt.result.userdetails; } ]]> </mx:Script> <mx:DataGrid dataProvider="{userdetailsArray}"> <mx:columns> <mx:DataGridColumn dataField="username" headerText="User Name"/> <mx:DataGridColumn dataField="status" headerText="Status" /> </mx:columns> </mx:DataGrid> </mx:Application> I'm getting only the field names not the data.

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  • How can I bind Wpf DataGridColumn to an object?

    - by John
    I want to bind the columns of my WPF DataGrid to some objects in a Dictionary like this: Binding Path=Objects[i] where Objects is my Dictionary of objects, so that each cell will represent an Object element. How can I do that? I suppose that I need to create a template for my cell, which I did, but how to get the result of column binding in my template? I know that by default the content of a DataGridCell is a TextBlock and it's Text property is set through column binding result, but if that result is an object I guess that I have to create a ContentTemplate. How do I do that, as the stuff I tried is not displaying anything. Here it is what I tried: <Style x:Key="CellStyle" TargetType="{x:Type dg:DataGridCell}"> <Setter Property="Template"> ---it should realy be ContentTemplate? <Setter.Value> <ControlTemplate> <controls:DataGridCellControl CurrentObject="{Binding }"/> -- I would expect to get the object like this for this column path : Path=Objects[i] but is not working </ControlTemplate> </Setter.Value> </Setter> </Style> So, to make myself completly clear, i want to get in CurrentObject property of my DataGridCellControl the current object that should result if I set the column binding in my data grid like this Path=Objects[i]. Thank you for any suggestion, John.

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  • How to obtain the panel within a treeview (WPF)

    - by sperling
    How can one obtain the panel that is used within a TreeView? I've read that by default TreeView uses a VirtualizingStackPanel for this. When I look at a TreeView template, all I see is <ItemsPresenter />, which seems to hide the details of what panel is used. Possible solutions: 1) On the treeview instance ("tv"), from code, do this: tv.ItemsPanel. The problem is, this does not return a panel, but an ItemsPanelTemplate ("gets or sets the template that defines the panel that controls the layout of the items"). 2) Make a TreeView template that explicitly replaces <ItemsPresenter /> with your own ItemsControl.ItemsPanel. I am providing a special template anyways, so this is fine in my scenario. Then give a part name to the panel that you place within that template, and from code you can obtain that part (i.e. the panel). The problem with this? see below. (I am using a control named VirtualTreeView which is derived from TreeView, as is seen below): , use following: -- [sorry folks about poor formatting here, this is my first post, I tried 4 spaces for code... doesn't seem to work?] [I stripped out all clutter here for visibility...] The problem with this is: this immediately overrides any TreeView layout mechanism. Actually, you just get a blank screen, even when you have TreeViewItems filling the tree. Well, the reason I want to get a hold of the panel is to take some part in the MeaureOverride, but without going into all of that, I certainly do not want to rewrite the book of how to layout a treeview. I.e., doing this the step #2 way seems to invalidate the point of even using a TreeView in the first place. Sorry if there is some confusion here, thanks for any help you can offer.

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  • How to display combo box as textbox in WPF via a style template trigger?

    - by Greg R
    I would like to display a combobox drop down list as a textbox when it's set to be read only. For some reason I can't seem to bind the text of the selected item in the combo box to the textbox. This is my XAML: <Style x:Key="EditableDropDown" TargetType="ComboBox"> <Style.Triggers> <Trigger Property="IsReadOnly" Value="True"> <Setter Property="Background" Value="#FFFFFF" /> <Setter Property="Template"> <Setter.Value> <ControlTemplate TargetType="ComboBox"> <TextBox Text="{TemplateBinding SelectedItem, Converter={StaticResource StringCaseConverter}}" BorderThickness="0" Background="Transparent" FontSize="{TemplateBinding FontSize}" HorizontalAlignment="{TemplateBinding HorizontalAlignment}" FontFamily="{TemplateBinding FontFamily}" Width="{TemplateBinding Width}" TextWrapping="Wrap"/> </ControlTemplate> </Setter.Value> </Setter> </Trigger> </Style.Triggers> </Style> <ComboBox IsReadOnly="{Binding ReadOnlyMode}" Style="{StaticResource EditableDropDown}" Margin="0 0 10 0"> <ComboBoxItem IsSelected="True">Test</ComboBoxItem> </ComboBox> When I do this, I get the following as the text: System.Windows.Controls.ComboBoxItem: Test I would really appreciate the help!

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  • My jQuery and PHP give different results on the same thing?

    - by Stefan
    Hey all, Annoying brain numbing problem. I have two functions to check the length of a string (primarily, the js one truncates as well) heres the one in Javascript: $('textarea#itemdescription').keyup(function() { var charLength = $(this).val().length; // Displays count $('span#charCount').css({'color':'#666'}); $('span#charCount').html(255 - charLength); if($(this).val().length >= 240){ $('span#charCount').css({'color':'#FF0000'}); } // Alerts when 250 characters is reached if($(this).val().length >= 255){ $('span#charCount').css({'color':'#FF0000'}); $('span#charCount').html('<strong>0</strong>'); var text = $('textarea#itemdescription').val().substring(0,255) $('textarea#itemdescription').val(text); } }); And here is my PHP to double check: if(strlen($_POST["description"])>255){ echo "Description must be less than ".strlen($_POST["description"])." characters"; exit(); } I'm using jQuery Ajax to post the values from the textarea. However my php validation says the strlen() is longer than my js is essentially saying. So for example if i type a solid string and it says 0 or 3 chars left till 255. I then click save and the php gives me the length as being 261. Any ideas? Is it to do with special characters, bit sizes that js reads differently or misses out? Or is it to do with something else? Maybe its ill today!... :P Thanks, Stefan

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  • Is there a way to touch-enable scrolling in a WPF ScrollViewer?

    - by Brian Sullivan
    I'm trying to create a form in a WPF application that will allow the user to use iPhone-like gestures to scroll through the available fields. So, I've put all my form controls inside a StackPanel inside a ScrollViewer, and the scrollbar shows up as expected when there are too many elements to be shown on the screen. However, when I try to test this on my touch-enabled device, a panning gesture (placing a finger down on the surface and dragging it upward) does not move the viewable area down as I would expect. When I simply put a number of elements inside a ListView, the touch gestures work just fine. Is there any way to enable the same kind of behavior in a ScrollViewer? My window is structured like this: <Window x:Class="TestTouchScrolling.MainWindow" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" Title="MainWindow" Height="350" Width="525" Loaded="Window_Loaded"> <Grid> <ScrollViewer Name="viewer" VerticalScrollBarVisibility="Auto"> <StackPanel Name="panel"> <StackPanel Orientation="Horizontal"> <Label>Label 1:</Label> <TextBox Name="TextBox1"></TextBox> </StackPanel> <StackPanel Orientation="Horizontal"> <Label>Label 2:</Label> <TextBox Name="TextBox2"></TextBox> </StackPanel> <StackPanel Orientation="Horizontal"> <Label>Label 3:</Label> <TextBox Name="TextBox3"></TextBox> </StackPanel> <!-- Lots more like these --> </StackPanel> </ScrollViewer> </Grid>

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  • Flexible forms and supporting database structure

    - by sunwukung
    I have been tasked with creating an application that allows administrators to alter the content of the user input form (i.e. add arbitrary fields) - the contents of which get stored in a database. Think Modx/Wordpress/Expression Engine template variables. The approach I've been looking at is implementing concrete tables where the specification is consistent (i.e. user profiles, user content etc) and some generic field data tables (i.e. text, boolean) to store non-specific values. Forms (and model fields) would be generated by first querying the tables and retrieving the relevant columns - although I've yet to think about how I would setup validation. I've taken a look at this problem, and it seems to be indicating an EAV type approach - which, from my brief research - looks like it could be a greater burden than the blessings it's flexibility would bring. I've read a couple of posts here, however, which suggest this is a dangerous route: How to design a generic database whose layout may change over time? Dynamic Database Schema I'd appreciate some advice on this matter if anyone has some to give regards SWK

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  • Proper status codes for JSON responses to Ajax calls?

    - by anonymous coward
    My project is returning JSON to Ajax calls from the browser. I'm wondering what the proper status code is for sending back with responses to invalid (but successfully handled) data submissions. For example, jQuery has the following two particular callbacks when making Ajax requests: success: Fired when a 200/2xx status code is delivered along with the response. error: Fired when 4xx, 5xx, etc, status codes come back with the response. If a user attempts to create a new "Person" object, I send back a JSON representation of the newly created object upon success, thus giving javascript access to the necessary unique ID's for the new object, etc. This, of course, is sent with a 200 status code. If a user submits malformed or invalid data (say, an invalid/incomplete "name" field), I would like to send back the validation error messages via JSON. (I don't see why this would be a bad thing). My question is: in doing so, should I send a 200 status code, because I successfully handled their invalid data? Therefore, I'd be using the jQuery success callback, but simply check for errors... Or, should I use a 4xx status code, perhaps 'Bad Request', because the data they sent me is invalid? (and thus, use the error callback to do the necessary client-side notifications).

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  • Heavy Mysql operation & Time Constraints [closed]

    - by Rahul Jha
    There is a performance issue where that I have stuck with my application which is based on PHP & MySql. The application is for Data Migration where data has to be uploaded and after various processes (Cleaning from foreign characters, duplicate check, id generation) it has to be inserted into one central table and then to 5 different tables. There, an id is generated and that id has to be updated to central table. There are different sets of records and validation rules. The problem I am facing is that when I insert say(4K) rows file (containing 20 columns) it is working fine within 15 min it gets inserted everywhere. But, when I insert the same records again then at this time it is taking one hour to insert (ideally it should get inserted by marking earlier inserted data as duplicate). After going through the log file, I noticed is that there is a Mysql select statement where I am checking the duplicates and getting ID which are duplicates. Then I am calling a function inside for loop which is basically inserting records into 5 tables and updates id to central table. This Calling function is major time of whole process. P.S. The records has to be inserted record by record.. Kindly Suggest some solution.. //This is that sample code $query=mysql_query("SELECT DISTINCT p1.ID FROM table1 p1, table2 p2, table3 a WHERE p2.datatype =0 AND (p1.datatype =1 || p1.datatype=2) AND p2.ID =0 AND p1.ID = a.ID AND p1.coulmn1 = p2.column1 AND p1.coulmn2 = p2.coulmn2 AND a.coulmn3 = p2.column3"); $num=mysql_num_rows($query); for($i=0;$i<$num;$i++) { $f=mysql_result($query,$i,"ID"); //calling function RecordInsert($f); }

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  • WPF : Command routing for Keyboard shortcuts.

    - by Sprotty
    Basically I want to create a keyboard shortcut which is valid within the scope of a window, and not just enabled when focus is within the control that binds it. in more detail.... I have a window which has 3 controls a toolbar textbox Custom Control The toolbar has a button bound to the Command CustomCommands.CmdA and linked to 'Ctrl-T'. My Custom Control can process CmdA. When I run the app and click on my custom control CmdA is enabled and works fine. Also Ctrl-T cause the command to fire. However when I select the text box, my custom command CmdA becomes disabled. I can rectify this by setting the command target for CmdA's button. Now when I select the textBox, CmdA is still enabled. But the Keyboard shortcut Ctrl-T does nothing. Is there any easy way to change the scope of keyboard shortcuts? Or do I need to catch the keypress somewhere lower down, and work out which Command it relates to and route it myself (if so is there a framework within which to do this?) Many Thanks Simon

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  • Saving an active record, in what order are the associated objects saved?

    - by Bryan
    In rails, when saving an active_record object, its associated objects will be saved as well. But has_one and has_many association have different order in saving objects. I have three simplified models: class Team < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :players has_one :coach end class Player < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :team validates_presence_of :team_id end class Coach < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :team validates_presence_of :team_id end I expected that when team.save is called, team should be saved before its associated coach and players. I use the following code to test these models: t = Team.new team.coach = Coach.new team.save! team.save! returns true. But in another test: t = Team.new team.players << Player.new team.save! team.save! gives the following error: > ActiveRecord::RecordInvalid: > Validation failed: Players is invalid I figured out that team.save! saves objects in the following order: 1) players, 2) team, and 3) coach. This is why I got the error: When a player is saved, team doesn't yet have a id, so validates_presence_of :team_id fails in player. Can someone explain to me why objects are saved in this order? This seems not logical to me.

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  • PHP Exceptions in Classes

    - by mike condiff
    I'm writing a web application (PHP) for my friend and have decided to use my limited OOP training from Java. My question is what is the best way to note in my class/application that specific critical things failed without actually breaking my page. Currently my problem is I have an Object "SummerCamper" which takes a camper_id as it's argument to load all of the necessary data into the object from the database. Say someone specifies a camper_id in the querystring that does not exist, I pass it to my objects constructor and the load fails. Currently I don't see a way for me to just return false from the constructor. I have read I could possibly do this with Exceptions, throwing an exception if no records are found in the database or if some sort of validation fails on input of the camper_id from the application etc. However, I have not really found a great way to alert my program that the Object Load has failed. I tried returning false from within the CATCH but the Object still persists in my php page. I do understand I could put a variable $is_valid = false if the load fails and then check the Object using a get method but I think there may be better ways. What is the best way of achieving the essential termination of an object if a load fails? Should I load data into the object from outside the constructor? Is there some osrt of design pattern that I should look into? Any help would be appreciated.

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  • jquery live and callbacks via wcf services

    - by vondip
    Hi all, I am writing a web app with asp.net, c# and jquery. Most of the time I'm writing dynamic html to the browser and using different web services to get the content needed. My call to the service: function WriteProducts(currentIndex, selectedCategoryId, callback) { var d = new Date(); MyAppServices.GetProducts(selectedCategoryId, currentIndex, 8, d.getTime().toString(), callback, function func() { alert('failure'); }); } The request usually gets translated to this (using firebug I monitored it): http://localhost:8080/MyApp/MyAppServices.svc/GetProducts?categoryId=0&fromIndex=0&toIndex=8&randomNumber=%221271800014441%22 The problem starts when part of the html controls dynamically rendered need to respond to click events. This is when I start using jquery's live method: $('.filter').live('click', function(event) { WriteProducts(0, selectedCategoryId, PopulateDivs); }); Now from some reason, the request passed to the server becomes this: http://localhost:8080/MyApp/MyAppServices.svc/GetProducts?categoryId=**%2217%22**&fromIndex=0&toIndex=8&randomNumber=%221271799783355%22 where did these %22 come from? If I take them out, the request passes successfully. I have no idea who inserted these %22, but they are causing havoc here! Guys, do you perhaps have a clue?

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  • Inconsistent behavior working with "Flex on Rails" example.

    - by kmontgom
    I'm experimenting with Flex and Rails right now (Rails is cool). I'm following the examples in the book "Flex on Rails", and I'm getting some puzzling and inconsistent behavior. Heres the Flex MXML: <mx:HTTPService id="index" url="http://localhost:3000/people.xml" resultFormat="e4x" /> <mx:DataGrid dataProvider="{index.lastResult.person}" width="100%" height="100%"> <mx:columns> <mx:DataGridColumn headerText="First Name" dataField="first-name"/> <mx:DataGridColumn headerText="Last Name" dataField="last-name"/> </mx:columns> </mx:DataGrid> <mx:Script> <![CDATA[ import mx.controls.Alert; private function main():void { Alert.show( "In main()" ); } ]]> </mx:Script> When I run the app from my IDE (Amythyst beta, also cool), the DataGrid appears, but is not populated. The Alert.show() also triggers. When I go out to a web browser and manually enter the url (http://localhost:3000/people.xml), the Mongrel console shows the request coming through and the browser shows the web response. No exceptions or other error messages occur. Whats the difference? Do I need to alter some OS setting? I'm using Win7 on an x64 machine.

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  • Including partial views when applying the Mode-View-ViewModel design pattern

    - by Filip Ekberg
    Consider that I have an application that just handles Messages and Users I want my Window to have a common Menu and an area where the current View is displayed. I can only work with either Messages or Users so I cannot work simultaniously with both Views. Therefore I have the following Controls MessageView.xaml UserView.xaml Just to make it a bit easier, both the Message Model and the User Model looks like this: Name Description Now, I have the following three ViewModels: MainWindowViewModel UsersViewModel MessagesViewModel The UsersViewModel and the MessagesViewModel both just fetch an ObserverableCollection<T> of its regarding Model which is bound in the corresponding View like this: <DataGrid ItemSource="{Binding ModelCollection}" /> The MainWindowViewModel hooks up two different Commands that have implemented ICommand that looks something like the following: public class ShowMessagesCommand : ICommand { private ViewModelBase ViewModel { get; set; } public ShowMessagesCommand (ViewModelBase viewModel) { ViewModel = viewModel; } public void Execute(object parameter) { var viewModel = new ProductsViewModel(); ViewModel.PartialViewModel = new MessageView { DataContext = viewModel }; } public bool CanExecute(object parameter) { return true; } public event EventHandler CanExecuteChanged; } And there is another one a like it that will show Users. Now this introduced ViewModelBase which only holds the following: public UIElement PartialViewModel { get { return (UIElement)GetValue(PartialViewModelProperty); } set { SetValue(PartialViewModelProperty, value); } } public static readonly DependencyProperty PartialViewModelProperty = DependencyProperty.Register("PartialViewModel", typeof(UIElement), typeof(ViewModelBase), new UIPropertyMetadata(null)); This dependency property is used in the MainWindow.xaml to display the User Control dynamicly like this: <UserControl Content="{Binding PartialViewModel}" /> There are also two buttons on this Window that fires the Commands: ShowMessagesCommand ShowUsersCommand And when these are fired, the UserControl changes because PartialViewModel is a dependency property. I want to know if this is bad practice? Should I not inject the User Control like this? Is there another "better" alternative that corresponds better with the design pattern? Or is this a nice way of including partial views?

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  • How do I keep my DataService up to date with ObservableCollection?

    - by joebeazelman
    I have a class called CustomerService which simply reads a collection of customers from a file or creates one and passes it back to the Main Model View where it is turned into an ObservableCollection. What the best practice for making sure the items in the CustomerService and ObservableCollection are in sync. I'm guessing I could hookup the CustomerService object to respond to RaisePropertyChanged, but isn't this only for use with WPF controls? Is there a better way? using System; public class MainModelView { public MainModelView() { _customers = new ObservableCollection<CustomerViewModel>(new CustomerService().GetCustomers()); } public const string CustomersPropertyName = "Customers" private ObservableCollection<CustomerViewModel> _customers; public ObservableCollection<CustomerViewModel> Customers { get { return _customers; } set { if (_customers == value) { return; } var oldValue = _customers; _customers = value; // Update bindings and broadcast change using GalaSoft.MvvmLight.Messenging RaisePropertyChanged(CustomersPropertyName, oldValue, value, true); } } } public class CustomerService { /// <summary> /// Load all persons from file on disk. /// </summary> _customers = new List<CustomerViewModel> { new CustomerViewModel(new Customer("Bob", "" )), new CustomerViewModel(new Customer("Bob 2", "" )), new CustomerViewModel(new Customer("Bob 3", "" )), }; public IEnumerable<LinkViewModel> GetCustomers() { return _customers; } }

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  • how to create paging in a dynamic gridview

    - by bharathi
    I am using C# ,here i attach my partial code for dynamic grid view its working fine . I need to set paging on the dynamic grid view how can i call the OnPageIndexChanging GridView gv = new GridView(); gv.AllowPaging = false; gv.AlternatingRowStyle.BackColor = System.Drawing.Color.WhiteSmoke; gv.GridLines = GridLines.Horizontal; gv.CellPadding = 2; gv.CellSpacing = 5; gv.HeaderStyle.BackColor=System.Drawing.Color.Black; gv.HeaderStyle.ForeColor = System.Drawing.Color.White; gv.AutoGenerateColumns = false; BoundField nameColumn = new BoundField(); nameColumn.DataField = "fld_id"; nameColumn.HeaderText = "First Name"; gv.Columns.Add(nameColumn); nameColumn = new BoundField(); nameColumn.DataField = "fld_name"; nameColumn.HeaderText = "Last Name"; gv.Columns.Add(nameColumn); nameColumn = new BoundField(); nameColumn.DataField = "fld_state"; nameColumn.HeaderText = "Age"; gv.Columns.Add(nameColumn); gv.DataSource = ds; gv.DataBind(); plangrid.Controls.Add(gv);

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  • ScriptManager duplicates javascript

    - by Andreas
    Hi! I have a usercontrol that can be used in for example a gridview itemtemplate, this means that the control might or might not be on the page at page load. In the case where the control is inside an itemtemplate i will popupate the gridview via asyncronous postbacks (via updatepanels). The control itselfs registrers scriptblocks since it is depending on javascripts. First i used Page.ClientScript.RegistrerClientScriptBlock But this doesn't work on asyncronous postbacks (updatepanels) so i then tried the same using ScriptManager which allows me to registrer scripts on the page after async postbacks. great!. ScriptManager.RegisterClientScriptBlock However, ScriptManager (what i know of) does not have the functionallity to see if a script already is on the page, so i will for every postback generate duplicates of the script blocks, this is ofcourse unwanted behaviour. I did a run at Google and found that i can call the Dispose() method of the PageRequestManager can be used, this does work since it clears the scripts and then adding them again (this also solves my issue with removing unused script blocks from removed controls). Sys.WebForms.PageRequestManager.getInstance().Dispose() However, ofcourse there is a downside since im posting here :). The Dispose() method disposes the instance on the master page as well which leads to scripts running there will stop to function after an async postback (updateprogress for example). So, is there a way to check if a script already exists on the page using ScriptManager or any other tools, that will prevent me of inserting duplicate scripts? Also, is there a way to remove certain script blocks (when i am removing an item in itemtemplate for example). Big thanks in advance.

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  • Integrate OpenId into an existing site

    - by Andrea
    I have a working web application which already has a login and registration system. I'm looking for some advice on how to do it. Until now, users have a username, an email, a password and some optional fields. The registrartion is the usual process with email confirmation. Now I'd like to allow users to use OpenId. So I have added an openid field to the table. There are two different login forms, and users which are already registered can add their openid info and use either login form. The problem is with new users who come on the site for the first time and try to login with OpenId. I create a new user for them, and I don't need a password, but still I need at least a username, which is used on the site (I'm not sure if the email is needed). So my problems are: 1) How do I manage validation? Some fields are required for some users, (e.g. a password) but not for some others. I mean, I can do this, but it immediately gets messy. 2) Should I ask for a username and email on the first OpenId login? On the one hand I'd say yes, but I fear this vanishes the advantages of using OpenId, that is, not having to provide details. 3) I could get the details via SReg or AttributeExchange, but most providers have a bad support for those. For instance my Gmail OpenId account does not tell the email (!). Is there some place to learn more about the current support for these extensions?

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  • ASP.NET AJAX weirdness

    - by LoveMeSomeCode
    Ok, I thought I understood these topics well, but I guess not, so hopefully someone here can clear this up. Page.IsAsync seems to be broken. It always returns false. But ScriptManager.IsInAsyncPostBack seems to work, sort of. It returns true during the round trip for controls inside UpdatePanels. This is good; I can tell if it's a partial postback or a regular one. ScriptManager.IsInAsyncPostBack returns false however for async Page Methods. Why is this? It's not a regular postback, I'm just calling a public static method on the page. It causes a problem because I also realized that if you have a control with AutoPostBack = false, it won't trigger a postback on it's own, but if it has an event handler on the page, that event handler code WILL run on the next postback, regardless of how the postback occurred, IF the value has changed. i.e. if I tweak a dropdown and then hit a button, that dropdown's handler code will fire. This is ok, except that it will also happen during Page Method calls, and I have no way to know the difference. Any thoughts?

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