Search Results

Search found 9916 results on 397 pages for 'entity component'.

Page 351/397 | < Previous Page | 347 348 349 350 351 352 353 354 355 356 357 358  | Next Page >

  • relative url in wcf service binding

    - by Jeremy
    I have a silverlight control which has a reference to a silverlight enabled wcf service. When I add a reference to the service in my silverlight control, it adds the following to my clientconfig file: <configuration> <system.serviceModel> <bindings> <basicHttpBinding> <binding name="BasicHttpBinding_DataAccess" maxBufferSize="2147483647" maxReceivedMessageSize="2147483647"> <security mode="None" /> </binding> </basicHttpBinding> </bindings> <client> <endpoint address="http://localhost:3097/MyApp/DataAccess.svc" binding="basicHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="BasicHttpBinding_DataAccess" contract="svcMyService.DataAccess" name="BasicHttpBinding_DataAccess" /> </client> </system.serviceModel> </configuration> How do I specify a relative url in the endpoint address instead of the absolute url? I want it to work no matter where I deploy the web app to without having to edit the clientconfig file, because the silverlight component and the web app will always be deployed together. I thought I'd be able to specify just "DataAccess.svc" but it doesn't seem to like that.

    Read the article

  • How to handle image/gif type response on client side using GWT

    - by user200340
    Hi all, I have a question about how to handle image/gif type response on client side, any suggestion will be great. There is a service which responds for retrieving image (only one each time at the moment) from database. The code is something like, JDBC Connection Construct MYSQL query. Execute query If has ResultSet, retrieve first one { //save image into Blob image, “img” is the only entity in the image table. image = rs.getBlob("img"); } response.setContentType("image/gif"); //set response type InputStream in = image.getBinaryStream(); //output Blob image to InputStream int bufferSize = 1024; //buffer size byte[] buffer = new byte[bufferSize]; //initial buffer int length =0; //read length data from inputstream and store into buffer while ((length = in.read(buffer)) != -1) { out.write(buffer, 0, length); //write into ServletOutputStream } in.close(); out.flush(); //write out The code on client side .... imgform.setAction(GWT.getModuleBaseURL() + "serviceexample/ImgRetrieve"); .... ClickListener { OnClick, then imgform.submit(); } formHandler { onSubmit, form validation onSubmitComplete ??????? //handle response, and display image **Here is my question, i had tried Image img = new Image(GWT.getHostPageBaseURL() +"serviceexample/ImgRetrieve"); mg.setSize("300", "300"); imgpanel.add(img); but i only got a non-displayed image with 300X300 size.** } So, how should i handle the responde in this case? Thanks,

    Read the article

  • Quick MVC2 checkbox question

    - by kevinmajor1
    In order to get my EF4 EntityCollection to bind with check box values, I have to manually create the check boxes in a loop like so: <p> <%: Html.Label("Platforms") %><br /> <% for(var i = 0; i < Model.AllPlatforms.Count; ++i) { %> <%: Model.AllPlatforms[i].Platform.Name %> <input type="checkbox" name="PlatformIDs" value="<%: Model.AllPlatforms[i].Platform.PlatformID %>" /><br /> <% } %> </p> It works, but it doesn't automatically populate the group of check boxes with existing values when I'm editing a model entity. Can I fudge it with something like? <p> <%: Html.Label("Platforms") %><br /> <% for(var i = 0; i < Model.AllPlatforms.Count; ++i) { %> <%: Model.AllPlatforms[i].Platform.Name %> <input type="checkbox" name="PlatformIDs" value="<%: Model.AllPlatforms[i].Platform.PlatformID %>" checked=<%: Model.GameData.Platforms.Any(p => PlatformID == i) ? "true" : "false" %> /><br /> <% } %> </p> I figure there has to be something along those lines which will work, and am just wondering if I'm on the right track. EDIT: I'm purposely staying away from MVC's check box HTML helper methods as they're too inflexible for my needs. My check boxes use integers as their values by design.

    Read the article

  • At which line in the following code should I commit my unit of work?

    - by Pure.Krome
    I have the following code which is in a transaction. I'm not sure where/when I should be commiting my unit of work. On purpose, I've not mentioned what type of Respoistory i'm using - eg. Linq-To-Sql, Entity Framework 4, NHibernate, etc. If someone knows where, can they please explain WHY they have said, where? (i'm trying to understand the pattern through example(s), as opposed to just getting my code to work). Here's what i've got :- using ( TransactionScope transactionScope = new TransactionScope ( TransactionScopeOption.RequiresNew, new TransactionOptions { IsolationLevel = IsolationLevel.ReadUncommitted } ) ) { _logEntryRepository.InsertOrUpdate(logEntry); //_unitOfWork.Commit(); // Here, commit #1 ? // Now, if this log entry was a NewConnection or an LostConnection, // then we need to make sure we update the ConnectedClients. if (logEntry.EventType == EventType.NewConnection) { _connectedClientRepository.Insert( new ConnectedClient { LogEntryId = logEntry.LogEntryId }); //_unitOfWork.Commit(); // Here, commit #2 ? } // A (PB) BanKick does _NOT_ register a lost connection, // so we need to make sure we handle those scenario's as a LostConnection. if (logEntry.EventType == EventType.LostConnection || logEntry.EventType == EventType.BanKick) { _connectedClientRepository.Delete( logEntry.ClientName, logEntry.ClientIpAndPort); //_unitOfWork.Commit(); // Here, commit #3 ? } _unitOfWork.Commit(); // Here, commit #4 ? transactionScope.Complete(); }

    Read the article

  • Design: How to declare a specialized memory handler class

    - by Michael Dorgan
    On an embedded type system, I have created a Small Object Allocator that piggy backs on top of a standard memory allocation system. This allocator is a Boost::simple_segregated_storage< class and it does exactly what I need - O(1) alloc/dealloc time on small objects at the cost of a touch of internal fragmentation. My question is how best to declare it. Right now, it's scope static declared in our mem code module, which is probably fine, but it feels a bit exposed there and is also now linked to that module forever. Normally, I declare it as a monostate or a singleton, but this uses the dynamic memory allocator (where this is located.) Furthermore, our dynamic memory allocator is being initialized and used before static object initialization occurs on our system (as again, the memory manager is pretty much the most fundamental component of an engine.) To get around this catch 22, I added an extra 'if the small memory allocator exists' to see if the small object allocator exists yet. That if that now must be run on every small object allocation. In the scheme of things, this is nearly negligable, but it still bothers me. So the question is, is there a better way to declare this portion of the memory manager that helps decouple it from the memory module and perhaps not costing that extra isinitialized() if statement? If this method uses dynamic memory, please explain how to get around lack of initialization of the small object portion of the manager.

    Read the article

  • Writing to the DataContext

    - by user738383
    I have a function. This function takes an IEnumerable<Customer> (Customer being an entity). What the function needs to do is tell the DataContext (which has a collection of Customers as a property) that its Customers property needs to be overwritten with this passed in IEnumerable<Customer>. I can't use assignment because DomainContext.Customers cannot be assigned to, as it is read only. I guess it's not clear what I'm asking, so I suppose I should say... how do I do that? So we have DataContext.Customers (of type System.Data.Linq.Table) which wants to be replaced with a System.Collections.Generic.IEnumerable. I can't just assign the latter to the former because DataContext's properties are read only. But there must be a way. Edit: here's an image: Further edit: Yes, this image does not feature a collection of the type 'Customer' but rather 'Connection'. It doesn't matter though, they are both created from tables within the linked SQL database. So there is a dc.Connections, a dc.Customers, a dc.Media and so on. Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Resource mapping in a Ruby on Rails URL (RESTful API)

    - by randombits
    I'm having a bit of difficulty coming up with the right answer to this, so I will solicit my problem here. I'm working on a RESTFul API. Naturally, I have multiple resources, some of which consist of parent to child relationships, some of which are stand alone resources. Where I'm having a bit of difficulty is figuring out how to make things easier for the folks who will be building clients against my API. The situation is this. Hypothetically I have a 'Street' resource. Each street has multiple homes. So Street :has_many to Homes and Homes :belongs_to Street. If a user wants to request an HTTP GET on a specific home resource, the following should work: http://mymap/streets/5/homes/10 That allows a user to get information for a home with the id 10. Straight forward. My question is, am I breaking the rules of the book by giving the user access to: http://mymap/homes/10 Technically that home resource exists on its own without the street. It makes sense that it exists as its own entity without an encapsulating street, even though business logic says otherwise. What's the best way to handle this?

    Read the article

  • Compare values in serialized column in Doctrine with Query Builder

    - by ReynierPM
    I'm building a FormType for a Symfony2 project but I need some Query Builder on the field since I need to compare some values with the one stored on DB and show the results. This is what I have: .... ->add('servicio', 'entity', array( 'mapped' => false, 'class' => 'ComunBundle:TipoServicio', 'property' => 'nombre', 'required' => true, 'label' => false, 'expanded' => true, 'multiple' => true, 'query_builder' => function (EntityRepository $er) { return $er->createQueryBuilder('ts') ->where('ts.tipo_usuario = (:tipo)') ->setParameter('tipo', 1); } )) .... But tipo_usuario at DB table is stored as serialized text for example: record1: value1 | a:1:{i:0;s:1:"1";} record2: value2 | a:4:{i:0;s:1:"1";i:1;s:1:"2";i:2;s:1:"3";i:3;s:1:"4";} I'll have two different forms (I don't know how to pass the Request to a form) in the first one I'll only show the first record and for the second one the first and second record for example: First form will show: checkbox: value1 Second form will show: checkbox: value1 checkbox: value2 I achieve this? Any help?

    Read the article

  • How do I tweak columns in a Flat File Destination in SSIS?

    - by theog
    I have an OLE DB Data source and a Flat File Destination in the Data Flow of my SSIS Project. The goal is simply to pump data into a text file, and it does that. Where I'm having problems is with the formatting. I need to be able to rtrim() a couple of columns to remove trailing spaces, and I have a couple more that need their leading zeros preserved. The current process is losing all the leading zeros. The rtrim() can be done by simple truncation and ignoring the truncation errors, but that's very inelegant and error prone. I'd like to find a better way, like actually doing the rtrim() function where needed. Exploring similar SSIS questions & answers on SO, the thing to do seems to be "Use a Script Task", but that's ususally just thrown out there with no details, and it's not at all an intuitive thing to set up. I don't see how to use scripting to do what I need. Do I use a Script Task on the Control Flow, or a Script Component in the Data Flow? Can I do rtrim() and pad strings where needed in a script? Anybody got an example of doing this or similar things? Many thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • [Delphi] How would you refactor this code?

    - by Al C
    This hypothetical example illustrates several problems I can't seem to get past, even though I keep trying!! ... Suppose the original code is a long event handler, coded in the UI, triggered when a user clicks a cell in a grid. Expressed as pseudocode it's: if Condition1=true then begin //loop through every cell in row, //if aCell/headerCellValue>1 then //color aCell red end else if Condition2=true then begin //do some other calculation adding cell and headerCell values, and //if some other product>2 then //color the whole row green end else show an error message I look at this and say "Ah, refactor to the strategy pattern! The code will be easier to understand, easier to debug, and easier to later extend!" I get that. And I can easily break the code into multiple procedures. The problem is ultimately scope related. Assume the pseudocode makes extensive use of grid properties, values displayed in cells, maybe even built-in grid methods. How do you move all that to another unit, without referencing the grid component in the UI--which would break all the "rules" about loose coupling that make OOP valuable? ... I'm really looking forward to responses. Thanks, as always -- Al C.

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC Unit Testing Controllers - Repositories

    - by Brian McCord
    This is more of an opinion seeking question, so there may not be a "right" answer, but I would welcome arguments as to why your answer is the "right" one. Given an MVC application that is using Entity Framework for the persistence engine, a repository layer, a service layer that basically defers to the repository, and a delete method on a controller that looks like this: public ActionResult Delete(State model) { try { if( model == null ) { return View( model ); } _stateService.Delete( model ); return RedirectToAction("Index"); } catch { return View( model ); } } I am looking for the proper way to Unit Test this. Currently, I have a fake repository that gets used in the service, and my unit test looks like this: [TestMethod] public void Delete_Post_Passes_With_State_4() { //Arrange var stateService = GetService(); var stateController = new StateController( stateService ); ViewResult result = stateController.Delete( 4 ) as ViewResult; var model = (State)result.ViewData.Model; //Act RedirectToRouteResult redirectResult = stateController.Delete( model ) as RedirectToRouteResult; stateController = new StateController( stateService ); var newresult = stateController.Delete( 4 ) as ViewResult; var newmodel = (State)newresult.ViewData.Model; //Assert Assert.AreEqual( redirectResult.RouteValues["action"], "Index" ); Assert.IsNull( newmodel ); } Is this overkill? Do I need to check to see if the record actually got deleted (as I already have Service and Repository tests that verify this)? Should I even use a fake repository here or would it make more sense just to mock the whole thing? The examples I'm looking at used this model of doing things, and I just copied it, but I'm really open to doing things in a "best practices" way. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Should I use IDisposable for purely managed resources?

    - by John Gietzen
    Here is the scenario: I have an object called a Transaction that needs to make sure that only one entity has permission to edit it at any given time. In order to facilitate a long-lived lock, I have the class generating a token object that can be used to make the edits. You would use it like this: var transaction = new Transaction(); using (var tlock = transaction.Lock()) { transaction.Update(data, tlock); } Now, I want the TransactionLock class to implement IDisposable so that its usage can be clear. But, I don't have any unmanaged resources to dispose. however, the TransctionLock object itself is a sort of "unmanaged resource" in the sense that the CLR doesn't know how to properly finalize it. All of this would be fine and dandy, I would just use IDisposable and be done with it. However, my issue comes when I try to do this in the finalizer: ~TransactionLock() { this.Dispose(false); } I want the finalizer to release the transaction from the lock, if possible. How, in the finalizer, do I detect if the parent transaction (this.transaction) has already been finalized? Is there a better pattern I should be using? The Transaction class looks something like this: public sealed class Transaction { private readonly object lockMutex = new object(); private TransactionLock currentLock; public TransactionLock Lock() { lock (this.lockMutex) { if (this.currentLock != null) throw new InvalidOperationException(/* ... */); this.currentLock = new TransactionLock(this); return this.currentLock; } } public void Update(object data, TransactionLock tlock) { lock (this.lockMutex) { this.ValidateLock(tlock); // ... } } internal void ValidateLock(TransactionLock tlock) { if (this.currentLock == null) throw new InvalidOperationException(/* ... */); if (this.currentLock != tlock) throw new InvalidOperationException(/* ... */); } internal void Unlock(TransactionLock tlock) { lock (this.lockMutex) { this.ValidateLock(tlock); this.currentLock = null; } } }

    Read the article

  • JavaFX MouseEvent continues when I remove the object it happened on

    - by Kyle
    It took me a while to realize what was going on with mouse events going through my blocking dialog boxes when I closed them, but I finally figured out why. I still don't know any good way to fix it. I have a custom dialog box (that blocks the mouse) with a close button. When I click the close button, I remove the dialog box from the scene, but JavaFx is still processing the MouseEvent and now it finds that there is nothing blocking the screen behind where the cancel button was, so that component receives a MouseEvent. How do I make the mouseEvent stop processing when I see that they pressed cancel and remove the dialog box? Or, is there a way to make the removing of the dialog box not happen until after it is done processing the MouseEvent? Example Code for the problem: import javafx.stage.Stage; import javafx.scene.Scene; import javafx.scene.shape.Rectangle; import javafx.scene.input.MouseEvent; import javafx.scene.control.Button; var theScene:Scene; var btn:Button; Stage { title: "Application title" scene: theScene= Scene { width: 500 height: 200 content: [ Rectangle{ width: bind theScene.width height: bind theScene.height onMouseClicked: function(e:MouseEvent):Void{ println("Rectangle");} }, Button{ layoutX: 20 layoutY: 50 blocksMouse: true text: "JustPrint" action:function():Void{ println("JustPrint");} }, btn = Button{ layoutX: 20 layoutY: 20 blocksMouse: true text: "Cancel" action:function():Void{ println("Cancel"); delete btn from theScene.content;} }, ] } } When you press "JustPrint" you get: JustPrint When you press "Cancel" you get: Cancel Rectangle

    Read the article

  • Can I get debug symbols for flash player? Or any other way to get support for flash?

    - by Tim
    The company I am working for has a flash component (using flex and cs4) that crashes intermittently in chrome, FF and IE. (so far only win32 platforms) I submitted a bug report to Adobe but have not heard anything back from them. Their support process seems like a black hole. WE can get a dump from Flash using these steps but after submitting the bug we got no help at all. We loaded this into MS visual studio but can;t get decent stack information because there are no symbols for the flash stuff. Microsoft and other companies provide symbols to help with debugging and we would like to get that from adobe. Is there any way to make progress on this? Does anyone know where to get flash symbols or how else we can make progress? It is hard to debug the process if the container just dies. the binary is flash10c.ocx I just spent a painful hour on the phone with adobe folks - and the final answer from one of them (I spoke to about 8 people) was that they do not have a per incident purchase plan for developer support for flash. I find that hard to believe. Does anyone know how to get support for Flash?

    Read the article

  • WPF Animate and change Opacity of Image in sequence

    - by user1103757
    I have three images, two of these images animate as follow and third image should blink: <Window.Resources> <Storyboard x:Key="AnimateTarget" RepeatBehavior="Forever"> <DoubleAnimationUsingKeyFrames BeginTime="0:0:0" Duration="0:00:03" Storyboard.TargetName="img1" Storyboard.TargetProperty="Y"> <EasingDoubleKeyFrame KeyTime="0:0:0" Value="0" /> <EasingDoubleKeyFrame KeyTime="0:0:1" Value="200" /> <EasingDoubleKeyFrame KeyTime="0:0:2" Value="0" /> </DoubleAnimationUsingKeyFrames> <DoubleAnimationUsingKeyFrames BeginTime="0:0:2" Duration="0:00:03" Storyboard.TargetName="img2" Storyboard.TargetProperty="x"> <EasingDoubleKeyFrame KeyTime="0:0:0" Value="0" /> <EasingDoubleKeyFrame KeyTime="0:0:1" Value="200" /> <EasingDoubleKeyFrame KeyTime="0:0:2" Value="0" /> </DoubleAnimationUsingKeyFrames> <DoubleAnimation BeginTime="0:0:4" Duration="0:0:0.5" Storyboard.TargetProperty="(Image.Opacity)" Storyboard.TargetName="img3" From="1.0" To="0.0" RepeatBehavior="Forever" AutoReverse="True" /> </Storyboard> </Window.Resources> The first two images are animating fine but the third image doesn’t blink, it will do nothing and just stay there as you can see I have used the following code for blinking the third image: <DoubleAnimation BeginTime="0:0:4" Duration="0:0:0.5" Storyboard.TargetProperty="(Image.Opacity)" Storyboard.TargetName="img3" From="1.0" To="0.0" RepeatBehavior="Forever" AutoReverse="True" /> Also this is a code for the third image: <Image Height="65" Name="image1" Stretch="Fill" Width="67" Source="/PicTakeWPF;component/Images/422505_110594629067212_100003500265268_37406_1212153553_n.jpg"> <Image.RenderTransform> <TranslateTransform x:Name="img3"></TranslateTransform> </Image.RenderTransform> </Image> I would appreciate if someone helps me on this Thanks,

    Read the article

  • how do i implement / build / create an 'in memory database' for my unit test

    - by Michel
    Hi all, i've started unit testing a while ago and as turned out i did more regression testing than unit testing because i also included my database layer thus going to the database verytime. So, implemented Unity to inject a fake database layer, but i of course want to store some data, and the main opinion was: "create an in-memory database" But what is that / how do i implement that? Main question is: i think i have to fake the database layer, but doesn't that make me create a 'simple database' myself or: how can i keep it simple and not rebuilding Sql Server just for my unit tests :) At the end of this question i'll give an explanation of the situation i got in on the project i just started on, and i was wondering if this was the way to go. Michel Current situation i've seen at this client is that testdata is contained in XML files, and there is a 'fake' database layer that connects all the xml files together. For the real database we're using the entity framework, and this works very simple. And now, in the 'fake' layer, i have top create all kind of classes to load, save, persist etc. the data. It sounds weird that there is so much work in the fake layer, and so little in the real layer. I hope this all makes sense :)

    Read the article

  • Problem with jquery #find on partial postback

    - by anonymous
    I have a third party component. It is a calendar control. I have a clientside event on it which fires javascript to show a popup menu. I do everything client side so I can use MVC. dd function MouseDown(oDayView, oEvent, element) { try { e = oEvent.event; var rightClick = (e.button == 2); if (rightClick) { var menu = $find("2_menuSharedCalPopUp"); menu.showAt(200, 200, e); } } catch (err) { alert("MouseDown() err: " + err.description); } } The javascript fires perfectly withe $find intially. I have another clientside method which updates the calendar via a partial postback. Once I have done this all subsequent MouseDowns( rightclicks) which use the $find statment error with 'null'. All similar problems people have out there seem to be around calling javascript after a postback - with solutions being re-registering an event using PageRequestManager or registering a clientside function on the server - et cetera. However, the event is firing, and the javascript working - it's the reference in the DOM that seems an issue. Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • boost::filesystem - how to create a boost path from a windows path string on posix plattforms?

    - by VolkA
    I'm reading path names from a database which are stored as relative paths in Windows format, and try to create a boost::filesystem::path from them on a Unix system. What happens is that the constructor call interprets the whole string as the filename. I need the path to be converted to a correct Posix path as it will be used locally. I didn't find any conversion functions in the boost::filesystem reference, nor through google. Am I just blind, is there an obvious solution? If not, how would you do this? Example: std::string win_path("foo\\bar\\asdf.xml"); std::string posix_path("foo/bar/asdf.xml"); // loops just once, as part is the whole win_path interpreted as a filename boost::filesystem::path boost_path(win_path); BOOST_FOREACH(boost::filesystem::path part, boost_path) { std::cout << part << std::endl; } // prints each path component separately boost::filesystem::path boost_path_posix(posix_path); BOOST_FOREACH(boost::filesystem::path part, boost_path_posix) { std::cout << part << std::endl; }

    Read the article

  • Classic ASP application-wide initializations and object caching

    - by slack3r
    In classic ASP (which I am forced to use), I have a few factory functions, that is, functions that return classes. I use JScript. In one include file I use these factory functions to create some classes that are used throughout the application. This include file is included with the #include directive in all pages. These factory functions do some "heavy lifting" and I don't want them to be executed on every page load. So, to make this clear I have something like this: // factory.inc function make_class(arg1, arg2) { function klass() { //... } // ... Some heavy stuff return klass; } // init.inc, included everywhere <!-- #include FILE="factory.inc" --> // ... MyClass1 = make_class(myarg01, myarg02); MyClass2 = make_class(myarg11, myarg12); //... How can I achieve the same effect without calling make_class on every page load? I know that I can't cache the classes in the Application object I can't use the Application_OnStart hook in Global.asa I could probably create a scripting component, but I really don't want to do that So, is there something else I can do? Maybe some way to achieve caching of these classes, which are really objects in JScript. PS: [further clarification] In the above code "heavy stuff" is not so heavy, but I just want to know if there's a way to avoid it being executed all the time. It reads database meta information, builds a table of the primary keys in the database and another table that resolves strings to classes, etc.

    Read the article

  • jboss cache as hibernate 2nd level - cluster node doesn't persist replicated data

    - by Sergey Grashchenko
    I'm trying to build an architecture basically described in user guide http://www.jboss.org/file-access/default/members/jbosscache/freezone/docs/3.2.1.GA/userguide_en/html/cache_loaders.html#d0e3090 (Replicated caches with each cache having its own store.) but having jboss cache configured as hibernate second level cache. I've read manual for several days and played with the settings but could not achieve the result - the data in memory (jboss cache) gets replicated across the hosts, but it's not persisted in the datasource/database of the target (not original) cluster host. I had a hope that a node might become persistent at eviction, so I've got a cache listener and attached it to @NoveEvicted event. I found that though I could adjust eviction policy to fully control it, no any persistence takes place. Then I had a though that I could try to modify CacheLoader to set "passivate" to true, but I found that in my case (hibernate 2nd level cache) I don't have a way to access a loader. I wonder if replicated data persistence is possible at all by configuration tuning ? If not, will it work for me to create some manual peristence in CacheListener (I could check whether the eviction event is local, and if not - persist it to hibernate datasource somehow) ? I've used mvcc-entity configuration with the modification of cacheMode - set to REPL_ASYNC. I've also played with the eviction policy configuration. Last thing to mention is that I've tested entty persistence and replication in project that has been generated with Seam. I guess it's not important though.

    Read the article

  • How to implement conditional render in JS?

    - by mare
    Below is the JS (jQuery) code of autocomplete's result function. You can see there's some lines where I print out <li>s containing some data properties (that come in as a result of automcomplete's AJAX call). How could I rewrite this so that <li> would be conditionally rendered based on whether the property contains any value being either int or string (not empty string or whitespace) or something else that can be represented as string? $(".clients-dropdown").result(function (event, data, formatted) { if (data) { // set the hidden input that we need for Client entity rematerialize $(".client-id").val(data.client_id); if (data.ClientName && data.Address1 && data.postalcode && data.postname) { $(".client-address").html( "<li>" + data.ClientName + "</li>" + "<li>" + data.Address1 + "</li>" + "<li>" + data.postalcode + " " + data.postname + "</li>" ); $(".client-details").html( "<li>" + data.PrettyId + "</li>" + "<li>" + data.VatNo + "</li>" + "<li>" + data.Phone + "</li>" + "<li>" + data.Mobile + "</li>" + "<li>" + data.Email1 + "</li>" + "<li>" + data.Contact + "</li>" ); } } Also, for the AJAX call, should my server side action return null when there's a null for a property in the database or empty string?

    Read the article

  • Finding users whose birtday is today with JPA

    - by Jeduan Cornejo
    Hi, I have a table with users and are trying to get a list with the people who have birthday today so the app can send an email. The User is defined as @Entity public class User { @Size(max = 30) @NotNull private String name; [...] @Temporal(TemporalType.DATE) @DateTimeFormat(style = "S-") protected Date birthday; } and I've got a method which returns the people which were born today like so @SuppressWarnings("unchecked") public static List<User> findUsersWithBirthday() { List<User> users = entityManager().createQuery("select u from User u where u.birthday = :date") .setParameter("date", new Date(), TemporalType.DATE) .getResultList(); return users; } This is fine and all for finding people which were born today, however tha's not really that useful, so I've been struggling for a way to find all the users that were born today, independent of the year. Using MySQL there's functions I can use like select month(curdate()) as month, dayofmonth(curdate()) as day However I've been struggling to find a JPA equivalent to that. I'm using Spring 3.0.1 and Hibernate 3.3.2

    Read the article

  • jQuery & Prototype Conflict

    - by DPereyra
    Hi, I am using the jQuery AutoComplete plugin in an html page where I also have an accordion menu which uses prototype. They both work perfectly separately but when I tried to implement both components in a single page I get an error that I have not been able to understand. uncaught exception: [Exception... "Component returned failure code: 0x80004005 (NS_ERROR_FAILURE) [nsIDOMViewCSS.getComputedStyle]" nsresult: "0x80004005 (NS_ERROR_FAILURE)" location: "JS frame :: file:///C:/Documents and Settings/Administrator/Desktop/website/js/jquery-1.2.6.pack.js :: anonymous :: line 11" data: no] I found out the file conflicting with jQuery is 'effects.js' which is used by the accordion menu. I tried replacing this file with a newer version but newer seems to break the accordion behavior. My guess is that the 'effects.js' file used in the accordion was modified to obtain the accordion demo output. I also tried using the overriding methods jQuery needs to avoid conflict with other libraries and that did not work. I obtained the accordion demo from the following site: http://www.stickmanlabs.com/accordion/ And the jQuery AutoComplete can be obtained from: http://docs.jquery.com/Plugins/Autocomplete#Setup Has any one else experienced this issue? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Silverlight: How can I built an overview display block for any XAML?

    - by Ryan Bates
    Hi all, I am trying to create a generic "overview" control for any XAML. A good example of the desired effect would be on Google Maps or Bing maps: The main map zooms into some content, while a small "overview" block is docked to one of the map corners, showing the user where he/she is zoomed into. My content is all placed inside a <Canvas>, which can then be scaled and zoomed with transforms. While the user does this kind of navigation, I would like to give them a visual indication of where they are in the larger context of the content. I have tried to take a 'screenshot' of the XAML before the user starts navigating, i.e. create a WriteableBitmap wbImageData = new WriteableBitmap(TheCanvas, null); and then displaying it in an Image. Based on the user's scrolling and zooming activity, a Rectangle displays which part of the content is currently visible in the display area. This works OK-ish (still clunky), but the image has to be redone everytime the content changes. Is there a simple way to create this kind of preview, or does anyone know of a component that does it? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • How to cope with null results in SQL Tasks that return single rows in SSIS 2005?

    - by JSacksteder
    In a dataflow task, I can slip a rowcount into the processing flow and place the count into a variable. I can later use that variable to conditionally perform some other work if the rowcount was 0. This works well for me, but I have no corresponding strategy for sql tasks expected to return a single row. In that event, I'm returning those values into variables. If the lookup produces no rows, the sql task fails when assigning values into those variables. I can branch on that component failing, but there's a side effect of that - if I'm running the job as a SQL server agent job step, the step returns DTSER_FAILURE, causing the step to fail. I can tell the sql agent to disregard the step failure, but then I won't know if I have a legitimate error in that step. This seems harder than it should be. The only strategy I can think of is to run the same query with a count(*) aggregate and test if that returns a number 0 and if so running the query again without the count. That's ugly because I have the same query in two places that I need to keep in sync. Is there a better way?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 347 348 349 350 351 352 353 354 355 356 357 358  | Next Page >