Search Results

Search found 10550 results on 422 pages for 'syntax rules'.

Page 351/422 | < Previous Page | 347 348 349 350 351 352 353 354 355 356 357 358  | Next Page >

• Help needed in grokking password hashes and salts

  - by javafueled

  I've read a number of SO questions on this topic, but grokking the applied practice of storing a salted hash of a password eludes me. Let's start with some ground rules: a password, "foobar12" (we are not discussing the strength of the password). a language, Java 1.6 for this discussion a database, postgreSQL, MySQL, SQL Server, Oracle Several options are available to storing the password, but I want to think about one (1): Store the password hashed with random salt in the DB, one column Found on SO and elsewhere is the automatic fail of plaintext, MD5/SHA1, and dual-columns. The latter have pros and cons MD5/SHA1 is simple. MessageDigest in Java provides MD5, SHA1 (through SHA512 in modern implementations, certainly 1.6). Additionally, most RDBMSs listed provide methods for MD5 encryption functions on inserts, updates, etc. The problems become evident once one groks "rainbow tables" and MD5 collisions (and I've grokked these concepts). Dual-column solutions rest on the idea that the salt does not need to be secret (grok it). However, a second column introduces a complexity that might not be a luxury if you have a legacy system with one (1) column for the password and the cost of updating the table and the code could be too high. But it is storing the password hashed with a random salt in single DB column that I need to understand better, with practical application. I like this solution for a couple of reasons: a salt is expected and considers legacy boundaries. Here's where I get lost: if the salt is random and hashed with the password, how can the system ever match the password? I have theory on this, and as I type I might be grokking the concept: Given a random salt of 128 bytes and a password of 8 bytes ('foobar12'), it could be programmatically possible to remove the part of the hash that was the salt, by hashing a random 128 byte salt and getting the substring of the original hash that is the hashed password. Then re hashing to match using the hash algorithm...??? So... any takers on helping. :) Am I close?

  Read the article

• Why can't I pass an argument to create this window using wxpython?

  - by somefreakingguy

  I am trying to learn how to make a GUI in python! Following an online tutorial, I found that the following code 'works' in creating an empty window: import wx from sys import argv class bucky(wx.Frame): def __init__(self, parent, id): wx.Frame.__init__(self, parent, id, 'Frame aka window', size=(300, 200)) if __name__=='__main__': app=wx.PySimpleApp() frame=bucky(parent=None,id=-1) frame.Show() app.MainLoop() That gives me a window, which is great. However, what if I want to get an argument passed onto the program to determine the window size? I thought something like this ought to do the trick: import wx from sys import argv script, x, y = argv class mywindow(wx.Frame): def __init__(self, parent, id): wx.Frame.__init__(self, parent, id, 'Frame aka window', size=(x, y)) if __name__=='__main__': app=wx.PySimpleApp() frame=mywindow(parent=None,id=-1) frame.Show() app.MainLoop() But, alas, that does not work! Nor does the raw_input() function pass on the value. I keep getting the following error: C:/Python26/pythonw.exe -u "C:/Documents and Settings/Owner/Desktop/wz.py" File "C:/Documents and Settings/Owner/Desktop/wz.py", line 8 wx.Frame.__init__(self, parent, id, 'Frame aka window', size=(x y)) ^ SyntaxError: invalid syntax Thanks for the help!

  Read the article

• Stack Overflow when debugging application in iPhone simulator

  - by mjdth

  I'm getting this every time I attempt to debug my app in the simulator: [Session started at 2010-05-11 16:16:52 -0500.] GNU gdb 6.3.50-20050815 (Apple version gdb-1467) (Wed Apr 21 06:57:21 UTC 2010) Copyright 2004 Free Software Foundation, Inc. GDB is free software, covered by the GNU General Public License, and you are welcome to change it and/or distribute copies of it under certain conditions. Type "show copying" to see the conditions. There is absolutely no warranty for GDB. Type "show warranty" for details. This GDB was configured as "x86_64-apple-darwin".sharedlibrary apply-load-rules all Attaching to process 51573. Program received signal: “EXC_BAD_ACCESS”. Data Formatters temporarily unavailable, will re-try after a 'continue'. (Cannot call into the loader at present, it is locked.) I've looked around and found a few similar cases, but they all seem to be related to a missing file and an extra necessary build phase. I'm getting no notification of a missing file here so I'm not sure where to start to fix this and get the app running again. Thanks for any insight!

  Read the article

• How to catch a carp-warning?

  - by sid_com

  I tried to catch a carp-warning ( carp "$start is $end" if (warnings::enabled()); ) with eval but it didn't work, so I looked in the eval-documentation and I discovered, that eval catches only syntax-errors, run-time-errors or executed die-statements. How could I catch a carp-warning? #!/usr/bin/env perl use warnings; use strict; use 5.012; use List::Util qw(max min); use Number::Range; my @array; my $max = 20; print "Input (max $max): "; my $in = <>; $in =~ s/\s+//g; $in =~ s/(?<=\d)-/../g; eval { my $range = new Number::Range( $in ); @array = sort { $a <=> $b } $range->range; }; if ( $@ =~ /\d+ is > \d+/ ) { die $@ }; # catch the carp-warning doesn't work die "Input greater than $max not allowed $!" if defined $max and max( @array ) > $max; die "Input '0' or less not allowed $!" if min( @array ) < 1; say "@array";

  Read the article

• jQuery date picker not persistant after AJAX

  - by ILMV

  So I'm using the jQuery date picker, and it works well. I am using AJAX to go and get some content, obviously when this new content is applied the bind is lost, I learnt about this last week and discovered about the .live() method. But how do I apply that to my date picker? Because this isn't an event therefore .live() won't be able to help... right? This is the code I'm using to bind the date picker to my input: $(".datefield").datepicker({showAnim:'fadeIn',dateFormat:'dd/mm/yy',changeMonth:true,changeYear:true}); I do not want to call this metho everytime my AJAX fires, as I want to keep that as generic as possible. Cheers :-) EDIT As @nick requested, below is my wrapper function got the ajax() method: var ajax_count = 0; function getElementContents(options) { if(options.type===null) { options.type="GET"; } if(options.data===null) { options.data={}; } if(options.url===null) { options.url='/'; } if(options.cache===null) { options.cace=false; } if(options.highlight===null || options.highlight===true) { options.highlight=true; } else { options.highlight=false; } $.ajax({ type: options.type, url: options.url, data: options.data, beforeSend: function() { /* if this is the first ajax call, block the screen */ if(++ajax_count==1) { $.blockUI({message:'Loading data, please wait'}); } }, success: function(responseText) { /* we want to perform different methods of assignment depending on the element type */ if($(options.target).is("input")) { $(options.target).val(responseText); } else { $(options.target).html(responseText); } /* fire change, fire highlight effect... only id highlight==true */ if(options.highlight===true) { $(options.target).trigger("change").effect("highlight",{},2000); } }, complete: function () { /* if all ajax requests have completed, unblock screen */ if(--ajax_count===0) { $.unblockUI(); } }, cache: options.cache, dataType: "html" }); } What about this solution, I have a rules.js which include all my initial bindings with the elements, if I were to put these in a function, then call that function on the success callback of the ajax method, that way I wouldn't be repeating code... Hmmm, thoughts please :D

  Read the article

• ASP.Net MVC vs ASP.Net for Complex workflows

  - by Grant Sutcliffe

  I have just become involved in migrating a series of complex workflows with InfoPath UIs to Web-based UIs. I am new to ASP.Net MVC but have started to evaluate it as the technology versus classic ASP.Net for the job. As is typical of most workflows, in each state there are a number of business rules that determine (a) who can view what content; (2) who can edit what content; (3) what the user action options might be (Edit; Reject; Approve), etc. In essence, there is a lot of logic that needs to be applied to each request before presenting the appropriate view. Being more experienced in ASP.Net, I know that presenting the form(s) as required can be easily achieved through code behind pages (enable / disable / hide fields). I have not seen how this can be achieved with ASP.Net MVC (but am realising that new thinking is required of me when working with MVC - ‘Give only the content on a particular View + limited user action options’). Therefore, if using ASP.Net MVC, it looks like I would need to create a lot of views. Much of the content in each view would be the same. Only field enabled status or buttons would differ in most instances for these views in each state. For example: Step01Initiate (‘Has Save’ button); Step01OriginatorView (has ‘Edit’ Button) ; Step01OriginatorEdit (has ‘Save’ button); Step01Review (has ‘Accept’ / ‘Reject’ buttons); Step01ReviewReject (for reviewer notes; has ‘Save’ / ‘Cancel’ buttons). With workflows of up to six states, this would result in a lot of views. I can see the advantages of choosing ASP.MVC (1) ‘thin’ Views in terms of content; and (2) with logic consolidation in Controllers and different Models. Am I thinking along the right lines in terms of applying the MVC – ‘plenty of views’; or is there a better way to achieve my goal (using ASP.Net MVC or classic ASP.Net)?

  Read the article

• Why can't I build this Javascript object?

  - by Alex Mcp

  I have an object I'm trying to populate from another object (that is, iterate over a return object to produce an object with only selected values from the original). My code looks like this: var collect = {}; function getHistoricalData(username){ $.getJSON("http://url/" + username + ".json?params", function(data){ for (var i=0; i < data.length; i++) { console.log(i); collect = { i : {text : data[i].text}}; $("#wrap").append("<span>" + data[i].text + "</span><br />"); }; console.log(collect); }); } So I'm using Firebug for debugging, and here's what I know: The JSON object is intact console.log(i); is showing the numbers 1-20 as expected When I log the collect object at the end, it's structure is this: var collect = { i : {text : "the last iteration's text"}}; So the incrementer is "applying" to the data[i].text and returning the text value, but it's not doing what I expected, which is create a new member of the collect object; it's just overwriting collect.i 20 times and leaving me with the last value. Is there a different syntax I need to be using for assigning object members? I tried collect.i.text = and collect[i].text = and the error was that whatever I tried was undefined. I'd love to know what's going on here, so the more in-depth an explanation the better. Thanks!

  Read the article

• Efficient splitting of elements in a field

  - by Gary

  I have a field in a text file exported from a database. The field contains addresses but sometimes they are quite long and the database allows them to contain multiple lines. When exported, the newline character gets replaced with a dollar sign like this: first part of very long address$second part of very long address$third part of very long address Not every address has multiple lines and no address contains more than three lines. The length of each line is variable. I'm massaging the data for import into MS Access which is used for a mailmerge. I want to split the field on the $ sign if it's there but if the field only contains 1 line, I want to set my two extra output fields to a zero length string so that I don't wind up with blank lines in the address when it gets printed. I have an awk file that's working correctly on all the other data in the textfile but I need to get this last bit working. I tried the below code. Aside from the fact that I get a syntax error at the else, I'm not sure this is a good way to do what I want. This is being done with gawk on Windows. BEGIN { FS = "|" } $1 != "HEADER" { if ($6 ~ /\$/) split($6, arr, "$") address = arr[1] addresstwo = arr[2] addressthree = arr[3] addressLength = length(address) addressTwoLength = length(addresstwo) addressThreeLength = length(addressthree) else { address = $6 addressLength = length($6) addresstwo = "" addressTwoLength = length(addresstwo) addressthree = "" addressThreeLength = length(addressthree) } printf("%*s\t%*s\t\%*s\n", addressLength, address, addressTwoLength, addresstwo, addressThreeLength, addressthree) }

  Read the article

• Writing language converter in ANTLR

  - by Stefan

  I'm writing a converter between some dialects of the same programming language. I've found a grammar on the net - it's complex and handles all the cases. Now I'm trying to write the appropriate actions. Most of the input is just going to be rewritten to output. What I need to do is parse function calls, do my magic (rename function, reorder arguments, etc) and write it. I'm using AST as output. When I come across a function call, I build a custom object structure (from classes defined in my target language), call the appropriate function and I have a string that represents the transformed function that I want to get. The problem is, what I'm supposed to do with that string? I'd like to replace the .text attribute of the enclosing rule, but setText() is only available on lexer rules and the rule's .text attribute is read-only. How to solve this problem? program : statement_list { output = $statement_list.text; } ; //... statement : expression_statement // ... ; expression_statement : function_call // ... ; function_call : ID '(' { /* build the object, assign name */ Function function = new Function(); //... } ( arg1 = expression { /* add first parameter */ } ( ',' arg2 = expression { /* add the rest of parameters */ } )* )? ')' { /* convert the function call */ string converted = Tools.Convert(function); // $setText(converted); // doesn't work // $functionCall.text = converted; // doesn't work } ;

  Read the article

• Why put a DAO layer over a persistence layer (like JDO or Hibernate)

  - by Todd Owen

  Data Access Objects (DAOs) are a common design pattern, and recommended by Sun. But the earliest examples of Java DAOs interacted directly with relational databases -- they were, in essence, doing object-relational mapping (ORM). Nowadays, I see DAOs on top of mature ORM frameworks like JDO and Hibernate, and I wonder if that is really a good idea. I am developing a web service using JDO as the persistence layer, and am considering whether or not to introduce DAOs. I foresee a problem when dealing with a particular class which contains a map of other objects: public class Book { // Book description in various languages, indexed by ISO language codes private Map<String,BookDescription> descriptions; } JDO is clever enough to map this to a foreign key constraint between the "BOOKS" and "BOOKDESCRIPTIONS" tables. It transparently loads the BookDescription objects (using lazy loading, I believe), and persists them when the Book object is persisted. If I was to introduce a "data access layer" and write a class like BookDao, and encapsulate all the JDO code within this, then wouldn't this JDO's transparent loading of the child objects be circumventing the data access layer? For consistency, shouldn't all the BookDescription objects be loaded and persisted via some BookDescriptionDao object (or BookDao.loadDescription method)? Yet refactoring in that way would make manipulating the model needlessly complicated. So my question is, what's wrong with calling JDO (or Hibernate, or whatever ORM you fancy) directly in the business layer? Its syntax is already quite concise, and it is datastore-agnostic. What is the advantage, if any, of encapsulating it in Data Access Objects?

  Read the article

• Most unintuitive behaviour in the .Net framework?

  - by BlueRaja

  Intended behavior is often another phrase for bug-which-we-knew-about-when-we-wrote-it, but-we-wrote-it-anyways. Because it was "intended" (or perhaps it is now too late or too difficult), many of these extremely-unintuitive bugs never get fixed. For instance, consider the following code (C#): TextInfo textInfo = Thread.CurrentThread.CurrentCulture.TextInfo; textInfo.ToTitleCase("hello world!"); //Returns "Hello World!" textInfo.ToTitleCase("hElLo WoRld!"); //Returns "Hello World!" textInfo.ToTitleCase("Hello World!"); //Returns "Hello World!" What would you expect textInfo.ToTitleCase("HELLO WORLD!"); to return? In fact, it returns "HELLO WORLD!". This was well-documented "intended behavior," but, in my eyes, is extremely unintuitive, and therefore a bug. What is some other unintuitive behavior like this in this in the .Net framework? Bonus points if you can provide a fix that does not break backwards-compatibility. Remember! Always keep these two simple rules in mind when designing an API (or anything else): Make the common case the default, and Keep It Simple, Stupid!

  Read the article

• backbone js or knockout js as a web framework with jquery mobile

  - by Dan

  without trying to cause a mass discussion I would like some advice from the fellow users of stack overflow. I am about to start building a mobile website that gets it data from JSON that comes from a PHP rest api. I have looked into different mobile frameworks and feel that JQM will work best for us as we have the knowledge of jQuery even though a little large. Currently at work however we are using jQuery for all our sites and realise that now we are building a mobile website I need to think about javascript frameworks to move us onto a more MV* approach, which I understand the benefits of and will bring much needed structure to this mobile site and future web applications we may bring. I have made a comparision table where I have managed to bring the selection down to 2 - backbone and knockout. I have been looking around the web and it seems that there is more support for backbone in general and maybe even more support for backbone with JQM. http://jquerymobile.com/test/docs/pages/backbone-require.html One thing I have noticed however is that backbone doesnt support view bindings (declarative approach) whereas knockout does - is this a massive bonus? one of the main reasons for using a mv* for us is to get more structure - so I would like to use the library that will intergrate best with jQuery and especially jQuery mobile. neither of them seem to have that similar syntax... Thanks

  Read the article

• With regards to urllib AttributeError: 'module' object has no attribute 'urlopen'

  - by Matt

  import re import string import shutil import os import os.path import time import datetime import math import urllib from array import array import random filehandle = urllib.urlopen('http://www.google.com/') #open webpage s = filehandle.read() #read print s #display #what i plan to do with it once i get the first part working #results = re.findall('[<td style="font-weight:bold;" nowrap>$][0-9][0-9][0-9][.][0-9][0-9][</td></tr></tfoot></table>]',s) #earnings = '$ ' #for money in results: #earnings = earnings + money[1]+money[2]+money[3]+'.'+money[5]+money[6] #print earnings #raw_input() this is the code that i have so far. now i have looked at all the other forums that give solutions such as the name of the script, which is parse_Money.py, and i have tried doing it with urllib.request.urlopen AND i have tried running it on python 2.5, 2.6, and 2.7. If anybody has any suggestions it would be really welcome, thanks everyone!! --Matt ---EDIT--- I also tried this code and it worked, so im thinking its some kind of syntax error, so if anybody with a sharp eye can point it out, i would be very appreciative. import shutil import os import os.path import time import datetime import math import urllib from array import array import random b = 3 #find URL URL = raw_input('Type the URL you would like to read from[Example: http://www.google.com/] :') while b == 3: #get file name file1 = raw_input('Enter a file name for the downloaded code:') filepath = file1 + '.txt' if os.path.isfile(filepath): print 'File already exists' b = 3 else: print 'Filename accepted' b = 4 file_path = filepath #open file FileWrite = open(file_path, 'a') #acces URL filehandle = urllib.urlopen(URL) #display souce code for lines in filehandle.readlines(): FileWrite.write(lines) print lines print 'The above has been saved in both a text and html file' #close files filehandle.close() FileWrite.close()

  Read the article

• How to force the build to be out of date, when a text file is modified?

  - by demoncodemonkey

  The Scenario My project has a post-build phase set up to run a batch file, which reads a text file "version.txt". The batch file uses the information in version.txt to inject the DLL with a version block using this tool. The version.txt is included in my project to make it easy to modify. It looks a bit like this: @set #Description="TankFace Utility Library" @set #FileVersion="0.1.2.0" @set #Comments="" Basically the batch file renames this file to version.bat, calls it, then renames it back to version.txt afterwards. The Problem When I modify version.txt (e.g. to increment the file version), and then press F7, the build is not seen as out-of-date, so the post-build step is not executed, so the DLL's version doesn't get updated. I really want to include the .txt file as an input to the build, but without anything actually trying to use it. If I #include the .txt file from a CPP file in the project, the compiler fails because it obviously doesn't understand what "@set" means. If I add /* ... */ comments around the @set commands, then the batch file has some syntax errors but eventually succeeds. But this is a poor solution I think. So... how would you do it?

  Read the article

• Javascript for loop with variable

  - by Jascination

  I'm doing some simple javascript learning at the moment and I'm stuck on how to solve this problem. (the basic form comes from Code Academy). The task is to create 3 rabbit objects, each with a different adjective as an attribute. Then, print describeMyself() for each rabbit. Instead of repeating myself 3 times, I'd like to find a way to solve the problem with a for loop to make it more streamlined/challenging for myself. Here's what I tried: function Rabbit(adjective) { this.adjective = adjective; this.describeMyself = function() { console.log("I am a " + this.adjective + " rabbit"); }; } var rabbit1 = new Rabbit(fluffy); var rabbit2 = new Rabbit(happy); var rabbit3 = new Rabbit(sleepy); for (i=1; i<=3; i++){ ("rabbit"+i).describeMyself(); } Obviously, the ("rabbit"+i).describeMyself() is wrong. I want the loop to create "rabbit1", "rabbit2" and "rabbit3". What's the proper syntax here?

  Read the article

• Can I use a property placeholder with Spring EL?

  - by David Easley

  Before upgrading to Spring 3 I had this in my applicationContext.xml file: <bean class="com.northgateis.pole.ws.PolePayloadValidatingInterceptor"> <property name="validateRequest" value="${validateRequest}" /> <property name="validateResponse" value="${validateResponse}" /> </bean> where ${validateRequest) and ${validateRequest) refer to properties that may or may not be defined in my properties file. In Spring 2, if these proeprties were not present in the properties file the setters on the bean were not called and so the defaults hard-coded in PolePayloadValidatingInterceptor were used. After upgrading to Spring 3, it seems the behaviour is different: If the properties are not present in the properties file I get the following exception: SEVERE: Exception sending context initialized event to listener instance of class org.springframework.web.context.ContextLoaderListener org.springframework.beans.factory.BeanDefinitionStoreException: Invalid bean definition with name 'annotationMapping' defined in class path resource [com/northgateis/pole/ws/applicationContext-ws.xml]: Could not resolve placeholder 'validateRequest' at org.springframework.beans.factory.config.PropertyPlaceholderConfigurer.processProperties(PropertyPlaceholderConfigurer.java:272) at org.springframework.beans.factory.config.PropertyResourceConfigurer.postProcessBeanFactory(PropertyResourceConfigurer.java:75) at org.springframework.context.support.AbstractApplicationContext.invokeBeanFactoryPostProcessors(AbstractApplicationContext.java:640) at org.springframework.context.support.AbstractApplicationContext.invokeBeanFactoryPostProcessors(AbstractApplicationContext.java:615) at org.springframework.context.support.AbstractApplicationContext.refresh(AbstractApplicationContext.java:405) at org.springframework.web.context.ContextLoader.createWebApplicationContext(ContextLoader.java:272) I tried dabbling with Spring EL but the following doesn't seem to work: <bean class="com.northgateis.pole.ws.PolePayloadValidatingInterceptor"> <property name="validateRequest" value="${validateRequest?:true}" /> <property name="validateResponse" value="${validateResponse?:false}" /> </bean> The value after the Elvis operator is always used, even when the properties are defined in the proeprties file. Interesting that the syntax is accepted. Any suggestions?

  Read the article

• Problem with Zend Project

  - by Fincha

  Hello, i write a script and it works perfectly, on my local server. I have uploaded it on my server and now I getting this Problem Parse error: syntax error, unexpected '{' in /homepages/46/d319011794/htdocs/suche/public/index.php on line 18 an here is my index.php <?php error_reporting(E_ALL || E_STRICT); define('APPLICATION_PATH', realpath(dirname(__FILE__)) . '/../application'); set_include_path( APPLICATION_PATH . '/../library' . PATH_SEPARATOR . '../application/models' . PATH_SEPARATOR . get_include_path() ); require_once 'Zend/Loader.php'; Zend_Loader::registerAutoload(); new App_Connect(); try { //Line 18 require '../application/bootstrap.php'; } catch(Exception $exception) { echo "<html><body>Fehler beim bootstraping"; if(defined('APPLICATION_ENVIROMENT') && APPLICATION_EVIROMENT != 'production') { echo "<br><br>" . $exception->getMessage() . "<br>" . "<div align='left'>Stack Trace: " . "<pre> " . $exception->getTraceAsString() . "</pre></div>"; } echo "</body></html>"; exit(1); } Zend_Controller_Front::getInstance()->dispatch(); This is a Zend Project... so may be some one know what to do...

  Read the article

• StructureMap problems with bidirectional/circular dependencies

  - by leozilla

  I am currently integrating StructureMap within our business layer but have problems because of bidirectional dependencies. The layer contains multiple manager where each manager can call methods on each other, there are no restrictions or rules for communication. This also includes possible circular dependencies like in the example below. I know the design itself is questionable but currently we just want StructureMap to work and will focus on further refactoring in the future. Every manager implements the IManager interface internal interface IManager { bool IsStarted { get; } void Start(); void Stop(); } And does also have his own specific interface. internal interface IManagerA : IManager { void ALogic(); } internal interface IManagerB : IManager { void BLogic(); } Here are to dummy manager implementations. internal class ManagerA : IManagerA { public IManagerB ManagerB { get; set; } public void ALogic() { } public bool IsStarted { get; private set; } public void Start() { } public void Stop() { } } internal class ManagerB : IManagerB { public IManagerA ManagerA { get; set; } public void BLogic() { } public bool IsStarted { get; private set; } public void Start() { } public void Stop() { } } Here is the StructureMap configuration i use atm. I am still not sure how i should register the managers so currently i use a manual registration. Maybee someone could help me with this too. For<IManagerA>().Singleton().Use<ManagerA>(); For<IManagerB>().Singleton().Use<ManagerB>(); SetAllProperties(convention => { // configure the property injection for all managers convention.Matching(prop => typeof(IManager).IsAssignableFrom(prop.PropertyType)); }); After all i cannot create IManagerA because StructureMap complians about the circular dependency between ManagerA and ManagerB. Is there an easy and clean solution to solve this problem but keep to current design? br David

  Read the article

• GUI for generating XML

  - by Kenston

  Hello. Does anybody know of GUIs for generating XMLs? This means the user will not be presented with an IDE with support for XML for him to type XML codes. This would be helpful for non-technical people using the system. I know this sounds easy, given many libraries that can help in generating XMLs. The issue here is that the schema is really that flexible rather than being straightforward like representing books in a library with their properties. Imagine HTML, where we can create font tags inside a body, a table, a div, or nested even within itself. The solution is a WYSIWYG application that allows user to generate html codes (XML). However, that is good for XML applied in webpages since they involve visual aspect and design. My application of XML would focus on representing some conceptual and computational definitions, much like sql-like syntax, but more than that. I'm actually after the approach or previous works done or tried, although having a library/working framework for that would be better. Btw, I'm using Java for this project. Currently, I'm just thinking of presenting element tags where user will be able to drag and drop them and nest them with each other. And perhaps, assist them through a forms in inputing values for XML attributes. I'm still hoping if there are better ideas from the community. Thank you.

  Read the article

• ASP MVC.Net 3 RC2 bug ?

  - by Jarek Waliszko

  Hello, so far I've been using ASP.Net 3 BETA. Everything was working fine till the update to RC2 version. Of course I've read ScottGu's article about RC2. My problem is following. Basically I have 2 controllers: public class DynamicPageController : Controller { public ActionResult Redirect(string resource, int? pageNumber, int? id) { } } public class SystemController : Controller { public ActionResult Index() { } } In the Globals.asax I have routes like this: public static void RegisterRoutes(RouteCollection routes) { routes.MapRoute( "SystemRoute", "System/{action}", new { controller = "System", action = "Index" } ); routes.MapRoute( "PageRoute", "{resource}/{id}/{pageNumber}", new { controller = "DynamicPage", action = "Redirect", resource = UrlParameter.Optional, pageNumber = UrlParameter.Optional, id = UrlParameter.Optional } ); } In the code, I have simple link creation: System.Web.Mvc.UrlHelper u = new System.Web.Mvc.UrlHelper(context); string url = u.Action("Index", "System"); and the url is "/my_app/System" in both versions (BETA and RC2) But the code below (the syntax is the same as above, only controller and action names are different): string url = u.Action("Redirect", "DynamicPage", new RouteValueDictionary(new { resource = "Home" })); gives url which is null in RC2. It should be (and in fact in BETA was) "/my_app/Home" Why ? Is it a bug ? How can I create url for my "DynamicPage" controller ? Regards BTW: From where can I now download ASP.Mvc BETA version along with ASP.Net Web Pages 1.0 installers ? Since RC2 announcement I have problems finding mentioned 2 installers. Normally I would upgrade my code but this issue described above makes me stay with BETA for a while, since I have no time for migration and testing everything now.

  Read the article

• jquery validator message styling error in IE08 only when customised using errorPlacement function

  - by John Slaytor

  Going back to the errorplacement solution by Nadia (http://stackoverflow.com/questions/860055/jquery-override-default-validation-error-message-display-css-popup-tooltip-like) I have tried it and it works like a charm in Safari and Firefox but causes IE08 to bypass the jqueryvalidator and go straight to the server side validator. My code is this - as soon as I insert 'error element.... it is unstable in IE08. All help much appreciated <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $("#sampleform").validate({ rules: { dinername: "required", venue: "required", contact: "required", dinertelephone: "required", venuetime: "required", numberdiners: "required", dineremail: { required: true, email: true}, datepicker: { required: true,date: true} }, messages: { dinername: "Your name?", numberdiners: "How many guests?", dinertelephone: "Your mobile?", venue: "Which restaurant?", venuetime: "Your arrival time?", datepicker: "Your booking date?", dineremail: "Please enter a valid email address", }, errorElement: "div", errorPlacement: function(error, element) { element.before(error); offset = element.offset(); error.css('right', offset.right); error.css('right', offset.right - element.outerHeight()); } }); }); </script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(function() { $("#datepicker") .datepicker({minDate: 0, maxDate: '+6M +0D',dateFormat: 'DD, d M yy',onClose: function() {$(this).valid();} }); }); </script> The relevant webpage is http://www.johnslaytor.com.au/nilgiris/forms/bookingform/bookingform.html

  Read the article

• Model login constraints based on time

  - by DaDaDom

  Good morning, for an existing web application I need to implement "time based login constraints". It means that for each user, later maybe each group, I can define timeslots when they are (not) allowed to log in into the system. As all data for the application is stored in database tables, I need to somehow create a way to model this idea in that way. My first approach, I will try to explain it here: Create a tree of login constraints (called "timeslots") with the main "categories", like "workday", "weekend", "public holiday", etc. on the top level, which are in a "sorted" order (meaning "public holiday" has a higher priority than "weekday") for each top level node create subnodes, which have a finer timespan, like "monday", "tuesday", ... below that, create an "hour" level: 0, 1, 2, ..., 23. No further details are necessary. set every member to "allowed" by default For every member of the system create a 1:n relationship member:timeslots which defines constraints, e.g. a member A may have A:monday-forbidden and A:tuesday-forbidden Do a depth-first search at every login and check if the member has a constraint. Why a depth first search? Well, I thought that it may be that a member has the rules: A:monday->forbidden, A:monday-10->allowed, A:mondey-11->allowed So a login on monday at 12:30 would fail, but one at 10:30 succeed. For performance reasons I could break the relational database paradigm and set a flag for every entry in the member-to-timeslots-table which is set to true if the member has information set for "finer" timeslots, but that's a second step. Is this model in principle a good idea? Are there existing models? Thanks.

  Read the article

• Calling PHP functions within HEREDOC strings

  - by Doug Kavendek

  In PHP, the HEREDOC string declarations are really useful for outputting a block of html. You can have it parse in variables just by prefixing them with $, but for more complicated syntax (like $var[2][3]), you have to put your expression inside {} braces. In PHP 5, it is possible to actually make function calls within {} braces inside a HEREDOC string, but you have to go through a bit of work. The function name itself has to be stored in a variable, and you have to call it like it is a dynamically-named function. For example: $fn = 'testfunction'; function testfunction() { return 'ok'; } $string = <<< heredoc plain text and now a function: {$fn()} heredoc; As you can see, this is a bit more messy than just: $string = <<< heredoc plain text and now a function: {testfunction()} heredoc; There are other ways besides the first code example, such as breaking out of the HEREDOC to call the function, or reversing the issue and doing something like: ?> <!-- directly outputting html and only breaking into php for the function --> plain text and now a function: <?PHP print testfunction(); ?> The latter has the disadvantage that the output is directly put into the output stream (unless I'm using output buffering), which might not be what I want. So, the essence of my question is: is there a more elegant way to approach this? Edit based on responses: It certainly does seem like some kind of template engine would make my life much easier, but it would require me basically invert my usual PHP style. Not that that's a bad thing, but it explains my inertia.. I'm up for figuring out ways to make life easier though, so I'm looking into templates now.

  Read the article

• jQuery working in everything but IE7. (checked my commas)

  - by deadlyhifi

  The following code works in IE8, FF, Safari, Chrome etc. (not bothering with IE6 for this one), but doesn't work in IE7. I've been through the code with a fine tooth-comb. Checked the commas, messed around with ; but it's not going anywhere. I'm using the jQuery Validate and Uploadify scripts. Can anyone see the problem here? Thanks. <script type="text/javascript"> jQuery(document).ready(function($) { $("#validateform").validate({ errorClass: 'invalid', rules: { bike_url: { required: true, url: true } } }) $("#uploadify").uploadify({ 'uploader' : '<?php echo $url . '/wp-content/plugins/biketest/includes/uploadify/uploadify.swf'; ?>', 'script' : '<?php echo $url . '/wp-content/plugins/biketest/class/class.uploadify.php'; ?>', 'folder' : '<?php echo $url . '/wp-content/plugins/biketest/uploads'; ?>', 'cancelImg' : '<?php echo $url . '/wp-content/plugins/biketest/includes/uploadify/cancel.png'; ?>', 'auto' : true, 'fileDesc' : '.jpg or .png files only please.', 'fileExt' : '*.jpg;*.jpeg;*.png;', 'sizeLimit' : '2097152', 'buttonText': 'Choose Image', 'scriptData': { 'random': '<?php $rand = rand(0, 999999); echo $rand ?>' }, 'onComplete': function(event, queueID, fileObj, response, data) { var image = '<?php echo $rand; ?>-' + ((fileObj.name).toLowerCase()).replace(' ', ''); setTimeout(function(){ $(".uploaded").attr('src', '<?php echo $url; ?>/wp-content/plugins/biketest/uploads/s-' + image); }, 500); $("[name=bike_img]").val(image); } }) }); </script>

  Read the article

• PHP - fgetcsv - Delimiter being ignored?

  - by KnockKnockWhosThere

  I'm trying to output each line in a csv file, and it seems like the delimiter is being ignored... I'm sure my syntax is wrong somewhere, but can't seem to pinpoint it... The CSV file looks like this: ID,Code,Count TM768889,02001,10 TM768889,02002,10 TM768889,02003,10 TM768889,02004,10 TM768889,02005,10 I'm trying to output: 0 - ID,Code,Count 1 - TM768889,02001,10 2 - TM768889,02002,10 3 - TM768889,02003,10 4 - TM768889,02004,10 5 - TM768889,02005,10 But instead, it's outputting this: 0 - ID 1 - Code 2 - Count TM768889 3 - 02001 4 - 10 TM768889 5 - 02002 6 - 10 TM768889 7 - 02003 8 - 10 TM768889 9 - 02004 10 - 10 TM768889 11 - 02005 12 - 10 Here's my code: $row = 0; if(($handle = fopen($_FILES["Filedata"]["tmp_name"], "r")) !== FALSE) { $string = ''; while(($line = fgetcsv($handle,1000,",")) !== FALSE) { $num = count($line); $row++; for($c=0; $c < $num; $c++) { $string .= $c.' - '.$line[$c].'<br />'; } } fclose($handle); echo $string; }

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 347 348 349 350 351 352 353 354 355 356 357 358  | Next Page >