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  • Using WSH (VBS) with iMacros - how do they do it?

    - by Carl
    (iMacros For Firefox 6.6.5.0; Firefox 3.6.3; Windows XP Pro SP3 w/all updates) I made an iMacro to select "load next 25" (comments) on a web page (CNN.COM). Unfortunately, iMacros doesn't appear to do looping (do the above until that string doesn't appear on the page anymore - i.e. all the comments are loaded). I tried putting {!iloop} in the TAG command, and it didn't work - then I read it wouldn't. So I tried the example at http://wiki.imacros.net/Loop_after_Query_or_Login I can't find any information on how to actually run the script in the above example. I searched Google and found VBS scripting is handled with .wsh files with Windows XP Pro. (The examples and other references there say Windows does VBS natively, so I looked up how with Google.) So I made the following .wsh file (modified the above example): Option Explicit Dim iim1, iret 'initialize iMacros instance set iim1 = CreateObject ("imacros") iret = iim1.iimInit() do while not iret < 0 iret = iim1.iimPlay("Load All CNN Comments") loop ' tell user we're done msgbox "End." ' exit iMacros instance and quit script iret = iim1.iimExit() Wscript.Quit() Here's the iMacro: (Load All CNN Comments.iim) VERSION BUILD=6650406 RECORDER=FX TAG POS=1 TYPE=A ATTR=TXT:Load<SP>next<SP>25 WAIT SECONDS=#DOWNLOADCOMPLETE# The iMacro works by itself - I press Play (left iMacro panel) and the next 25 comments load on the CNN.com page in the current tab. I put the .wsh file in the ...\iMacros\Macros directory - with the iMacro "Load All CNN Comments.iim" When I run the .wsh file (by just double clicking on it's icon - I created it with Notepad, and Windows gave it an icon for that file type - it's executable) I get the message from "Windows Script Host" - "There is no script file specified." I wasn't actually expecting it to work, as I don't see how Windows would know to call iMacros to run the iim macro. It would be nice if there was a simple, COMPLETE, example of how to use a VBS script with iMacros, that isn't bogged down with unnecessary complication like filling in a form, loading multiple pages, etc. I can't find ANY example. So what do I need to do to get this to work? I just installed iMacros yesterday, because I am constantly having the problem that there are hundred of comments after a CNN.com article, and loading 25 more at a time until they are all on the page makes it impractical to read any replies to my comments. It would also be nice if I could run the Macro from Firefox, rather than by double clicking on some file somewhere. Thanks for any help.

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  • Different behaviour using unidirectional or bidirectional relation

    - by sinuhepop
    I want to persist a mail entity which has some resources (inline or attachment). First I related them as a bidirectional relation: @Entity public class Mail extends BaseEntity { @OneToMany(mappedBy = "mail", cascade = CascadeType.ALL, orphanRemoval = true) private List<MailResource> resource; private String receiver; private String subject; private String body; @Temporal(TemporalType.TIMESTAMP) private Date queued; @Temporal(TemporalType.TIMESTAMP) private Date sent; public Mail(String receiver, String subject, String body) { this.receiver = receiver; this.subject = subject; this.body = body; this.queued = new Date(); this.resource = new ArrayList<>(); } public void addResource(String name, MailResourceType type, byte[] content) { resource.add(new MailResource(this, name, type, content)); } } @Entity public class MailResource extends BaseEntity { @ManyToOne(optional = false) private Mail mail; private String name; private MailResourceType type; private byte[] content; } And when I saved them: Mail mail = new Mail("[email protected]", "Hi!", "..."); mail.addResource("image", MailResourceType.INLINE, someBytes); mail.addResource("documentation.pdf", MailResourceType.ATTACHMENT, someOtherBytes); mailRepository.save(mail); Three inserts were executed: INSERT INTO MAIL (ID, BODY, QUEUED, RECEIVER, SENT, SUBJECT) VALUES (?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?) INSERT INTO MAILRESOURCE (ID, CONTENT, NAME, TYPE, MAIL_ID) VALUES (?, ?, ?, ?, ?) INSERT INTO MAILRESOURCE (ID, CONTENT, NAME, TYPE, MAIL_ID) VALUES (?, ?, ?, ?, ?) Then I thought it would be better using only a OneToMany relation. No need to save which Mail is in every MailResource: @Entity public class Mail extends BaseEntity { @OneToMany(cascade = CascadeType.ALL, orphanRemoval = true) @JoinColumn(name = "mail_id") private List<MailResource> resource; ... public void addResource(String name, MailResourceType type, byte[] content) { resource.add(new MailResource(name, type, content)); } } @Entity public class MailResource extends BaseEntity { private String name; private MailResourceType type; private byte[] content; } Generated tables are exactly the same (MailResource has a FK to Mail). The problem is the executed SQL: INSERT INTO MAIL (ID, BODY, QUEUED, RECEIVER, SENT, SUBJECT) VALUES (?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?) INSERT INTO MAILRESOURCE (ID, CONTENT, NAME, TYPE) VALUES (?, ?, ?, ?) INSERT INTO MAILRESOURCE (ID, CONTENT, NAME, TYPE) VALUES (?, ?, ?, ?) UPDATE MAILRESOURCE SET mail_id = ? WHERE (ID = ?) UPDATE MAILRESOURCE SET mail_id = ? WHERE (ID = ?) Why this two updates? I'm using EclipseLink, will this behaviour be the same using another JPA provider as Hibernate? Which solution is better?

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  • Various GPS Android Functionality Questions..

    - by Tyler
    Hello - I have a few questions (so far) with the the LocationManager on Android and GPS in general.. Feel free to answer any number of the questions below, and I appreciate your help in advance! (I noticed this stuff doesn't appear to be documented very well, so hopefully these questions will help others out too!) 1) I am using the following code, but I think there may be extra fluff in here that I do not need. Can you tell me if I can delete any of this? LocationManager lm = (LocationManager) getSystemService(Context.LOCATION_SERVICE); LocationListener locationListener = new MyLocationListener(); lm.requestLocationUpdates(LocationManager.GPS_PROVIDER, 0, 0, locationListener); LocationProvider locationProvider = lm.getProvider("gps"); Location currentLocation = lm.getLastKnownLocation(locationProvider.getName()); 2) Is there a way to hold off on the last step (accessing "getLastKnownLocation" until after I am sure I have a GPS lock? What happens if this is called and GPS is still looking for signal? 3) MOST importantly, I want to ensure I have a GPS lock before I proceed to my next method, so is there a way to check to see if GPS is locked on and getLastKnownLocation is up to date? 4) Is there a way to 'shut down' the GPS listener once it does receive a lock and getLastKnownLocation is updated? I don't see a need to keep this running for my application once I have obtained a lock.. 5) Can you please confirm my assumption that "getLastKnownLocation" is updated frequently as the receiver moves? 6) In my code, I also have a class called "MyLocationListener" (code below) that I honestly just took from another example.. Is this actually needed? I assume this updates my location manager whenever the location changes, but it sure doesn't appear that there is much to the class itself! private class MyLocationListener implements LocationListener { @Override public void onLocationChanged(Location loc) { if (loc != null) { //Toast.makeText(getBaseContext(), "Location changed : Lat: " + loc.getLatitude() + " Lng: " + loc.getLongitude(), Toast.LENGTH_SHORT).show(); } } @Override public void onProviderDisabled(String provider) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub } @Override public void onProviderEnabled(String provider) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub } @Override public void onStatusChanged(String provider, int status, Bundle extras) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub } }

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  • Matlab wont extract first row & column because of matrix dimensions !

    - by ZaZu
    Hey guys, I am tracking an object that is thrown in air, and this object governs a parabolic pattern. Im tracking the object through a series of 30 images. I managed to exclude all the background and keep the object apparent, then used its centroid to get its coordinates and plot them. Now im supposed to predict where the object is going to fall, so I used polyfit & polyval .. the problem is, matlab says ??? Index exceeds matrix dimensions. Now the centroid creates its own structure with a row and 2 columns. Everytime the object moves in the loop, it updates the first row only .. Here is part of the code : For N=1:30 . . . x=centroid(1,1); % extract first row and column for x y=centroid(1,2); % extract secnd row and column for x plot_xy=plot(x,y) set(plot_xy,'XData',x(1:N),'YData',y(1:N)); fitting=polyfit(x(1:N),y(1:N),2); parabola=plot(x,nan(23,1)); evaluate=polyval(fitting,x); set(parabola,'YData',evaluate) . . end The error message I get is ??? Index exceeds matrix dimensions. It seems that (1:N) is causing the problems .. I honestly do not know why .. But when I remove N, the object is plotted along with its points, but polyfitting wont work, it gives me an error saying : Warning: Polynomial is not unique; degree >= number of data points. > In polyfit at 72 If I made it (1:N-1) or something, it plots more points before it starts giving me the same error (not unique ...) . Any ideas why ?? Thanks alot !!

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  • Executing a .NET Managed Assembly from SQL Server 2008 - Pro's, Con's & Recommendations

    - by RPM1984
    Hi guys, looking for opinions/recommendations/links for the following scenario im currently facing. The Platform: .NET 4.0 Web Application SQL Server 2008 The Task: Overhaul a component of the system that performs (fairly) complex mathematical operations based on a specific user activity, and updates numerous tables in the database. A common user activity might be "Bob" decides to post a forum topic. This results in (the end-solution) needing to look at various factors (about the post he did), then after doing some math based on lookup values/ratios as well as other data in the database, inserting some other data as a result of these operations. The Options: Ok - so here's what im thinking. Although it would be much easier to do this in C# (LINQ-SQL) it doesnt make much sense as the majority of the computations are based on values in the db, and it will get difficult to control/optimize/debug the LINQ over time. Hence, im leaning towards created a managed assembly (C# Class Library) that contains the lookup values (constants) as well as leveraging the math classes in the existing .NET BCL. Basically i'd expose a few methods that can be called by the T-SQL Stored Procedures. This to me has the following advantages: Simplicity of math. Do complex math in .NET vs complex math in T-SQL. No brainer. =) Abstraction of computatations, configurable "lookup" values and business logic from raw T-SQL. T-SQL only needs to care about the data, simplifying the stored procedures and making it easier to maintain. When it needs to do math it delegates off to the managed assembly. So, having said that - ive never done this before (call .NET assmembly from T-SQL), and after some googling the best site i could come up with is here, which is useful but outdated. So - what am i asking? Well, firstly - i need some better references on how to actually do this. "This" being how to call a C# .NET 4 Assembly from within T-SQL Stored Procedures in SQL Server 2008. Secondly, who out there has done this, what problems (if any) did you face? Realize this may be difficult to provide a "correct answer", so ill try to give it to whoever gives me the answer with a combination of good links and a list of pro's/con's/problems with this implementation. Cheers!

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  • What's the best way to return stuff from a PHP function, and simultaneously trigger a jQuery action?

    - by Jack Webb-Heller
    So the title is a tad ambiguous, but I'll try and give an example. Basically, I have an 'awards' system (similar to that of StackOverflow's badges) in my PHP/CodeIgniter site, and I want, as soon as an award is earned, a notification to appear to the user. Now I'm happy to have this appear on the next page load, but, ideally I'd like it to appear as soon as the award is transactioned since my site is mostly Ajax-powered and there may not be page reloads very often. The way the system works currently, is: 1) If the user does something to trigger the earning of an award, CodeIgniter does this: $params['user_id'] = $this->tank_auth->get_user_id(); $params['award_id'] = 1; // (I have a database table with different awards in) $this->awards->award($params); 2) My custom library, $this->awards, runs the award function: function award($params) { $sql = $this->ci->db->query("INSERT INTO users_awards (user_id, award_id) VALUES ('".$params['user_id']."','".$params['award_id']."') ON DUPLICATE KEY UPDATE duplicate=duplicate+1"); $awardinfo = $this->ci->db->query("SELECT * FROM awards WHERE id = ".$params['award_id']); // If it's the 'first time' the user has gotten the award (e.g. they've earnt it) if ($awardinfo->row('duplicate') == 0) { $params['title'] = $awardinfo->row('title'); $params['description'] = $awardinfo->row('description'); $params['iconpath'] = $awardinfo->row('iconpath'); $params['percentage'] = $awardinfo->row('percentage'); return $params; } } So, it awards the user (and if they've earnt it twice, updates a useless duplicate field by one), then checks if it's the first time they've earnt it (so it can alert them of the award). If so, it gets the variables (title of the award, the award description, the path to an icon to display for the award, and finally the percentage of users who have also got this award) and returns them as an array. So... that's that. Now I'd like to know, what's the best way to do this? Currently my Award-giving bit is called from a controller, but I guess if I want this to trigger via Ajax, then the code should be placed in a View file...? To sum it up: I need the returned award data to appear without a page refresh. What's the best way of doing this? (I'm already using jQuery on my page). Thanks very much everybody! Jack

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  • C# 'is' type check on struct - odd .NET 4.0 x86 optimization behavior

    - by Jacob Stanley
    Since upgrading to VS2010 I'm getting some very strange behavior with the 'is' keyword. The program below (test.cs) outputs True when compiled in debug mode (for x86) and False when compiled with optimizations on (for x86). Compiling all combinations in x64 or AnyCPU gives the expected result, True. All combinations of compiling under .NET 3.5 give the expected result, True. I'm using the batch file below (runtest.bat) to compile and test the code using various combinations of compiler .NET framework. Has anyone else seen these kind of problems under .NET 4.0? Does everyone else see the same behavior as me on their computer when running runtests.bat? #@$@#$?? Is there a fix for this? test.cs using System; public class Program { public static bool IsGuid(object item) { return item is Guid; } public static void Main() { Console.Write(IsGuid(Guid.NewGuid())); } } runtest.bat @echo off rem Usage: rem runtest -- runs with csc.exe x86 .NET 4.0 rem runtest 64 -- runs with csc.exe x64 .NET 4.0 rem runtest v3.5 -- runs with csc.exe x86 .NET 3.5 rem runtest v3.5 64 -- runs with csc.exe x64 .NET 3.5 set version=v4.0.30319 set platform=Framework for %%a in (%*) do ( if "%%a" == "64" (set platform=Framework64) if "%%a" == "v3.5" (set version=v3.5) ) echo Compiler: %platform%\%version%\csc.exe set csc="C:\Windows\Microsoft.NET\%platform%\%version%\csc.exe" set make=%csc% /nologo /nowarn:1607 test.cs rem CS1607: Referenced assembly targets a different processor rem This happens if you compile for x64 using csc32, or x86 using csc64 %make% /platform:x86 test.exe echo =^> x86 %make% /platform:x86 /optimize test.exe echo =^> x86 (Optimized) %make% /platform:x86 /debug test.exe echo =^> x86 (Debug) %make% /platform:x86 /debug /optimize test.exe echo =^> x86 (Debug + Optimized) %make% /platform:x64 test.exe echo =^> x64 %make% /platform:x64 /optimize test.exe echo =^> x64 (Optimized) %make% /platform:x64 /debug test.exe echo =^> x64 (Debug) %make% /platform:x64 /debug /optimize test.exe echo =^> x64 (Debug + Optimized) %make% /platform:AnyCPU test.exe echo =^> AnyCPU %make% /platform:AnyCPU /optimize test.exe echo =^> AnyCPU (Optimized) %make% /platform:AnyCPU /debug test.exe echo =^> AnyCPU (Debug) %make% /platform:AnyCPU /debug /optimize test.exe echo =^> AnyCPU (Debug + Optimized) Test Results When running the runtest.bat I get the following results on my Win7 x64 install. > runtest 32 v4.0 Compiler: Framework\v4.0.30319\csc.exe False => x86 False => x86 (Optimized) True => x86 (Debug) False => x86 (Debug + Optimized) True => x64 True => x64 (Optimized) True => x64 (Debug) True => x64 (Debug + Optimized) True => AnyCPU True => AnyCPU (Optimized) True => AnyCPU (Debug) True => AnyCPU (Debug + Optimized) > runtest 64 v4.0 Compiler: Framework64\v4.0.30319\csc.exe False => x86 False => x86 (Optimized) True => x86 (Debug) False => x86 (Debug + Optimized) True => x64 True => x64 (Optimized) True => x64 (Debug) True => x64 (Debug + Optimized) True => AnyCPU True => AnyCPU (Optimized) True => AnyCPU (Debug) True => AnyCPU (Debug + Optimized) > runtest 32 v3.5 Compiler: Framework\v3.5\csc.exe True => x86 True => x86 (Optimized) True => x86 (Debug) True => x86 (Debug + Optimized) True => x64 True => x64 (Optimized) True => x64 (Debug) True => x64 (Debug + Optimized) True => AnyCPU True => AnyCPU (Optimized) True => AnyCPU (Debug) True => AnyCPU (Debug + Optimized) > runtest 64 v3.5 Compiler: Framework64\v3.5\csc.exe True => x86 True => x86 (Optimized) True => x86 (Debug) True => x86 (Debug + Optimized) True => x64 True => x64 (Optimized) True => x64 (Debug) True => x64 (Debug + Optimized) True => AnyCPU True => AnyCPU (Optimized) True => AnyCPU (Debug) True => AnyCPU (Debug + Optimized) tl;dr

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  • Good object/DB set-up for CMS-esque app for managing content and user permissions?

    - by sah302
    Hi all, so I am writing a big CMS-esque app to allow users to manage web content through web applications, I've got a pretty good db-driven user permission system going, but am having trouble coming up with a good way to handle content groups and pages, I've got a couple options and not sure which one to take. Furthermore, I am not sure how to handle static page updates that have no 'widgets' in them. My current set-up for permissions is this: Objects: User, UserGroup, UserUserGroup, UserGroupType Standard many to many relationship User -> UserUserGroup <- UserGroup each Usergroup has a UserGroupType, which could be anything from Title, Department, to PermissionGroup. PermissionGroup manages the permissions. Right now on a per page basis I check permissions based on their PermissionsGroups. So for a page which has CMS features for a news widget, I check for permission groups of "Site Admin" and "News Admin". Now the issue I am coming to is, the site has many different departments involved. No problem I think, I can just have a EntityContentGroup so any widget app can be used for any departments. So my HR department, each of their news items would be in the EntityContentGroup with the news item ID, and content group of "HR" or "HR News". But maybe this isn't the most efficient way to go about it? I don't want to put the content group simply as a NewsItemType because some news items could apply to multiple areas, so I want to be able to assign them to as many areas as I want. Likewise, all of my widget apps have this, so that's why I decided to choose EntityContentGroup and not just NewsItemContentGroup. I was also thinking well instead of doing a contentGroup do a Page object that says which page some entity should be on. It seems almost like the same thing, but would I want to use Page for something else? I was thinking Page would be used for static pages with no widgets, a simple Rich Text Editor can edit the content of that page and I save that item to a page?? And then instead of doing a page level check for UserGroup permissions, would it be better to associate a usergroup to a contentgroup, and then just depending on what contentGroup content on the page is displayed, determine the permissions through that relationship? Is that better? I am not sure at this point. I guess I am just getting a tad overwhelmed at this is the largest app in scope and size that I have ever written. What is the best approach for this based on my current user permission set-up?

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  • How can I pass managed objects from one AppDomain to another?

    - by Dennis P
    I have two assemblies that I'm trying to link together. One is a sort of background process that's built with WinForms and will be designed to run as a Windows Service. I have a second project that will act as a UI for the background process whenever a user launches it. I've never tried attempting something like this with managed code before, so I've started trying to use windows messages to communicate between the two processes. I'm struggling when it comes to passing more than just IntPtrs back and forth, however. Here's the code from a control in my UI project that registers itself with the background process: public void Init() { IntPtr hwnd = IntPtr.Zero; Process[] ps = Process.GetProcessesByName("BGServiceApp"); Process mainProcess = null; if(ps == null || ps.GetLength(0) == 0) { mainProcess = LaunchApp(); } else { mainProcess = ps[0]; } SendMessage(mainProcess.MainWindowHandle, INIT_CONNECTION, this.Handle, IntPtr.Zero); } protected override void WndProc(ref Message m) { if(m.Msg == INIT_CONFIRMED && InitComplete != null) { string message = Marshal.PtrToStringAuto(m.WParam); Marshal.FreeHGlobal(m.WParam); InitComplete(message, EventArgs.Empty); } base.WndProc(ref m); } This is the code from the background process that's supposed to receive a request from the UI process to register for status updates and send a confirmation message. protected override void WndProc(ref Message m) { if(m.Msg == INIT_CONNECTION) { RegisterUIDispatcher(m.WParam); Respond(m.WParam); } if(m.Msg == UNINIT_CONNECTION) { UnregisterUIDispatcher(m.WParam); if(m_RegisteredDispatchers.Count == 0) { this.Close(); } } base.WndProc(ref m); } private void Respond(IntPtr caller) { string test = "Registration confirmed!"; IntPtr ptr = Marshal.StringToHGlobalAuto(test); SendMessage(caller, INIT_CONFIRMED, ptr, IntPtr.Zero); } } The UI process receives the INIT_CONFIRMED message from my background process, but when I try to marshal the IntPtr back into a string, I get an empty string. Is the area of heap I'm using out of scope to the other process or am I missing some security attribute maybe? Is there a better and cleaner way to go about something like this using an event driven model?

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  • JavaFX - question regarding binding button's disabled state

    - by jamiebarrow
    I'm trying to create a dummy application that maintains a list of tasks. For now, all I'm trying to do is add to the list. I enter a task name in a text box, click on the add task button, and expect the list to be updated with the new item and the task name input to be cleared. I only want to be able to add tasks if the task name is not empty. The below code is my implementation, but I have a question regarding the binding. I'm binding the textbox's text variable to a string in my view model, and the button's disable variable to a boolean in my view model. I have a trigger to update the disabled state when the task name changes. When the binding of the task name happens the boolean is updated accordingly, but the button still appears disabled. But then when I mouse over the button, it becomes enabled. I believe this is due to JavaFX 1.3's binding being lazy - only updates the bound variable when it is read. Also, when I've added the task, I clear the task name in the model, but the textbox's text doesn't change - even though I'm using bind with inverse. Is there a way to make the textbox's text and the button's disabled state update automatically via the binding as I was expecting? Thanks, James AddTaskViewModel.fx: package jamiebarrow; import java.lang.System; public class AddTaskViewModel { function logChange(prop:String,oldValue,newValue):Void { println("{System.currentTimeMillis()} : {prop} [{oldValue}] to [{newValue}] "); } public var newTaskName: String on replace old { logChange("newTaskName",old,newTaskName); isAddTaskDisabled = (newTaskName == null or newTaskName.trim().length() == 0); }; public var isAddTaskDisabled: Boolean on replace old { logChange("isAddTaskDisabled",old,isAddTaskDisabled); }; public var taskItems = [] on replace old { logChange("taskItems",old,taskItems); }; public function addTask() { insert newTaskName into taskItems; newTaskName = ""; } } Main.fx: package jamiebarrow; import javafx.scene.control.Button; import javafx.scene.control.TextBox; import javafx.scene.control.ListView; import javafx.scene.Scene; import javafx.scene.layout.VBox; import javafx.stage.Stage; import javafx.scene.layout.HBox; def viewModel = AddTaskViewModel{}; var txtName: TextBox = TextBox { text: bind viewModel.newTaskName with inverse onKeyTyped: onKeyTyped }; function onKeyTyped(event): Void { txtName.commit(); // ensures model is updated cmdAddTask.disable = viewModel.isAddTaskDisabled;// the binding only occurs lazily, so this is needed } var cmdAddTask = Button { text: "Add" disable: bind viewModel.isAddTaskDisabled with inverse action: onAddTask }; function onAddTask(): Void { viewModel.addTask(); } var lstTasks = ListView { items: bind viewModel.taskItems with inverse }; Stage { scene: Scene { content: [ VBox { content: [ HBox { content: [ txtName, cmdAddTask ] }, lstTasks ] } ] } }

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  • Self updating app, wont overwrite existing app, using Android packagemanager?

    - by LokiSinclair
    I know there are plenty of questions about this on here, but I've tried everything (but the correct 'thing', obviously!) and nothing seems to shine any light on the problem I'm having. I've written an app (for a customer), which is designed to be hosted on their own server. The app references a simple text file with the latest version code in it and checks it against it's own version. If it's out of date it goes off and downloads the update. Everything is working as intended up to this point. I use the: Intent i = new Intent(Intent.ACTION_VIEW); i.setDataAndType(Uri.fromFile(outputFile), "application/vnd.android.package-archive"); i.setFlags(Intent.FLAG_ACTIVITY_NEW_TASK); startActivity(i); ...code to start the install process of the newly downloaded .apk file. And that all starts as I would expect. I click on "Install" - when I'm prompted to confirm the overwriting of the current app, with the new. It starts, and then displays: App not installed. And existing package by the same name with a conflicting signature is already installed. Now I'm aware that Android can't have multiple applications sharing the same package name, which is fine, but nothing comes up in LogCat and I can only assume that the OS is annoyed at me attempting to 'update' my app, even though I'm going through all the correct channels and using the inbuilt package manager to do it for me! Can anyone tell me what the OS is moaning about? I'm not attempting to install two apps side by side, I want it to update it, which it starts to do, and then gets really confused. Is it something to do with me using the same keystore for signing the packages? I highly doubt it as I've used the same keystores previously to handle updates to games and the like, but I just can't figure out what it's complaining about. Hopefully someone out there has had this issue and solved it, and can point me in the right direction. I'm flying a bit blind with the limited information it's giving me :( Cheers.

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  • The Math of a Jump in a 2D game.

    - by ONi
    I have been all around with this question and I can't find the correct answer! So, behold, the description of my question: I'm working in J2ME, I have my gameloop that do the following: public void run() { Graphics g = this.getGraphics(); while (running) { long diff = System.currentTimeMillis() - lastLoop; lastLoop = System.currentTimeMillis(); input(); this.level.doLogic(); render(g, diff); try { Thread.sleep(10); } catch (InterruptedException e) { stop(e); } } } so it's just a basic gameloop, the doLogic() function calls for all the logic functions of the characters in the scene and render(g, diff) calls the animateChar function of every character on scene, following this, the animChar function in the Character class sets up everything in the screen as this: protected void animChar(long diff) { this.checkGravity(); this.move((int) ((diff * this.dx) / 1000), (int) ((diff * this.dy) / 1000)); if (this.acumFrame > this.framerate) { this.nextFrame(); this.acumFrame = 0; } else { this.acumFrame += diff; } } This ensures me that everything must to move according to the time that the machine takes to go from cycle to cycle (remember it's a phone, not a gaming rig). I'm sure it's not the most efficient way to achieve this behavior so I'm totally open for criticism of my programming skills in the comments, but here my problem: When I make I character jump, what I do is that I put his dy to a negative value, say -200 and I set the boolean jumping to true, that makes the character go up, and then I have this function called checkGravity() that ensure that everything that goes up has to go down, checkGravity also checks for the character being over platforms so I will strip it down a little for the sake of your time: public void checkGravity() { if (this.jumping) { this.jumpSpeed += 10; if (this.jumpSpeed > 0) { this.jumping = false; this.falling = true; } this.dy = this.jumpSpeed; } if (this.falling) { this.jumpSpeed += 10; if (this.jumpSpeed > 200) this.jumpSpeed = 200; this.dy = this.jumpSpeed; if (this.collidesWithPlatform()) { this.falling = false; this.standing = true; this.jumping = false; this.jumpSpeed = 0; this.dy = this.jumpSpeed; } } } So, the problem is, that this function updates the dy regardless of the diff, making the characters fly like Superman in slow machines, and I have no idea how to implement the diff factor so that when a character is jumping, his speed decrement in a proportional way to the game speed. Can anyone help me fix this issue? or give me pointers on how to make a 2D Jump in J2ME the right way. Thank you very much for your time.

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  • How the simples GUI countdown is supposed to work?

    - by Roman
    I am trying to write the simples GUI countdown. I found in Internet some code but it is already too fancy for me. I am trying to keep it as simple as possible. So, I just want to have a window saying "You have 10 second left". The number of second should decrease every second from 10 to 0. I wrote a code. And I think I am close to the working solution. But I still missing something. Could you pleas help me to find out what is wrong? Here is my code: import javax.swing.*; public class Countdown { static JLabel label; // Method which defines the appearance of the window. private static void showGUI() { JFrame frame = new JFrame("Simple Countdown"); frame.setDefaultCloseOperation(JFrame.EXIT_ON_CLOSE); JLabel label = new JLabel("Some Text"); frame.add(label); frame.pack(); frame.setVisible(true); } // Define a new thread in which the countdown is counting down. static Thread counter = new Thread() { public void run() { for (int i=10; i>0; i=i-1) { updateGUI(i,label); try {Thread.sleep(1000);} catch(InterruptedException e) {}; } } }; // A method which updates GUI (sets a new value of JLabel). private static void updateGUI(final int i, final JLabel label) { SwingUtilities.invokeLater(new Runnable(i,label) { public Runnable(int i, JLabel label) { this.i = i; this.label = label; } public void run() { label.setText("You have " + i + " seconds."); } }); } // The main method (entry point). public static void main(String[] args) { javax.swing.SwingUtilities.invokeLater(new Runnable() { public void run() { showGUI(); //counter.start(); } }); //counter.start(); } } And I have several concrete question about this code: Where should I place the counter.start();? (In my code I put it on 2 places. Which one is correct?) Why compiler complains about the constructor for Runnable? It says that I have an invalid method declaration and I need to specify the returned type. ADDED: I made the suggested corrections. And then I execute the code and get: Exception in thread "AWT-EventQueue-0" java.lang.NullPointerException at Worker.run(Worker.java:12) In the Worker.java in the line 12 I have: label.setText("You have " + i + " seconds.");.

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  • Openlayers - LayerRedraw() / Feature rotation

    - by Ozaki
    TLDR: I have an Openlayers map with a layer called 'track' I want to remove track and add track back in. I have an image 'imageFeature' on a layer that rotates on load to the direction being set. I want it to update this rotation that is set in 'styleMap' on a layer called 'tracking'. I set the var 'stylemap' to apply the external image & rotation. The 'imageFeature' is added to the layer at the coords specified. 'imageFeature' is removed. 'imageFeature' is added again in its new location. Rotation is not applied.. As the 'styleMap' applies to the layer I think that I have to remove the layer and add it again rather than just the 'imageFeature' Layer: var tracking = new OpenLayers.Layer.GML("Tracking", "coordinates.json", { format: OpenLayers.Format.GeoJSON, styleMap: styleMap }); styleMap: var styleMap = new OpenLayers.StyleMap({ fillOpacity: 1, pointRadius: 10, rotation: heading, }); Now wrapped in a timed function the imageFeature: map.layers[3].addFeatures(new OpenLayers.Feature.Vector( new OpenLayers.Geometry.Point(longitude, latitude), {rotation: heading, type: parseInt(Math.random() * 3)} )); Type refers to a lookup of 1 of 3 images.: styleMap.addUniqueValueRules("default", "type", lookup); var lookup = { 0: {externalGraphic: "Image1.png", rotation: heading}, 1: {externalGraphic: "Image2.png", rotation: heading}, 2: {externalGraphic: "Image3.png", rotation: heading} } I have tried the 'redraw()' function: but it returns "tracking is undefined" or "map.layers[2]" is undefined. tracking.redraw(true); map.layers[2].redraw(true); Heading is a variable: from a JSON feed. var heading = 13.542; But so far can't get anything to work it will only rotate the image onload. The image will move in coordinates as it should though. So what am I doing wrong with the redraw function or how can I get this image to rotate live? Thanks in advance -Ozaki Add: I managed to get map.layers[2].redraw(true); to sucessfully redraw layer 2. But it still does not update the rotation. I am thinking because the stylemap is updating. But it runs through the style map every n sec, but no updates to rotation and the variable for heading is updating correctly if i put a watch on it in firebug.

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  • Error implementing Dynamic Tab with ListView within each Tab - Tabs don't show up

    - by Jon
    I am trying to create a dyanmic tab application that has tabs on the left for each type of Food (e.g. Pasta, Dairy, etc. including those dynamically defined by user) and for each tab, have a listview connected to a SQLite database that updates. This is in the onCreate method: setContentView(R.layout.foodCabinet_layout); dbHelper = new FoodStorageDBHelper(this); dbHelper.open(); Cursor foodTypes = dbHelper.getAllFoodTypes(); ArrayList<String> typeOfFood = new ArrayList<String>(); typeOfFoods.add(foodTypes.getString(1)); while(foodTypes.moveToNext()){ typeOfFoods.add(foodTypes.getString(1)); } final TabHost tbh = (TabHost)findViewById(R.id.food_tabhost_cabinet); tbh.setup(); for(final String s : typeOfFood){ TabSpec nts = tbh.newTabSpec(s); nts.setIndicator(s.replace('_', ' ')); nts.setContent(new TabHost.TabContentFactory(){ public View createTabContent(String tag) { ListView foodCabinetLV = new ListView(FoodCabinet.this); Cursor mCursor = dbHelper.getAllFoodsWithType(s); // Create an array to specify the fields we want to display in the list (only TITLE) String[] from = new String[]{FoodStorageDBHelper.KEY_NAME, FoodStorageDBHelper.KEY_YEAR,FoodStorageDBHelper.KEY_RANK}; // and an array of the fields we want to bind those fields to (in this case just text1) int[] to = new int[]{R.id.childname,R.id.childyear,R.id.childrank}; // Now create a simple cursor adapter and set it to display SimpleCursorAdapter notes = new SimpleCursorAdapter(FoodCabinet.this, R.layout.food_row, mCursor, from, to); foodCabinetLV.setAdapter(notes); startManagingCursor(mCursor); foodCabinetLV.setOnItemClickListener( new AdapterView.OnItemClickListener() { public void onItemClick(AdapterView arg0, View arg1, int arg2, long arg3) { Intent i = new Intent(); i.setClass(arg0.getContext(), EditFoodDialog.class); i.putExtra(FoodStorageDBHelper.KEY_ROWID, Long.toString(arg3)); startActivityForResult(i, LoadFoodOrganizer.ACTIVITY_EDIT); } }); return foodCabinetLV; } }); } For some reason, it doesn't show anything... it's a blank screen. Any help would be very much appreciated. Let me know! Thanks! Jon

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  • MVC pattern implementation. What is the n-relation between its components

    - by Srodriguez
    Dear all, I'm working in a C# project and we are , in order to get some unity across the different parts of our UI, trying to use the MVC pattern. The client is windows form based and I'm trying to create a simple MVC pattern implementation. It's been more challenging than expected, but I still have some questions regarding the MVC pattern. The problem comes mostly from the n-n relationships between its components: Here is what I've understood, but I'm not sure at all of it. Maybe someone can correct me? Model: can be shared among different Views. 1-n relationship between Model-View View: shows the state of the model. only one controller (can be shared among different views?). 1-1 relationship with the Model, 1-1 relationship with the controller Controller: handles the user actions on the view and updates the model. One controller can be shared among different views, a controller interacts only with one model? I'm not sure about the two last ones: Can a view have several controller? Or can a view share a controller with another view? Or is it only a 1:1 relationship? Can a controller handle several views? can it interact with several models? Also, I take advantage of this question to ask another MVC related question. I've suppressed all the synchronous calls between the different members of the MVC, making use of the events and delegates. One last call is still synchronous and is actually the most important one: The call between the view and the controller is still synchronous, as I need to know rather the controller has been able to handle the user's action or not. This is very bad as it means that I could block the UI thread (hence the client itself) while the controller is processing or doing some work. How can I avoid this? I can make use of the callback but then how do i know to which event the callback comes from? PS: I can't change the pattern at this stage, so please avoid answers of type "use MVP or MVVC, etc ;) Thanks!

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  • MVC pattern implementation. What is the n-relation between its components

    - by Srodriguez
    Dear all, I'm working in a C# project and we are , in order to get some unity across the different parts of our UI, trying to use the MVC pattern. The client is windows form based and I'm trying to create a simple MVC pattern implementation. It's been more challenging than expected, but I still have some questions regarding the MVC pattern. The problem comes mostly from the n-n relationships between its components: Here is what I've understood, but I'm not sure at all of it. Maybe someone can correct me? Model: can be shared among different Views. 1-n relationship between Model-View View: shows the state of the model. only one controller (can be shared among different views?). 1-1 relationship with the Model, 1-1 relationship with the controller Controller: handles the user actions on the view and updates the model. One controller can be shared among different views, a controller interacts only with one model? I'm not sure about the two last ones: Can a view have several controller? Or can a view share a controller with another view? Or is it only a 1:1 relationship? Can a controller handle several views? can it interact with several models? Also, I take advantage of this question to ask another MVC related question. I've suppressed all the synchronous calls between the different members of the MVC, making use of the events and delegates. One last call is still synchronous and is actually the most important one: The call between the view and the controller is still synchronous, as I need to know rather the controller has been able to handle the user's action or not. This is very bad as it means that I could block the UI thread (hence the client itself) while the controller is processing or doing some work. How can I avoid this? I can make use of the callback but then how do i know to which event the callback comes from? PS: I can't change the pattern at this stage, so please avoid answers of type "use MVP or MVVC, etc ;) Thanks!

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  • Large number of UPDATE queries slowing down page

    - by Bryan Lewis
    I am reading and validating large fixed-width text files (range from 10-50K lines) that are submitted via our ASP.net website (coded in VB.Net). I do an initial scan of the file to check for basic issues (line length, etc). Then I import each row into a MS SQL table. Each DB rows basically consists of a record_ID (Primary, auto-incrementing) and about 50 varchar fields. After the insert is done, I run a validation function on the file that checks each field in each row based on a bunch of criteria (trimmed length, isnumeric, range checks, etc). If it finds an error in any field, it inserts a record into the Errors table, which has an error_ID, the record_ID and an error message. In addition, if the field fails in a particular way, I have to do a "reset" on that field. A reset might consist of blanking the entire field, or simply replacing the value with another value (e.g. replacing the string with a new one that has all illegals chars taken out). I have a 5,000 line test file. The upload, initial check, and import takes about 5-6 seconds. The detailed error check and insert into the Errors table takes about 5-8 seconds (this file has about 1200 errors in it). However, the "resets" part takes about 40-45 seconds for 750 fields that need to be reset. When I comment out the resets function (returning immediately without actually calling the UPDATE stored proc), the process is very fast. With the resets turned on, the pages take 50 seconds to return. My UPDATE stored proc is using some recommended code from http://sommarskog.se/dynamic_sql.html, whereby it uses CASE instead of dynamic SQL: UPDATE dbo.Records SET dbo.Records.file_ID = CASE @field_name WHEN 'file_ID' THEN @field_value ELSE file_ID END, . . (all 50 varchar field CASE statements here) . WHERE dbo.Records.record_ID = @record_ID Is there any way I can help my performance here. Can I somehow group all of these UPDATE calls into a single transaction? Should I be reworking the UPDATE query somehow? Or is it just sheer quantity of 750+ UPDATEs and things are just slow (it's a quad proc server with 8GB ram). Any suggestions appreciated.

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  • Why does my entire page reload in Chrome and Firefox when using asynchronous UpdatePanel postbacks?

    - by Alex
    Being a bit perplexed about this issue by now, I hope some of you gurus can shed some light on my problem... I've developed a AJAX-enhanced website, which has been running fine in IE, Chrome and Firefox for a year or so. I use a Timer-control to check for incoming messages every 30 seconds, and this updates an UpdatePanel showing potential new messages. Now several one of my Firefox users complain about the page refreshing every 30 seconds! I my self cannot reproduce this behaviour, but given the "30 seconds"-description, I cursed my Timer-solution as the culprit. But now, I'm experiencing this error myself, not in Firefox though, but in Google Chrome! (And only on one of my two computers!) Every 30 seconds the page reloads! But I found that it's not only related to the Timer, because all other asynchronous postbacks to the server within UpdatePanels reloads the entire page as well. This error has never been experienced in Internet Explorer (to my knowledge). As I said, this it not only related to the Timer postback, but if it's of interest to anybody the code is like this: <asp:Timer runat="server" ID="MailCheckTimer" Interval="30000" OnTick="MailChecker_Tick"></asp:Timer> <asp:UpdatePanel runat="server" ID="MailCheckerUpdatePanel" UpdateMode="Conditional"> <ContentTemplate> <div class="newmail_box" runat="server" id="newmail_box"> <!-- Content stripped for this example --> </div> </ContentTemplate> <Triggers> <asp:AsyncPostBackTrigger ControlID="MailCheckTimer" /> </Triggers> </asp:UpdatePanel> In other places of the website I call the client side __doPostBack function directly from JavaScript in relation to an UpdatePanel. Normal behaviour for this call is to updated the referenced UpdatePanel with some content, but now in Chrome this refreshes the entire page! (but again not consistently, and never in IE) Even the most fundamental UpdatePanel operations like refreshing the content after a button (inside the panel) is clicked, forces the page to reload completely: <asp:Button ID="btnSearch" runat="server" Text="Search" OnClick="btnSearch_Click"></asp:Button> And just to torment me further, I only experience this on my public website, and not in my local development environment, making it a tedious affair for me to find the actual cause! :( Any ideas on why this happens? Why so inconsistently? Has it to do with my UpdatePanel-design? Or does some security setting in Firefox/Chrome that prevent some asynchronous UpdatePanel callbacks? Any help or idea is highly appreciated!

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  • NSArraycontroller selectionIndexes bindings

    - by Michael Scherbaum
    Hi all, I have the following set-up: A Window that has a splitView in which I display I NSCollectionView in the left view and a detailView in the right view. Both views are set-up in separate xibs. Furthermore I have a Datacontroller (of class NSArrayController) that manages a mutable Array of NSMutableDictionaries (moviesForChoice). The dataController is set-up as application delegate. The movie objects in the array have properties like (name, plot, genre etc.) so far so good... In the xib for the NScollectionview I bound a NSArraycontroller content property to my datacontroller via Application.delegate.moviesForChoice The collectionView accesses the arraycontroller.arrrangedObjects and arraycontroller.selectionIndexes. This works fine the contents are displayed and the selection works fine in the collectionview (my collectionviewItem renders a selection color) In the xib for the detailView I want to display information for the selected object in the collectionview. Therefore I also added an arraycontroller to the xib, bound the content aray to Application.delegate.moviesForChoice and bound the NSTextfields in the view to e.g. arraycontroller.selection.name Here comes my issue: everytime I open the window with the two xibs, my collectionview displays all movies that are for choice correctly, and the detailview displays the information for the 1st object in my collectionview. Whenever I click on a different movie in the collectionView the res. item renders a selection color, but the detailView doesn't update. My understanding of it would be that the DataController is not informed about updates in the selectionIndexes and can therefore not trigger an update in the detailView. Correct me if I'm wrong... To remedy this I tried to bind the selectionIndexes property of the arraycontroller in the collectionView xib to Application.delegate.moviesForChoice.selecionIndexes but this failed with: addObserver:forKeyPath:options:context:] is not supported. Key path: selectionIndexes I could imagine that this means that the datacontroller is not KVO compliant for my Array moviesForChoice, but I implemented the following methods for it: -(void)insertObject:(NSDictionary *)dict inMoviesForChoiceAtIndex:(NSUInteger)index { [moviesForChoice insertObject:dict atIndex:index]; } -(void)removeObjectFromMoviesForChoiceAtIndex:(NSUInteger)index { [moviesForChoice removeObjectAtIndex:index]; } -(void)setMoviesForChoice:(NSMutableArray *)a { moviesForChoice = a; } -(NSArray*)moviesForChoice { return moviesForChoice; } -(NSUInteger)countOfMoviesForChoice { return [moviesForChoice count]; } - (void)addMovieForChoiceObject:(Movie *)anObject { [moviesForChoice addObject:anObject]; } So where am I wrong? How do I correctly bind to the selectionIndexes? You help is much appreciated! M

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  • Modular GWT design concerns

    - by GlGuru
    Hi, I have a couple of questions regarding a modular GWT based application framework. I have some ideas about them but being new to the field of web development I feel they are far from ideal. I'd appreciate a few comments and suggestions in this regard. Here are my questions: I am developing a framework which will allow third parties to embed GWT applications into our website and do some communication with them using simple iFrame postMessage. All these third party modules are going to use our SDK which is also GWT based. The problem arises that even though all the modules will be using the same codebase there is going to be a massive overheard in the amount of duplicate Javascript code (i.e. our common SDK code base which is quite large) being downloaded on the client's machine. This is highly redundant and problematic, not only due to the sheer size of duplicate code but, also due to the fact that subsequent updates of the SDK would require the modules to be recompiled which is going to create a DLL hell kind of scenario in the long run. What is the best way of doing this kind of thing? Is there a way where I can have some static GWT code (i.e. the SDK) and the dynamic GWT module refers to it (even if lies on a different domain) and it all work happily? The other part of the problem lies in providing robust scripting front end to the SDK. At first it appears to be trivial since Javascript itself is a scripting language. However, I do not know how to load and call a piece of pure Javascript code at runtime? I am willing to put restrictions on the target Javascript (i.e. having a function main and unique namespace or something). Furthermore the Javascript will come as a string from a database and not as a full URL. If its doable in Javascript how does one get this right in GWT i.e. forcing the compiler to emit a certain function in the generated Javascript? This I believe can be lesser of a problem by having a stub Javascript with all the right requirements which just loads up a GWT generated Javascript. Is any of this possible at all? I generally hate to be this verbose but I hope to find a quick solution to the problem as its holding up my progress. I'd highly appreciate any comments, suggestions and experiences.

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  • Multi-Threading Question Concerning WPF

    - by Andrew
    Hello, I'm a newbie to threading, and I don't really know how to code a particular task. I would like to handle a mouse click event on a window that will kick off a while loop in a seperate thread. This thread, which is distinct from the UI thread, should call a function in the while loop which updates a label on the window being serviced by the UI thread. The while loop should stop running when the left mouse button is no longer being pressed. All the loop does is increment a counter, and then repeatedly call the function which displays the updated value in the window. The code for the window and all of the threading is given below (I keep getting some error about STA threading, but don't know where to put the attribute). Also, I'm hoping to use this solution, if it ever works, in another project that makes asynchronous calls elsewhere to a service via wcf, so I was hoping not to make any application-wide special configurations, since I'm really new to multi-threading and am quite worried about breaking other code in a larger program... Here's what I have: <Window x:Class="WpfApplication2.MainWindow" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" xmlns:local="clr-namespace:WpfApplication2" Name="MyMainWindow" Title="MainWindow" Width="200" Height="150" PreviewMouseLeftButtonDown="MyMainWindow_PreviewMouseLeftButtonDown"> <Label Height="28" Name="CounterLbl" /> </Window> And here's the code-behind: using System.Windows; using System.Windows.Input; using System.Threading; namespace WpfApplication2 { /// <summary> /// Interaction logic for MainWindow.xaml /// </summary> public partial class MainWindow : Window { private int counter = 0; public MainWindow() { InitializeComponent(); } private delegate void EmptyDelegate(); private void MyMainWindow_PreviewMouseLeftButtonDown(object sender, MouseButtonEventArgs e) { Thread counterThread = new Thread(new ThreadStart(MyThread)); counterThread.Start(); } private void MyThread() { while (Mouse.LeftButton == MouseButtonState.Pressed) { counter++; Dispatcher.Invoke(new EmptyDelegate(UpdateLabelContents), null); } } private void UpdateLabelContents() { CounterLbl.Content = counter.ToString(); } } } Anyways, multi-threading is really new to me, and I don't have any experience implementing it, so any thoughts or suggestions are welcome! Thanks, Andrew

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  • Summarising (permanently) data in a SQL table

    - by Cylindric
    Geetings, Stackers. I have a huge number of data-points in a SQL table, and I want to summarise them in a way reminiscent of RRD. Assuming a table such as ID | ENTITY_ID | SCORE_DATE | SCORE | SOME_OTHER_DATA ----+-----------+------------+-------+----------------- 1 | A00000001 | 01/01/2010 | 100 | some data 2 | A00000002 | 01/01/2010 | 105 | more data 3 | A00000003 | 01/01/2010 | 104 | various text ... | ......... | .......... | ..... | ... ... | A00009999 | 01/01/2010 | 101 | ... | A00000001 | 02/01/2010 | 104 | ... | A00000002 | 02/01/2010 | 119 | ... | A00000003 | 02/01/2010 | 119 | ... | ......... | .......... | ..... | ... | A00009999 | 02/01/2010 | 101 | arbitrary data ... | ......... | .......... | ..... | ... ... | A00000001 | 01/02/2010 | 104 | ... | A00000002 | 01/02/2010 | 119 | ... | A00000003 | 01/01/2010 | 119 | I want to end up with one record per entity, per month: ID | ENTITY_ID | SCORE_DATE | SCORE | ----+-----------+------------+-------+ ... | A00000001 | 01/01/2010 | 100 | ... | A00000002 | 01/01/2010 | 105 | ... | A00000003 | 01/01/2010 | 104 | ... | A00000001 | 01/02/2010 | 100 | ... | A00000002 | 01/02/2010 | 105 | ... | A00000003 | 01/02/2010 | 104 | (I Don't care about the SOME_OTHER_DATA - I'll pick something - either the first or last record probably.) What's an easy way of doing this on a regular basis, so that anything in the last calendar month is summarised in this way? At the moment my plan is kind of: For each EntityID For each month Find average score for all records in given month Update first record with results of previous step Delete all records that aren't the first I can't think of a neat way of doing it though, that doesn't involve lots of updates and iteration. This can either be done in a SQL Stored Procedure, or it can be incorporated into the .Net app that's generating this data, so the solution doesn't really need to be "one big SQL script", but can be :) (SQL-2005)

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  • linq to sql with nservicebus table lock issue

    - by IGoor
    I am building a system using NServiceBus and my DataLayer is using Linq 2 SQL. The system is made up of 2 services. Service1 receives messages from NSB. It will query Table1 in my database and inserts a record into Table1 If a certain condition is met a new NSB message is sent to the 2nd service Service2 will update records also in Table1 when it receives messages from Service1 and it does some other non database related work. Service2 is a long running process. The problem I am having is the moment Service2 updates a record in Table1, the table is locked. The lock seems to be in place until Service2 has completed all it is processing. i.e. The lock is not released after my datacontext is disposed. This causes the query in Service1 to timeout. Once Service2 completes processing, Service1 resumes processing again without problem. So for example Service1 code may look like: int x =0; using (DataContext db = new DataContext()) { x = (from dp in db.Table1 select dp).Count(); // this line will timeout while service2 is processing Table1 t = new Table1(); t.Data = "test"; db.Table1.InsertOnSubmit(t); db.SubmitChanges(); } if(x % 50 == 0) CallService2(); The code in service2 may look like: using (DataContext db = new DataContext()) { Table1 t = db.Table1.Where(t => t.id == myId); t.Data = "updated"; db.SubmitChanges(); } // I would have expected the lock to have been released at this point, but this is not the case. DoSomeLongRunningTasks(); // lock will be released once service2 exits I don't understand why the lock is not released when the datacontext is disposed in Service2. To get around the problem I have been calling: db.ExecuteCommand("SET TRANSACTION ISOLATION LEVEL READ UNCOMMITTED"); and this works, but I am not happy using it. I want to solve this problem properly. Has any one experienced this sort of problem before and does any one know how to solve it? Why is the lock not released after the datacontext has been disposed? Thanks in advance. p.s. sorry for the extremely long post.

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  • Remove links with Javascript

    - by Arlen Beiler
    How do I remove links from a webpage with Javascript. I am using Google Chrome. The code I tried is: function removehyperlinks() { try { alert(document.anchors.length); alert(document.getElementsByTagName('a')); for(i=0;i=document.anchors.length;i++) { var a = document.anchors[i]; a.outerHTML = a.innerHTML; var b = document.getElementsByTagName('a'); b[i].outerHTML = b[i].innerHTML; } } catch(e) { alert (e);} alert('done'); } Of course, this is test code, which is why I have the alerts and 2 things trying at the same time. The first alert returns "0" the second [Object NodeList] and the third returns "done". My html body looks like this: <body onload="removehyperlinks()"> <ol style="text-align:left;" class="messagelist"> <li class="accesscode"><a href="#">General information, Updates, &amp; Meetings<span class="extnumber">141133#</span></a> <ol> <li><a href="#">...</a></li> <li><a href="#">...</a></li> <li><a href="#">...</a></li> <li><a href="#">...</a></li> <li><a href="#">...</a></li> <li><a href="#">...</a></li> <li><a href="#">...</a></li> <li><a href="#">...</a></li> <li start="77"><a href="#"">...</a></li> <li start="88"><a href="#">...</a></li> <li start="99"><a href="#">...</a></li> </ol> </li> </ol> </body>

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