Search Results

Search found 9578 results on 384 pages for 'angularjs controller'.

Page 352/384 | < Previous Page | 348 349 350 351 352 353 354 355 356 357 358 359  | Next Page >

  • Pass 2-dimensional array trough view

    - by Mikael
    Hi, I'm trying to print a 2-dimensional array but can't figure it out. My controller uses this code: public ActionResult Test(string str) { DateTimeOffset offset = new DateTimeOffset(DateTime.Now); offset = offset.AddHours(-5); string[,] weekDays = new string[7,2]; for (int i = 0; i < 7; i++) { weekDays[i,0] = String.Format("{0:yyyy-MM-dd:dddd}", offset); //Date weekDays[i,1] = String.Format("{0:dddd}", offset); //Text offset = offset.AddHours(24); } weekDays[0,1] = "Today"; ViewData["weekDays"] = weekDays; return View(); } Now I wan't to print this array of weekdays as a dropdown-list and i thought this would work: <% foreach (var item in (string[,])ViewData["weekDays"]) { %> <option value=" <%= item[0] %> "> <%= item[1] %> </option> <% } %> But that's not the case, this code output just the first char of the string. So anyone got a suggestion? Thanks! /M

    Read the article

  • C# - Is it possible to start my project with a class instead of a form?

    - by Irro
    I want my project to be started through an class instead of a form, is there any way to do this? Or to be more precise is there any good way to make sure that the first class, except Program, that is started isn't a form-class. I tried to change to my class in Program.main() but it looks like Application.run() needs a ApplicationContext. I guess that I could change the Program-class to start another class and let that class start the form with Application.run() but I think that it will cause a lot of problem since I don't want the same form to be started first each time and Application.run() have to be used at least once and at most once. So I think it will be hard to keep track of if Application.run() has been used or not. Another question that might be even more important; Is this a good way to do things in .net? The reason I want to do so is because I want to create some sort of MVC project where the class I want to start with is the controller and all forms I'll use will be views.

    Read the article

  • A basic load test question

    - by user236131
    I have a very basic load test question. I am running a load test using VSTS 2008 and I have test rig with controller + 10 agents. This load test is against a SharePoint farm I have. My goal of the load test is to find out the resource utilization on web+app+db tiers of my farm for any given load scenario. An example of a load scenario is Usage profile: Average collaboration (as defined by SCCP) User Load: 500 (using step load pattern=a step of 50 every 2 mins and a warm up time of 2mins for every step) Think time: 0 Load duration: 8hrs Now, the question is: Is it fair to expect that metrics like Requests/sec, %processor time on web front end / App / DB, Test/sec, and etc become flat or enter a steady state at one point in time during the load test. Like I said, the goal is not to create a bottleneck but to only measure the utilization of resources by the above load profile. I am asking this question because I see something different. At one point in the load test, requests/sec becomes more or less flat. But processor utilization on the web/DB servers keeps increasing. After digging through the data a bit, I see that "tests running" counter also steadily increased over time. So, if I run the load test for more than 8hrs, %processor may go up further. This way, I don't know what to consider as the load excreted by the load profile. What does this "tests running" counter really signify? How is this different from tests/sec? Another question is: how can I find out why "tests running" counter shows an increase overtime? Thanks for your time

    Read the article

  • Help adding a backgroundView to UITableViewCell

    - by Alex
    I'm getting really desperate trying to add a UIImageView to UITableViewCell.backgroundView. All my efforts have resulted in this crappy rendering: It looks like the cell's label's white background is sitting on top of cell's background and covering portions of it. I tried setting the label's background color to clear, or some other color and it does not have any event. It is always white. The reason I know it's the text label's background causing this white area is that if I don't do [cell setText:@"Cell text here"]; the white area is gone and I see just the cell's background image. Here's the code that I'm using. The table view is added in the .xib file and UITableView is added to UIViewController: - (NSInteger)numberOfSectionsInTableView:(UITableView *)tableView { return 1; } - (NSInteger)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView numberOfRowsInSection:(NSInteger)section { return [myCollection.items count]; } - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { NSUInteger rowIndex = indexPath.row; static NSString *CellIdentifier = @"Cell"; UITableViewCell *cell = [tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:CellIdentifier]; if (cell == nil) { cell = [[[UITableViewCell alloc] initWithStyle:UITableViewCellStyleDefault reuseIdentifier:CellIdentifier] autorelease]; cell.backgroundView = [[UIImageView alloc] initWithImage:[UIImage imageNamed:@"darkCellBackground.png"]]; cell.selectedBackgroundView = [[UIImageView alloc] initWithImage:[UIImage imageNamed:@"darkCellBackground.png"]]; } [cell setText:@"Cell text here"]; return cell; } - (void)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView didSelectRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { // Navigation logic may go here. Create and push another view controller. // AnotherViewController *anotherViewController = [[AnotherViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"AnotherView" bundle:nil]; // [self.navigationController pushViewController:anotherViewController]; // [anotherViewController release]; [tableView deselectRowAtIndexPath:indexPath animated:YES]; } - (BOOL)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView canEditRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { return NO; } I'm sure I'm doing something wrong but cant quite figure out what.

    Read the article

  • Can't use method from class in other file

    - by user1833848
    I am not able to use one of my methods that i implemented in my tableviewcell file in my tableview controller implementation. I tried searching the web and xcode help with no luck. My codes looks like this: TableViewController.h: #import TableViewCell.h @interface TableViewController : UITableViewController @property (nonatomic, strong) IBOutlet UIBarButtonItem *A1Buy; @property (nonatomic, getter = isUserInteractionEnabled) BOOL userInteractionEnabled; - (IBAction)A1Buy:(UIBarButtonItem *)sender; TableViewController.m: @implementation A1ViewController @synthesize A1Buy = _A1Buy; @synthesize userInteractionEnabled; - (IBAction)A1Buy:(UIBarButtonItem *)sender { [TableViewCell Enable]; //this is where it gives an error } TableViewCell.h: @interface TableViewCell : UITableViewCell { BOOL Enable; BOOL Disable; } @property (nonatomic, getter = isUserInteractionEnabled) BOOL userInteractionEnabled; TableViewCell.m: @implementation TableViewCell; @synthesize userInteractionEnabled; - (BOOL) Enable { return userInteractionEnabled = YES; } - (BOOL) Disable { return userInteractionEnabled = NO; } As you can see i am trying to enable user interaction with a button, but Xcode only gives me errors like "class does not have this method" and stuff like that. All files are importet correctly so thats not why. Would appreciate any help. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Best way and problems when using ajax tabs with an MVC PHP project

    - by Jonathan
    Hi, I'm building an IMDB.com like website using PHP/jQuery and a MVC approach (no OOP). I have an index.php base controller to 'rule them all' :), a controllers folder with all the controllers, a models folder and a view folder. In some pages of the website I have tabbed navigation, when the visitor clicks on one of those tabs to get more information, jQuery gets that data using the $.post or $.get method and shows it on the tab container, obviously without refreshing the page. The problem is that those pages loaded by ajax are also generated using controllers, models, and views, and the things are getting a bit complicated for someone like me ( = 'no experience'). To dynamically get the data I some times need to include a model twice, include an include in an include in an include, send information multiple times, connect with the database again, and all sort of things like that and I'm sure there is a better and prettier way to do this. I'm searching for the best approach and common methods for this. I have no experience working with a big project like this. This is a personal project so I have full control and every answer is welcome. Thanks!!!

    Read the article

  • confusion using rjs for a link_to_remote

    - by odpogn
    My application layout contains a navigation div, and a content div constructed as a partial. I want to use ajax so that whenever a person clicks on a link in the navigation div, the contents of that page renders in the content div without a refresh. I'm confused on how to properly do this... any help for a rails noob??? thanks in advance~ application.html.erb <body> <div id="container"> <%= render 'layouts/header' %> <%= render 'layouts/content'%> <%= render 'layouts/footer' %> </div> </body> _header.html.erb <%= link_to_remote "Home", :url => { :controller => "pages", :action => "home" } %> _content.html.erb <div id="content"> <%= yield %> </div> pages_controller.rb def home @title = "Home" respond_to do |format| format.js end end home.rjs page.replace_html :container, :partial => 'layouts/content'

    Read the article

  • Using an objects date (without time) for a table header instead of an objects date and time (iphone)

    - by billywilliamton
    I've been working on an iphone project and have run into an issue. Currently In the table view where it displays all the objects, I use headers based on the objects datePerformed field. The only problem is that my code apparently creates a header that contains both the date and time resulting in objects not being grouped solely by their date as I intended, but rather based on their date and time. I'm not sure if it matters, but when an object is created I use a date picker to pick the date, but not the time. I was wondering if anyone could give me any suggestions or advice. Here is the code where i set up the fetchedResultsController - (NSFetchedResultsController *)fetchedResultsController { if (fetchedResultsController != nil) { return fetchedResultsController; } // Create and configure a fetch request with the Exercise entity. NSFetchRequest *fetchRequest = [[NSFetchRequest alloc] init]; NSEntityDescription *entity = [NSEntityDescription entityForName:@"Exercise" inManagedObjectContext:managedObjectContext]; [fetchRequest setEntity:entity]; // Create the sort descriptors array using date and name NSSortDescriptor *dateDescriptor = [[NSSortDescriptor alloc] initWithKey:@"datePerformed" ascending:NO]; NSSortDescriptor *nameDescriptor = [[NSSortDescriptor alloc] initWithKey:@"name" ascending:YES]; NSArray *sortDescriptors = [[NSArray alloc] initWithObjects:dateDescriptor, nameDescriptor, nil]; [fetchRequest setSortDescriptors:sortDescriptors]; // Create and initialize the fetch results controller NSFetchedResultsController *aFetchedResultsController = [[NSFetchedResultsController alloc] initWithFetchRequest:fetchRequest managedObjectContext:managedObjectContext sectionNameKeyPath:@"datePerformed" cacheName:@"Root"]; self.fetchedResultsController = aFetchedResultsController; fetchedResultsController.delegate = self; // Memory management calls [aFetchedResultsController release]; [fetchRequest release]; [dateDescriptor release]; [nameDescriptor release]; [sortDescriptors release]; return fetchedResultsController; } Here's where I set up the table header properties - (NSString *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView titleForHeaderInSection:(NSInteger)section { // Display the exercise' date as section headings. return [[[fetchedResultsController sections] objectAtIndex:section] name]; } Any suggestions welcome. Thanks for your time. -Billy Williamton

    Read the article

  • Rails - Update a single attribute : link with custom action or form with hidden fields?

    - by MrRuru
    Let's say I have a User model, with a facebook_uid field corresponding to the user's facebook id. I want to allow the user to unlink his facebook account. Do do so, I need to set this attribute to nil. I currently see 2 ways of doing this First way : create a custom action and link to it # app/controllers/users_controller.rb def unlink_facebook_account @user = User.find params[:id] # Authorization checks go here @user.facebook_uid = nil @user.save # Redirection go here end # config/routes.rb ressources :users do get 'unlink_fb', :on => :member, :as => unlink_fb end # in a view = link_to "Unlink your facebook account", unlink_fb_path(@user) Second way : create a form to the existing update action # app/views/user/_unlink_fb_form.html.haml = form_for @user, :method => "post" do |f| = f.hidden_field :facebook_uid, :value => nil = f.submit "Unlink Facebook account" I'm not a big fan of either way. In the first one, I have to add a new action for something that the update controller already can do. In the second one, I cannot set the facebook_uid to nil without customizing the update action, and I cannot have a link instead of a button without adding some javascript. Still, what would you recommend as the best and most elegant solution for this context? Did I miss a third alternative?

    Read the article

  • Trouble accessing Mutable array

    - by Jared Gross
    Im having trouble with my for loop where I am trying to index user names. I am able to separate my original array into individual objects but am not able to send the value to a new array that I need to reference later on. The value and count for userNames in my self.userNamesArray = userNames; line is correct. But right after that when I log self.userNamesArray, I get (null). Any tips cause I'm not completely sure I'm cheers! .h @property (nonatomic, copy) NSMutableArray *userNamesArray; .m - (void)viewWillAppear:(BOOL)animated { self.friendsRelation = [[PFUser currentUser] objectForKey:@"friendsRelation"]; PFQuery *query = [self.friendsRelation query]; [query orderByAscending:@"username"]; [query findObjectsInBackgroundWithBlock:^(NSArray *objects, NSError *error) { if (error) { NSLog(@"Error: %@ %@", error, [error userInfo]); } else { self.friends = objects; NSArray *users = [self.friends valueForKey:@"username"]; NSLog(@"username:%@", users); //Create an array of name wrappers and pass to the root view controller. NSMutableArray *userNames = [[NSMutableArray alloc] initWithCapacity:[self.friends count]]; for (NSString *user in users) { componentsSeparatedByCharactersInSet:charSet]; NSArray *nameComponents = [user componentsSeparatedByString:@" "]; UserNameWrapper *userNameWrapper = [[UserNameWrapper alloc] initWithUserName:nil nameComponents:nameComponents]; [userNames addObject:userNameWrapper]; } self.userNamesArray = userNames; NSLog(@"userNamesArray:%@",self.userNamesArray); [self.tableView reloadData]; } Here's the code where I need to reference the self.userNamesArray where again, it is comping up nil. - (void)setUserNamesArray:(NSMutableArray *)newDataArray { if (newDataArray != self.userNamesArray) { self.userNamesArray = [newDataArray mutableCopy]; if (self.userNamesArray == nil) { self.sectionsArray = nil; NSLog(@"user names empty"); } else { [self configureSections]; } } }

    Read the article

  • Pull To Refresh on iphone not working as expected

    - by Kleemann
    I have been using this: http://blog.leahculver.com/2010/12/iphone-pull-to-refresh.html to make the pull to refresh function in my app. But I cant see the text "Pull down to refresh...", "Release to refresh..." and "Loading...". All I've done is copy the files into my project, link against QuartzCore framework, and changed the .h file of my view controller so it is a subclass of PullRefreshTableViewController. Then I added the refresh method. Is seems that the initWithStyle method in PullRefreshTableViewController never is executed. But i should be, in my tableViewcellForRowAtIndexPath. - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { static NSString *CellIdentifier = @"CellIdentifier"; UITableViewCell *cell = [tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:CellIdentifier]; if (cell == nil) { cell = [[[UITableViewCell alloc] initWithStyle:UITableViewCellStyleDefault reuseIdentifier:CellIdentifier] autorelease]; } cell.textLabel.text = @"Text"; return cell; } The initWithStyle method from the PullRefreshTableViewController.m: - (id)initWithStyle:(UITableViewStyle)style { self = [super initWithStyle:style]; if (self != nil) { textPull = [[NSString alloc] initWithString:@"Pull down to refresh..."]; textRelease = [[NSString alloc] initWithString:@"Release to refresh..."]; textLoading = [[NSString alloc] initWithString:@"Loading..."]; NSLog(@"in"); } NSLog(@"out"); return self; } The logs are never printed in the console I really cant see where the problem is ?

    Read the article

  • Still some questions about USB

    - by b-gen-jack-o-neill
    Hi, few days ago I asked here about implementing USB. Now, If I may, would like to ask few more questions, about thing I dind´t quite understood. So, first, If I am right, Windows has device driver for USB interface, for the physical device that sends and receives communication. But what this driver offers to system (user)? I mean, USB protocol is made so its devices are adressed. So you first adress device than send message to it. But how sophisticted is the device controller (HW) and its driver? Is it so sophisticated that it is a chip you just send device adress and data, and it writes the outcomming data out and incomming data to some internal register to be read, or thru DMA directly to memory? Or, how its drivers (SW) really work? Does its driver has some advanced functions like send _data to _device? Becouse I somewhat internally hope there is a way to directly send some data thru USB, maybe by calling USB drivers itself? Is there any good article, tutorial you know about to really explain how all this logic works? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • And now for a complete change of direction from C++ function pointers

    - by David
    I am building a part of a simulator. We are building off of a legacy simulator, but going in different direction, incorporating live bits along side of the simulated bits. The piece I am working on has to, effectively route commands from the central controller to the various bits. In the legacy code, there is a const array populated with an enumerated type. A command comes in, it is looked up in the table, then shipped off to a switch statement keyed by the enumerated type. The type enumeration has a choice VALID_BUT_NOT_SIMULATED, which is effectively a no-op from the point of the sim. I need to turn those no-ops into commands to actual other things [new simulated bits| live bits]. The new stuff and the live stuff have different interfaces than the old stuff [which makes me laugh about the shill job that it took to make it all happen, but that is a topic for a different discussion]. I like the array because it is a very apt description of the live thing this chunk is simulating [latching circuits by row and column]. I thought that I would try to replace the enumerated types in the array with pointers to functions and call them directly. This would be in lieu of the lookup+switch.

    Read the article

  • What is the meaning of @ModelAttribute annotation at method argument level?

    - by beemaster
    Spring 3 reference teaches us: When you place it on a method parameter, @ModelAttribute maps a model attribute to the specific, annotated method parameter I don't understand this magic spell, because i sure that model object's alias (key value if using ModelMap as return type) passed to the View after executing of the request handler method. Therefore when request handler method executes the model object's name can't be mapped to the method parameter. To solve this contradiction i went to stackoverflow and found this detailed example. The author of example said: // The "personAttribute" model has been passed to the controller from the JSP It seems, he is charmed by Spring reference... To dispel the charms i deployed his sample app in my environment and cruelly cut @ModelAttribute annotation from method MainController.saveEdit. As result the application works without any changes! So i conclude: the @ModelAttribute annotation is not needed to pass web form's field values to the argument's fields. Then i stuck to the question: what is the mean of @ModelAttribute annotation? If the only mean is to set alias for model object in View, then why this way better than explicitly adding of object to ModelMap?

    Read the article

  • Adding International support in Erlang Web 1.4

    - by Roberto Aloi
    I'm trying to add international support for a website based on the Erlang Web 1.4. I would like to have a couple of links on every page (the notorious Country flags) that allow the user to set his language session variable. What I have right now is a link like: <li><a href="/session/language/en">English</a></li> Where, in the session controller I do: language(Args) -> LanguageId = proplists:get_value(id, Args), case language_is_supported(LanguageId) of false -> ok; true -> wpart:fset("session:lang", LanguageId) end, {redirect, "/"}. The problem is that, after setting the preferred language, I would like the user to be redirected to the page he was visiting before changing the language. In this case the "__path" variable doesn't help because it contains the language request and not the "previous" one. How could I resolve this situation? I'm probably using the wrong approach but I cannot thing to anything else right now.

    Read the article

  • What to set the scalar type to contain a byte []. Entity in MVC2

    - by Brad8118
    I'm trying out the EF 4.0 and using the Model first approach. I'd like to store images into the database and I'm not sure of the best type for the scalar in the entity. I currently have it(the image scalar type) setup as a binary. From what I have been reading the best way to store the image in the db is a byte[]. So I'm assuming that binary is the way to go. If there is a better way I'd switch. In my controller I have: //file from client to store in the db HttpPostedFileBase file = Request.Files[inputTagName]; if (file.ContentLength > 0) { keyToAdd.Image = new byte[file.ContentLength]; file.InputStream.Write(keyToAdd.Image, 0, file.ContentLength); } This builds fine but when I run it I get an exception writing the stream to keyToAdd.Image. The exception is something like: Method does not exist. Any ideas? Note that when using a EF 4.0 model first approach I only have int16, int32, double, string, decimal, binary, byte, DateTime, Double, Single, and SByte as available types. Thanks

    Read the article

  • CodeIgniter: help with this query

    - by iamjonesy
    Hi, I have just started my first CI app. I have a view that displays some posts. Each post can have multiple comments and I want to display the total number of comments next to each post. So far all my db call are in my controller (will be changing this). function index(){ $data['query'] = $this->db->get('posts'); $this->load->view('blog_view', $data); } In my view: <?php foreach($query->result() as $row): <div class="post-box"> <p><?php echo $row->body; ?><small>&nbsp;added by <?php echo $row->username; ?> on <?php echo date ('d/m/Y',strtotime($row->created)); ?>&nbsp;<a href="<?php echo base_url(); ?>blog/comments/<?php echo $row->id; ?>"><img src="<?php echo base_url(); ?>images/comments_icon.png" />&nbsp;0</a></small></p> </div> <?php endforeach; ?> I want to get the total number of comments where comment.post_id = the current record's id. and display it next to the comments icon. Any help with this most appreciated, Billy

    Read the article

  • What is the mean of @ModelAttribute annotation at method argument level?

    - by beemaster
    Spring 3 reference teaches us: When you place it on a method parameter, @ModelAttribute maps a model attribute to the specific, annotated method parameter I don't understand this magic spell, because i sure that model object's alias (key value if using ModelMap as return type) passed to the View after executing of the request handler method. Therefore when request handler method executes the model object's name can't be mapped to the method parameter. To solve this contradiction i went to stackoverflow and found this detailed example. The author of example said: // The "personAttribute" model has been passed to the controller from the JSP It seems, he is charmed by Spring reference... To dispel the charms i deployed his sample app in my environment and cruelly cut @ModelAttribute annotation from method MainController.saveEdit. As result the application works without any changes! So i conclude: the @ModelAttribute annotation is not needed to pass web form's field values to the argument's fields. Then i stuck to the question: what is the mean of @ModelAttribute annotation? If the only mean is to set alias for model object in View, then why this way better than explicitly adding of object to ModelMap?

    Read the article

  • "render as JSON" is display JSON as text instead of returning it to AJAX call as expected

    - by typoknig
    I'm navigating to the index action of MyController. Some of the on the index page I'm making an AJAX call back to myAction in MyController. I expect myAction action to return some data as JSON to my AJAX call so I can do something with the data client side, but instead of returning the data as JSON like I want, the data is being displayed as text. Example of my Grails controller: class MyController { def index() { render( view: "myView" ) } def myAction { def mapOfStuff = [ "foo": "foo", "bar":] render mapOfStuff as JSON } } Example of my JavaScript: $( function() { function callMyAction() { $.ajax({ dataType: 'json', url: base_url + '/myController/myAction', success: function( data ) { $(function() { if( data.foo ) { alert( data.foo ); } if( data.bar ) { alert( data.bar ); } }); } }); } }); What I expect is that my page will render, then my JavaScript will be called, then two alerts will display. Instead the JSON array is displayed as text in my browser window: {"foo":"foo","bar":"bar"} At this point the last segment of the URL in my address bar is myAction and not index. Now if I manually enter the URL of the index page and press refresh, all works as expected. I have half a dozen AJAX calls I do the exact same way and none of them are having problems. What is the deal here? UPDATE: I have noticed something. When I set a break point in the index action of MyController and another one in the myAction action, the break point in myAction gets hit BEFORE the break point in index, even though I am navigating to the index. This is obviously closer to the root cause of my problem, but why is it happening?

    Read the article

  • OpenLayers eraseFeatures doesn't erase features from map screen.

    - by Jenny
    I'm using OpenLayers, and have a layer for my Map, and a single Vector Layer. In this vector layer, I am using the DrawFeature control to draw a square. I have a listener waiting for a feature to be added, and then deleting any existing features (I only want one square at a time), like so: polygonLayer.events.register("beforefeatureadded", feature, function(evt){ console.log("Clearing existing polygons"); console.log(polygonLayer.features.length); polygonLayer.destroyFeatures(); polygonLayer.redraw(); });//end attempt at events registration When I check my layer.features.size, I can see that it's always 1, just like I expect, but the squares on the screen are still displayed. Even when I call .redraw() on the layer, the squares are still there. Is there some extra step I'm missing? Edit: You can find my code here: http://pastie.org/909644 Edit: Just realized: If I draw a square from previously existing coordinates, I can clear it just fine. It seems to be just the squares drawn from the controller that are an issue?

    Read the article

  • NSMagedObjectContext, threads and NSFechedResultsController

    - by tmpz
    Dear iphone developers, Core Data newbie speaking here. In my application I have two NSManagedObjectContext that refer to that same NSPersistentStorageController. One ManagedObjectContext (c1) is in the main thread --created when I create a NSFetchedResultsController -- and the second ManagedObjectContext (c2) created in a second thread, running in the background, detached from the main thread. In the background thread I pull some data off a website and insert the entities created for the pulled data in the thread's ManagedObjectContext (c2). In the meanwhile, the main thread sits doing nothing and displaying a UITableView whose data do be display should be provided by the NSFetchedResultsController. When the background thread has finished pulling the data and inserting entities in c2, c2 saves, and the background thread notifies the main thread that the processing has finished before it exiting. As a matter of fact, the entities that I have inserted in c2 are know by c1 because it can ask it about one particular entity with [c1 existingObjectWithID:ObjectID error:&error]; I would expect at this point, if I call on my tableview reloadData to see some rows showing up with the data I pulled from the web in the background thread thanks to the NSFetchedResults controller which should react to the modifications of its ManagedObjectContext (c1). But nothing is happening! Only if I restart the application I see what I have previously pulled from the web! Where am I doing things wrong? Thank you in advance!

    Read the article

  • How to handle exceptions from an image-generating Servlet?

    - by ssahmed555
    I have a simple (Servlet, JSP, and JSTL) web app whose main functionality is displaying images retrieved from a back-end server. The controller servlet forwards the user to a JSP that in turn uses another Servlet to display the resulting image on that same JSP. Further down, the JSP has a line similar to: <a href="<c:out value='${imageURL}'/>"><img src="<c:out value='${imageURL}'/>" alt="image view" border="1"></a> which invokes a GET request on the image-generating servlet causing it to generate the image. My question is: how do I handle Exceptions thrown by this image-generating servlet? I already have an error page defined (in web.xml) to handle ServletException within my web app but this doesn't work for this image-generating Servlet, and results in the following errors showing up in my Tomcat server logs: SEVERE: Exception Processing ErrorPage[exceptionType=javax.servlet.ServletException, location=/WEB-INF/ExceptionPage.jsp] java.lang.IllegalStateException: Cannot reset buffer after response has been committed What's my recourse in this situation? I'd like to be able to handle Exceptions thrown from this image-generating Servlet, and display some error on the main UI or forward the user to another error page.

    Read the article

  • Calling a register method from 2 or more controllers best practice

    - by PussInBoots
    I don't want to repeat myself. That is, I don't want the same code in two different controllers. I always start from a default mvc5 web app project. That project has a Register ActionMethod in an AccountController: // // GET: /Account/Register [AllowAnonymous] public ActionResult Register() { return View(); } // // POST: /Account/Register [HttpPost] [AllowAnonymous] [ValidateAntiForgeryToken] public async Task<ActionResult> Register(RegisterViewModel model) { if (ModelState.IsValid) { var user = new ApplicationUser() { UserName = model.UserName }; var result = await UserManager.CreateAsync(user, model.Password); if (result.Succeeded) { await SignInAsync(user, isPersistent: false); return RedirectToAction("Index", "Home"); } else { AddErrors(result); } } // If we got this far, something failed, redisplay form return View(model); } Say I have a CampaignController and I want to register a user when he/she is on that page, fills out his/her username and pass and clicks the send form/submit button. What is the best thing to do in the ActionMethod of that form/controller? Yes, I want to have the registerform in two or more places. What is the best way to accomplish this in mvc 5?

    Read the article

  • Zend_Controller_Router_Route_Chain more routes - more problems

    - by epmspec
    When i use only langRoute and moduleRoute i have not any problems. But when i add pageRoute it is not work properly. I have tried many another ways do it (Regex etc) but none gives the desired result. Can anybody help me? $front = Zend_Controller_Front::getInstance(); $router = $front->getRouter(); //Route_page needs dispatcher and request $dispatcher = $front->getDispatcher(); $request = $front->getRequest(); // Add languag routes $langRoute = new Zend_Controller_Router_Route_Hostname( ':language.domain.com', array( 'language' => 'ru', ), array( 'language' => '^(ru|en)$', ) ); // Add module routes $moduleRoute = new Zend_Controller_Router_Route_Module(array(),$dispatcher,$request); // Add page routes $pageRoute = new Zend_Controller_Router_Route( ':uri\.html', array( 'controller' => 'index', 'module' => 'default', 'action' => 'index', 'uri' => 'index', ), array ('uri' => '[0-9a-z\-]+') ); // Add chain routes $chainedRoute = new Zend_Controller_Router_Route_Chain(); $chainedRoute->chain($pageRoute); $chainedRoute->chain($langRoute)->chain($moduleRoute); $router->addRoute('default', $chainedRoute);

    Read the article

  • Magento - save quote_address on cart addAction using observer

    - by Byron
    I am writing a custom Magento module that gives rate quotes (based on an external API) on the product page. After I get the response on the product page, it adds some of the info from the response into the product view's form. The goal is to save the address (as well as some other things, but those can be in the session for now). The address needs to be saved to the quote, so that the checkout (onestepcheckout, free version) will automatically fill those values in (city, state, zip, country, shipping method [of which there are 3]) and load the rate quote via ajax (which it's already doing). I have gone about this by using an Observer, and watching for the cart events. I fill in the address and save it. When I end up on the cart page or checkout page ~4/5 times the data is lost, and the sql table shows that the quote_address is getting save with no address info, even though there is an explicit save. The observer method's I've used are: checkout_cart_update_item_complete checkout_cart_product_add_after The code saving is: (I've tried this with the address, quote and cart all not calling save() with the same results, as well as not calling setQuote() $quote->getShippingAddress() ->setCountryId($params['estimate_to_country']) ->setCity($params['estimate_to_city']) ->setPostcode($params['estimate_to_zip_code']) ->setRegionId($params['estimate_to_state_code']) ->setRegion($params['estimate_to_state']) ->setCollectShippingRates(true) ->setShippingMethod($params['carrier_method']) ->setQuote($quote) ->save(); $quote->getBillingAddress() ->setCountryId($params['estimate_to_country']) ->setCity($params['estimate_to_city']) ->setPostcode($params['estimate_to_zip_code']) ->setRegionId($params['estimate_to_state_code']) ->setRegion($params['estimate_to_state']) ->setCollectShippingRates(true) ->setShippingMethod($params['carrier_method']) ->setQuote($quote) ->save(); $quote->save(); $cart->save(); I imagine there's a good chance this is not the best place to save this info, but I am not quite sure. I was wondering if there is a good place to do this without overriding a whole controller to save the address on the add to cart action. Thanks so much, let me know if I need to clarify

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 348 349 350 351 352 353 354 355 356 357 358 359  | Next Page >