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  • Problem with asp.net function syntax (not returning values correctly)

    - by Phil
    I have an active directory search function: Function GetAdInfo(ByVal ADDN As String, ByVal ADCommonName As String, ByVal ADGivenName As String, ByVal ADStaffNum As String, ByVal ADEmail As String, ByVal ADDescription As String, ByVal ADTelephone As String, ByVal ADOffice As String, ByVal ADEmployeeID As String) As String Dim netBIOSname As String = Me.Request.LogonUserIdentity.Name Dim sAMAccountName As String = netBIOSname.Substring(netBIOSname.LastIndexOf("\"c) + 1) Dim defaultNamingContext As String Using rootDSE As DirectoryServices.DirectoryEntry = New DirectoryServices.DirectoryEntry("LDAP://RootDSE") defaultNamingContext = rootDSE.Properties("defaultNamingContext").Value.ToString() End Using Using searchRoot As DirectoryServices.DirectoryEntry = _ New DirectoryServices.DirectoryEntry("LDAP://" + defaultNamingContext, _ "kingkong", "kingkong", DirectoryServices.AuthenticationTypes.Secure) Using ds As DirectoryServices.DirectorySearcher = New DirectoryServices.DirectorySearcher(searchRoot) ds.Filter = String.Format("(&(objectClass=user)(objectCategory=person)(sAMAccountName={0}))", sAMAccountName) Dim sr As DirectoryServices.SearchResult = ds.FindOne() 'If sr.Properties("displayName").Count = 0 Then whatever = string.empty '' (how to check nulls when required) ' End If ADDN = (sr.Properties("displayName")(0).ToString()) ADCommonName = (sr.Properties("cn")(0).ToString()) ADGivenName = (sr.Properties("givenname")(0).ToString()) ADStaffNum = (sr.Properties("sn")(0).ToString()) ADEmail = (sr.Properties("mail")(0).ToString()) ADDescription = (sr.Properties("description")(0).ToString()) ADTelephone = (sr.Properties("telephonenumber")(0).ToString()) ADOffice = (sr.Properties("physicalDeliveryOfficeName")(0).ToString()) ' ADEmployeeID = (sr.Properties("employeeID")(0).ToString()) End Using End Using Return ADDN Return ADCommonName Return ADGivenName Return ADStaffNum Return ADEmail Return ADDescription Return ADTelephone Return ADOffice ' Return ADEmployeeID 'have commented out employee id as i dont have one so it is throwing null errors. ' im not ready to put labels on the frontend or catch this info yet End Function The function appears to work, as when I put a breakpoint at the end, the variables such as ADDN do have the correct values. Then I call the function in my page_load like this: GetAdInfo(ADDN, ADCommonName, ADGivenName, ADStaffnum, ADEmail, ADDescription, ADTelephone, ADOffice, ADEmployeeID) Then I try to response.write out one of the vars to test like this: Response.Write(ADDN) But the value is empty. Please can someone tell me what I am doing wrong. Thanks

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  • Binding Data to DataGridView in VB.Net

    - by Peter
    Hi, I have a bit of code which loads data from a stored procedure in MS SQL Server and then loads the data to a datagridview, which works fine. What i want is for the code that connects / loads the data to sit in my Database Class and then everything associated with the datagridview to be stored in my Form but i am having problems passing the contents of the bindingsource over to the Form from the Database Class. Form1 Public Class Form1 Dim myDatabaseObj As New Class1() Dim bindingSource1 As New BindingSource() Dim connectString As New SqlConnection Dim objDataAdapter As New SqlDataAdapter Dim table As New DataTable() Dim tabletest As New DataTable() Private Sub loadCompanyList() Try Me.dgv_CompanyList.DataSource = Me.bindingSource1 getCompanyList() Catch ex As NullReferenceException End Try End Sub Private Sub Form1_Load(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles MyBase.Load loadCompanyList() End Sub End Class Database Class When i try place the getCompanyList() in a class and then create a new object that references the Form() it does not seem to return any value from the table to the MyForm.BindingSource1.Datasource meaning my datagridview displays not data. ..... Private Sub getCompanyList() Try Dim myForm as new Form() connect_Transaction_Database() objDataAdapter.SelectCommand = New SqlCommand() objDataAdapter.SelectCommand.Connection = connectString objDataAdapter.SelectCommand.CommandText = "sp_GetCompanyList" objDataAdapter.SelectCommand.CommandType = CommandType.StoredProcedure Dim commandBuilder As New SqlCommandBuilder(Me.objDataAdapter) Dim table As New DataTable() table.Locale = System.Globalization.CultureInfo.InvariantCulture Me.objDataAdapter.Fill(table) **MyForm.bindingSource1.DataSource = table** Catch ex As DataException MsgBox(ex.Message) Catch ex As NullReferenceException MsgBox(ex.Message) End Try disconnect_Transaction_Database() End Sub If anyone could help. Thank you. Peter

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  • How to Convert using of SqlLit to Simple SQL command in C#

    - by Nasser Hajloo
    I want to get start with DayPilot control I do not use SQLLite and this control documented based on SQLLite. I want to use SQL instead of SQL Lite so if you can, please do this for me. main site with samples http://www.daypilot.org/calendar-tutorial.html The database contains a single table with the following structure CREATE TABLE event ( id VARCHAR(50), name VARCHAR(50), eventstart DATETIME, eventend DATETIME); Loading Events private DataTable dbGetEvents(DateTime start, int days) { SQLiteDataAdapter da = new SQLiteDataAdapter("SELECT [id], [name], [eventstart], [eventend] FROM [event] WHERE NOT (([eventend] <= @start) OR ([eventstart] >= @end))", ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["db"].ConnectionString); da.SelectCommand.Parameters.AddWithValue("start", start); da.SelectCommand.Parameters.AddWithValue("end", start.AddDays(days)); DataTable dt = new DataTable(); da.Fill(dt); return dt; } Update private void dbUpdateEvent(string id, DateTime start, DateTime end) { using (SQLiteConnection con = new SQLiteConnection(ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["db"].ConnectionString)) { con.Open(); SQLiteCommand cmd = new SQLiteCommand("UPDATE [event] SET [eventstart] = @start, [eventend] = @end WHERE [id] = @id", con); cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("id", id); cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("start", start); cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("end", end); cmd.ExecuteNonQuery(); } }

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  • mvvm - prismv2 - INotifyPropertyChanged

    - by depictureboy
    Since this is so long and prolapsed and really doesnt ask a coherent question: 1: what is the proper way to implement subproperties of a primary object in a viewmodel? 2: Has anyone found a way to fix the delegatecommand.RaiseCanExecuteChanged issue? or do I need to fix it myself until MS does? For the rest of the story...continue on. In my viewmodel i have a doctor object property that is tied to my Model.Doctor, which is an EF POCO object. I have onPropertyChanged("Doctor") in the setter as such: Private Property Doctor() As Model.Doctor Get Return _objDoctor End Get Set(ByVal Value As Model.Doctor) _objDoctor = Value OnPropertyChanged("Doctor") End Set End Property The only time OnPropertyChanged fires if the WHOLE object changes. This wouldnt be a problem except that I need to know when the properties of doctor changes, so that I can enable other controls on my form(save button for example). I have tried to implement it in this way: Public Property FirstName() As String Get Return _objDoctor.FirstName End Get Set(ByVal Value As String) _objDoctor.FirstName = Value OnPropertyChanged("Doctor") End Set End Property this is taken from the XAMLPowerToys controls from Karl Shifflet, so i have to assume that its correct. But for the life of me I cant get it to work. I have included PRISM in here because I am using a unity container to instantiate my view and it IS a singleton. I am getting change notification to the viewmodel via eventaggregator that then populates Doctor with the new value. The reason I am doing all this is because of PRISM's DelegateCommand. So maybe that is my real issue. It appears that there is a bug in DelegateCommand that does not fire the RaiseCanExecuteChanged method on the commands that implement it and therefore needs to be fired manually. I have the code for that in my onPropertyChangedEventHandler. Of course this isnt implemented through the ICommand interface either so I have to break and make my properties DelegateCommand(of X) so that I have access to RaiseCanExecuteChanged of each command.

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  • Passing html parameters to server odd problem

    - by StealthRT
    Hey all i am having a weird problem with sending data back to my server. This is the code i am using: NSString *theURL =[NSString stringWithFormat:@"http://www.xxx.com/confirm.asp?theID=%@&theName=%@&empID=%@&theComp=%@", theConfirmNum, tmpNBUserRow.userName, labelTxt.text, theID]; NSLog(@"%@,%@,%@,%@", theConfirmNum, tmpNBUserRow.userName, labelTxt.text, theID); NSMutableURLRequest *request = [[[NSMutableURLRequest alloc] init] autorelease]; [request setURL:[NSURL URLWithString:theURL]]; [request setHTTPMethod:@"POST"]; NSError *error; NSURLResponse *response; NSData *urlData=[NSURLConnection sendSynchronousRequest:request returningResponse:&response error:&error]; NSString *data=[[NSString alloc]initWithData:urlData encoding:NSUTF8StringEncoding]; if ([data isEqualToString:@"Done"]) I can run the code from the browser and it works just fine using the data i got from the NSLog output. The NSLog output for each value is correct. But for some reason when i put a break on the IF ([data isEqualToString:@"Done"]) it has no return value. I checked each value for what it was sending (and again, it was correct in the NSLog output) and i found that the value "theID" said "Out of scope". Although, again, the NSLog had the value in it correctly? So i searched the forum and found a simular problem. I took their advice and added "RETAIN" to the "theID" value like so: theID = [customObjInstance TID]; [theID retain]; However, that did not solve the issue... Here is the console NSLog output: [Session started at 2010-04-11 01:31:50 -0400.] wait_fences: failed to receive reply: 10004003 wait_fences: failed to receive reply: 10004003 nbTxt(5952,0xa0937500) malloc: *** error for object 0x3c0ebc0: double free *** set a breakpoint in malloc_error_break to debug 2010-04-11 01:32:12.270 nbTxt[5952:207] 5122,Rob S.,5122,NB010203 The NSLog values i am sending is the last line "5122,Rob S.,5122,NB010203" Any help would be great :o) David

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  • Reloading Sinatra app on every request on Windows

    - by Darth
    I've set up Rack::Reload according to this thread # config.ru require 'rubygems' require 'sinatra' set :environment, :development require 'app' run Sinatra::Application # app.rb class Sinatra::Reloader < Rack::Reloader def safe_load(file, mtime, stderr = $stderr) if file == Sinatra::Application.app_file ::Sinatra::Application.reset! stderr.puts "#{self.class}: reseting routes" end super end end configure(:development) { use Sinatra::Reloader } get '/' do 'foo' end Running with thin via thin start -R config.ru, but it only reloads newly added routes. When I change already existing route, it still runs the old code. When I add new route, it correctly reloads it, so it is accessible, but it doesn't reload anything else. For example, if I changed routes to get '/' do 'bar' end get '/foo' do 'baz' end Than / would still serve foo, even though it has changed, but /foo would correctly reload and serve baz. Is this normal behavior, or am I missing something? I'd expect whole source file to be reloaded. The only way around I can think of right now is restarting whole webserver when filesystem changes. I'm running on Windows Vista x64, so I can't use shotgun because of fork().

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  • Test Ruby-on-Rails controller with RSpec and different route name

    - by jhwist
    I have a Rails model named Xpmodule with a corresponding controller XpmoduleController. class XpmoduleController < ApplicationController def index @xpmodule = Xpmodule.find(params[:module_id]) end def subscribe flash[:notice] = "You are now subscribed to #{params[:subscription][:title]}" redirect_to :action => :index end end The original intent was to name the model Module which for obvious reasons doesn't work. However I still want to have the URLs look like /module/4711/ therefore I added this to my routes.rb: map.connect '/module/:module_id', :controller => 'xpmodule', :action => 'index' map.connect '/module/:module_id/subscribe', :controller => 'xpmodule', :action => 'subscribe' Now I want to test this controller with Rspec: describe XpmoduleController do fixtures :xpmodules context "index" do it "should assign the current xpmodule" do xpm = mock_model(Xpmodule) Xpmodule.should_receive(:find).and_return(xpm) get "index" assigns[:xpmodule].should be_an_instance_of(Xpmodule) end end end for which I get No route matches {:action=>"index", :controller=>"xpmodule"}. Which of course is sort-of right, but I don't want to add this route just for testing purposes. Is there a way to tell Rspec to call a different URL in get?

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  • How to fix RapidXML String ownership concerns?

    - by Roddy
    RapidXML is a fast, lightweight C++ XML DOM Parser, but it has some quirks. The worst of these to my mind is this: 3.2 Ownership Of Strings. Nodes and attributes produced by RapidXml do not own their name and value strings. They merely hold the pointers to them. This means you have to be careful when setting these values manually, by using xml_base::name(const Ch *) or xml_base::value(const Ch *) functions. Care must be taken to ensure that lifetime of the string passed is at least as long as lifetime of the node/attribute. The easiest way to achieve it is to allocate the string from memory_pool owned by the document. Use memory_pool::allocate_string() function for this purpose. Now, I understand it's done this way for speed, but this feels like an car crash waiting to happen. The following code looks innocuous but 'name' and 'value' are out of scope when foo returns, so the doc is undefined. void foo() { char name[]="Name"; char value[]="Value"; doc.append_node(doc.allocate_node(node_element, name, value)); } The suggestion of using allocate_string() as per manual works, but it's so easy to forget. Has anyone 'enhanced' RapidXML to avoid this issue?

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  • nested attributes with polymorphic has_one model

    - by Millisami
    I am using accepts_nested_attributes_for with the has_one polymorphic model in rails 2.3.5 Following are the models and its associations: class Address < ActiveRecord::Base attr_accessible :city, :address1, :address2 belongs_to :addressable, :polymorphic => true validates_presence_of :address1, :address2, :city end class Vendor < ActiveRecord::Base attr_accessible :name, :address_attributes has_one :address, :as => :addressable, :dependent => :destroy accepts_nested_attributes_for :address end This is the view: - form_for @vendor do |f| = f.error_messages %p = f.label :name %br = f.text_field :name - f.fields_for :address_attributes do |address| = render "shared/address_fields", :f => address %p = f.submit "Create" This is the partial shared/address_fields.html.haml %p = f.label :city %br= f.text_field :city %span City/Town name like Dharan, Butwal, Kathmandu, .. %p = f.label :address1 %br= f.text_field :address1 %span City Street name like Lazimpat, New Road, .. %p = f.label :address2 %br= f.text_field :address2 %span Tole, Marg, Chowk name like Pokhrel Tole, Shanti Marg, Pako, .. And this is the controller: class VendorsController < ApplicationController def new @vendor = Vendor.new end def create @vendor = Vendor.new(params[:vendor]) if @vendor.save flash[:notice] = "Vendor created successfully!" redirect_to @vendor else render :action => 'new' end end end The problem is when I fill in all the fileds, the record gets save on both tables as expected. But when I just the name and city or address1 filed, the validation works, error message shown, but the value I put in the city or address1, is not persisted or not displayed inside the address form fields? This is the same case with edit action too. Though the record is saved, the address doesn't show up on the edit form. Only the name of the Client model is shown. Actually, when I look at the log, the address model SQL is not queried even at all.

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  • Why would a SQL query JOIN on the same table twice with the same condition?

    - by Scott Leis
    I'm working on changes to a SQL Server v8 database developed by someone else, and have found something that seems (based on my limited SQL knowledge) strange and pointless. One of the views has a query that does a LEFT OUTER JOIN twice on the same table with the same condition. Is there any reason for doing this? The query is below. See the second- and third-last lines that both join the "te_SDE_Survey" table on the "SDE_ID" field. Also note these lines set two different aliases for the table, and both aliases are used in the SELECT part of the query. SELECT vs.SLMS_Code, vs.Retail_Date, vs.TagNo, vs.Rego, vs.Model, vs.Company, vs.AccountType, viqdp.SDE_ID, bd.Debit_Date, isu.Survey_Date, CASE WHEN isu.Q6 IS NOT NULL THEN isu.Q6 ELSE CASE WHEN returned_surveys.survey_date IS NULL THEN CASE WHEN (viqdp.expiryDate < getdate() AND cs.sup1 IS NULL AND cs.sup2 IS NULL AND cs.sup3 IS NULL AND cs.sup5 IS NULL AND cs.sup8 IS NULL AND cs.sup9 IS NULL) THEN 'E' WHEN (viqdp.expiryDate < getdate() AND cs.sup1 = 'F' AND cs.sup2 = 'F' AND cs.sup3 = 'F' AND cs.sup5 = 'F' AND cs.sup8 = 'F' AND cs.sup9 = 'F') THEN 'E' WHEN cs.sup1 = 'T' THEN 'S' WHEN cs.sup2 = 'T' AND (cs.sup8 = 'F' AND cs.sup9 = 'F') THEN 'D' WHEN cs.sup3 = 'T' AND (cs.sup8 = 'F' AND cs.sup9 = 'F') THEN 'D' WHEN cs.sup5 = 'T' AND (cs.sup8 = 'F' AND cs.sup9 = 'F') THEN 'D' WHEN cs.sup8 = 'T' AND (cs.sup2 = 'F' AND cs.sup3 = 'F' AND cs.sup5 = 'F') THEN 'E' WHEN cs.sup9 = 'T' AND (cs.sup2 = 'F' AND cs.sup3 = 'F' AND cs.sup5 = 'F') THEN 'E' WHEN (cs.sup8 = 'T' OR cs.sup9 = 'T') AND (cs.sup2 = 'T' OR cs.sup3 = 'T' OR cs.sup5 = 'T') THEN 'S' END WHEN (tey.survey_expire_method = 'pre2008') THEN CASE WHEN (datediff(month, viqdp.generate_date, returned_surveys.survey_date) 1) THEN 'E' END WHEN (tey.survey_expire_method = 'expiryDateColumn') THEN CASE WHEN (returned_surveys.survey_date viqdp.expiryDate) THEN 'E' END END END AS score_or_exclusion_status, CASE WHEN (bd.explanation IS NULL) THEN '' ELSE bd.explanation END AS explanation, tey.te_Year FROM dbo.te_Vehicle_Sale vs INNER JOIN dbo.te_Year tey ON vs.Retail_Date = tey.Start_Date AND vs.Retail_Date <= tey.End_Date LEFT OUTER JOIN dbo.Bad_Data bd ON vs.TagNo = bd.TagNo LEFT OUTER JOIN dbo.te_Vehicle_SDESurvey viqdp ON vs.TagNo = viqdp.TagNo LEFT OUTER JOIN dbo.te_SDE_Survey isu ON viqdp.SDE_ID = isu.SDE_ID LEFT OUTER JOIN dbo.te_SDE_Survey returned_surveys ON viqdp.SDE_ID = returned_surveys.SDE_ID LEFT OUTER JOIN dbo.te_SDE_Contact_Suppression cs ON viqdp.SDE_ID = cs.SDE_ID

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  • Dynamic programming in VB

    - by Rahul Jain
    Hello Everybody, We develop applications for SAP using their SDK. SAP provides a SDK for changing and handling events occuring in the user interface. For example, with this SDK we can catch a click on a button and do something on the click. This programming can be done either VB or C#. This can also be used to create new fields on the pre-existing form. We have developed a specific application which allows users to store the definition required for new field in a database table and the fields are created at the run time. So far, this is good. What we require now is that the user should be able to store the validation code for the field in the database and the same should be executed on the run time. Following is an example of such an event: Private Sub SBO_Application_ItemEvent(ByVal FormUID As String, ByRef pVal As SAPbouiCOM.ItemEvent, ByRef BubbleEvent As Boolean) Handles SBO_Application.ItemEvent Dim oForm As SAPbouiCOM.Form If pVal.FormTypeEx = "ACC_QPLAN" Then If pVal.EventType = SAPbouiCOM.BoEventTypes.et_LOST_FOCUS And pVal.BeforeAction = False Then oProdRec.ItemPressEvent(pVal) End If End If End Sub Public Sub ItemPressEvent(ByRef pVal As SAPbouiCOM.ItemEvent) Dim oForm As SAPbouiCOM.Form oForm = oSuyash.SBO_Application.Forms.GetForm(pVal.FormTypeEx, pVal.FormTypeCount) If pVal.EventType = SAPbouiCOM.BoEventTypes.et_LOST_FOCUS And pVal.BeforeAction = False Then If pVal.ItemUID = "AC_TXT5" Then Dim CardCode, ItemCode As String ItemCode = oForm.Items.Item("AC_TXT2").Specific.Value CardCode = oForm.Items.Item("AC_TXT0").Specific.Value UpdateQty(oForm, CardCode, ItemCode) End If End If End Sub So, what we need in this case is to store the code given in the ItemPressEvent in a database, and execute this in runtime. I know this is not straight forward thing. But I presume there must be some ways of getting these kind of things done. The SDK is made up of COM components. Thanks & Regards, Rahul Jain

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  • log4net creates log file but does not write to it (windows service in C#)

    - by user1825172
    I am trying to use basic logging for a windows service. I added the reference to log4net I added the following in AssemblyInfo.cs: [assembly: log4net.Config.XmlConfigurator(Watch = true)] I added the following to my App.config: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <configuration> <configSections> <section name="log4net" type="log4net.Config.Log4NetConfigurationSectionHandler,log4net, Version=1.2.10.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=1b44e1d426115821" requirePermission="false" /> </configSections> <!-- Log4net Logging Setup --> <log4net> <appender name="RollingFileAppender" type="log4net.Appender.RollingFileAppender,log4net"> <file value="c:\\CGSD\\log\\logfile.txt" /> <appendToFile value="true" /> <lockingModel type="log4net.Appender.FileAppender+MinimalLock" /> <layout type="log4net.Layout.PatternLayout"> <conversionPattern value="%date [%thread] %level %logger - %message%newline" /> </layout> <filter type="log4net.Filter.LevelRangeFilter"> <levelMin value="INFO" /> <levelMax value="FATAL" /> </filter> </appender> <root> <level value="ALL"/> <appender-ref ref="RollingFileAppender"/> </root> </log4net> </configuration> I have the following code in my service: log4net.Config.XmlConfigurator.Configure(); log4net.ILog log = log4net.LogManager.GetLogger(typeof(Program)); log.Debug("test"); the file c:\CGSD\log\logfile.txt is created but nothing is ever written to it. i've been thru the forums all day trying to trac this one down, but if i overlooked an already posted solution i apologize. thx!

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  • Add autoFill capabilities to jQuery-UI 1.8.1

    - by rockinthesixstring
    here's what I currently have, unfortunately I cannot seem to figure out how to get autoFill to work with jQuery-UI... It used to work with the straight up Autocomplete.js <script src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.4.2/jquery.min.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jqueryui/1.8.1/jquery-ui.min.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="http://jquery-ui.googlecode.com/svn/tags/latest/external/jquery.bgiframe-2.1.1.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jqueryui/1.8.1/i18n/jquery-ui-i18n.min.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script language="javascript" type="text/javascript"> var thesource = "RegionsAutoComplete.axd?PID=3" $(function () { function log(message) { $("<div/>").text(message).prependTo("#log"); $("#log").attr("scrollTop", 0); } $.expr[':'].textEquals = function (a, i, m) { return $(a).text().match("^" + m[3] + "$"); }; $("#birds").autocomplete({ source: thesource, change: function (event, ui) { //if the value of the textbox does not match a suggestion, clear its value if ($(".ui-autocomplete li:textEquals('" + $(this).val() + "')").size() == 0) { $(this).val(''); } else { log(ui.item ? ("Selected: " + ui.item.value + " aka " + ui.item.id) : "Nothing selected, input was " + this.value); } } }).live('keydown', function (e) { var keyCode = e.keyCode || e.which; //if TAB or RETURN is pressed and the text in the textbox does not match a suggestion, set the value of the textbox to the text of the first suggestion if ((keyCode == 9 || keyCode == 13) && ($(".ui-autocomplete li:textEquals('" + $(this).val() + "')").size() == 0)) { $(this).val($(".ui-autocomplete li:visible:first").text()); } }); }); </script> I've used the answer here to get the mustMatch working, but unfortunately if I "tab" away from the input box, I get the "Nothing selected" response instead of an Value and ID. Does anyone know how to extract the ID out of the autocomplete when you don't actually select the field?

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  • In C# should I reuse a function / property parameter to compute temp result or create a temporary v

    - by Hamish Grubijan
    The example below may not be problematic as is, but it should be enough to illustrate a point. Imagine that there is a lot more work than trimming going on. public string Thingy { set { // I guess we can throw a null reference exception here on null. value = value.Trim(); // Well, imagine that there is so much processing to do this.thingy = value; // That this.thingy = value.Trim() would not fit on one line ... So, if the assignment has to take two lines, then I either have to abusereuse the parameter, or create a temporary variable. I am not a big fan of temporary variables. On the other hand, I am not a fan of convoluted code. I did not include an example where a function is involved, but I am sure you can imagine it. One concern I have is if a function accepted a string and the parameter was "abused", and then someone changed the signature to ref in both places - this ought to mess things up, but ... who would knowingly make such a change if it already worked without a ref? Seems like it is their responsibility in this case. If I mess with the value of value, am I doing something non-trivial under the hood? If you think that both approaches are acceptable, then which do you prefer and why? Thanks.

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  • C# unit test code questions continue

    - by 5YrsLaterDBA
    more questions after questions in here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2714073/c-unit-test-code-questions I found the VS unit test testframe treat private and protected method in the same way but deferent with public method. The following is the generated code for a private method: /// <summary> ///A test for recordLogin ///</summary> [TestMethod()] [DeploymentItem("SystemSoftware.exe")] public void recordLoginTest() { User_Accessor target = new User_Accessor(); // TODO: Initialize to an appropriate value Guid userId = new Guid(); // TODO: Initialize to an appropriate value string action = string.Empty; // TODO: Initialize to an appropriate value Users user = null; // TODO: Initialize to an appropriate value AndeDBEntities db = null; // TODO: Initialize to an appropriate value bool expected = false; // TODO: Initialize to an appropriate value bool actual; actual = target.recordLogin(userId, action, user, db); Assert.AreEqual(expected, actual); Assert.Inconclusive("Verify the correctness of this test method."); } questions: [DeploymentItem("SystemSoftware.exe")] is for private and protected methods, why needs it and what is it for? In my original class/file, if I point to the original method and try to "Find All References". The reference in the unit test class/file will not show up for private and protected methods but it will show up for all public methods. Why is that? Is it right? 3.

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  • Read Parent nodes only from XML using LINQToXML

    - by ItsMeSri
    I have XML string that has parent nodes "Committee" and inside that another child node "Committee" is there. When I am using "from committee in xDocument.DescendantsAndSelf("Committee")" it is reading childnode also, but I don't want to read child nodes, I just want to read Parent nodes only. <Committee> <Position>STAFF</Position> <Appointment>1/16/2006</Appointment> <Committee>PPMSSTAFF</Committee> <CommitteeName>PPMS Staff</CommitteeName> <Expiration>12/25/2099</Expiration> </Committee> <Committee> <Position>STAFF</Position> <Appointment>4/16/2004</Appointment> <Committee>PMOSSTAFF</Committee> <CommitteeName>PPMS </CommitteeName> <Expiration>12/25/2099</Expiration> </Committee> XElement xDocument= XElement.Parse(xml); var committeeXmls = from Committee in xDocument.Descendants("Committee") select new { CommitteeName = Committee.Element("CommitteeName"), Position = Committee.Element("Position"), Appointment = Committee.Element("Appointment"), Expiration = Committee.Element("Expiration") }; int i = 0; foreach (var committeeXml in committeeXmls) { if (committeeXml != null) { drCommittee = dtCommittee.NewRow(); drCommittee["ID"] = ++i; drCommittee["CommitteeName"] = committeeXml.CommitteeName.Value; drCommittee["Position"] = committeeXml.Position.Value; drCommittee["Appointment"] = committeeXml.Appointment.Value; drCommittee["Expiration"] = committeeXml.Expiration.Value; dtCommittee.Rows.Add(drCommittee); // educationXml.GraduationDate.Value, educationXml.Major.Value); } }

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  • Performance problem with System.Net.Mail

    - by Saif Khan
    I have this unusual problem with mailing from my app. At first it wasn't working (getting unable to relay error crap) anyways I added the proper authentication and it works. My problem now is, if I try to send around 300 emails (each with a 500k attachment) the app starts hanging around 95% thru the process. Here is some of my code which is called for each mail to be sent Using mail As New MailMessage() With mail .From = New MailAddress(My.Resources.EmailFrom) For Each contact As Contact In Contacts .To.Add(contact.Email) Next .Subject = "Accounting" .Body = My.Resources.EmailBody 'Back the stream up to the beginning orelse the attachment 'will be sent as a zero (0) byte file. attachment.Seek(0, SeekOrigin.Begin) .Attachments.Add(New Attachment(attachment, String.Concat(Item.Year, Item.AttachmentType.Extension))) End With Dim smtp As New SmtpClient("192.168.1.2") With smtp .DeliveryMethod = SmtpDeliveryMethod.Network .UseDefaultCredentials = False .Credentials = New NetworkCredential("username", "password") .Send(mail) End With End Using With item .SentStatus = True .DateSent = DateTime.Now.Date .Save() End With Return I was thinking, can I just prepare all the mails and add them to a collection then open one SMTP conenction and just iterate the collection, calling the send like this Using mail As New MailMessage() ... MailCollection.Add(mail) End Using ... Dim smtp As New SmtpClient("192.168.1.2") With smtp .DeliveryMethod = SmtpDeliveryMethod.Network .UseDefaultCredentials = False .Credentials = New NetworkCredential("username", "password") For Each mail in MainCollection .Send(mail) Next End With

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  • JavaScript To Clear Form Field On Submit Before Form Submission To Perl Script

    - by Russell C.
    We have a very long form that has a number of fields and 2 different submit buttons. When a user clicks the 1st submit button ("Photo Search") the form should POST and our script will do a search for matching photos based on what the user entered in the text input ("photo_search_text") next to the 1st submit button and reload the entire form with matching photos added to the form. Upon clicking the 2nd submit button ("Save Changes") at the end of the form, it should POST and our script should update the database with the information the user entered in the form. Unfortunately the layout of the form makes it impossible to separate it into 2 separate forms. I checked the entire form POST and unfortunately the submitted fields are identical to the perl script processing the form submission no matter which submit button is clicked so the perl script can't differentiate which action to perform based on which submit button is pushed. The only thing I can think of is to update the onclick action of the 2nd submit button so it clears the "photo_search_text" field before the form is submitted and then only perform a photo search if that fields has a value. Based on all this, my question is what does the JavaScript look that could clear out the "photo_search_text" field when someone clicks on the 2nd submit button? Here is what I've tried so far none of which has worked successfully: <input type="submit" name="submit" onclick="document.update-form.photo_search_text.value='';" value="Save Changes"> <input type="submit" name="submit" onsubmit="document.update-form.photo_search_text.value='';" value="Save Changes"> <input type="submit" name="submit" onclick="document.getElementById('photo_search_text')='';" value="Save Changes"> We also use JQuery on the site so if there is a way to do this with jQuery instead of plain JavaScript feel free to provide example code for that instead. Lastly, if there is another way to handle this that I'm not thinking of any and all suggestions would be welcome. Thanks in advance for your help!

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  • batch_add_field_VBA

    - by Elaine Kuo
    I am unsure where goes wrong. Please kindly help and thanks. Public Sub AddField() Dim pApp As esriCatalogUI.IGxApplication Set pApp = esriArcCatalog.Application Dim pGxSelection As esriCatalog.IGxSelection Set pGxSelection = pApp.Selection Dim plist As esriCatalog.IEnumGxObject Set plist = pGxSelection.SelectedObjects Dim pGxObject As esriCatalog.IGxObject Dim pName As esriSystem.IName Dim pDS As esriGeoDatabase.IDataset Dim pGDSE As esriGeoDatabase.IGeoDatasetSchemaEdit Dim pStatusBar As esriSystem.IStatusBar Set pStatusBar = esriArcCatalog.Application.StatusBar Dim pFeatLyr As esriCarto.IFeatureLayer Dim pFeatureClass As esriGeoDatabase.IFeatureClass Dim pFeatureDataset As esriGeoDatabase.IFeatureDataset Dim pFieldEdit As esriGeoDatabase.IFieldEdit Set pGxObject = plist.Next Set pFeatureClass = pGxObject If pFeatureClass.Type = esriDTFeatureClass Then Set pFeatLyr = New FeatureLayer Set pFeatLyr.FeatureClass = pFeatureDataset.Dataset pFeatLyr.name = pGXDataset.Dataset.name End If 'Checks to make sure you have something selected If pGxObject Is Nothing Then MsgBox "You need to select the files", vbOKOnly, "Error" Exit Sub End If 'Runs a function to add field Dim pField1 As esriGeoDatabase.IFieldEdit ' Define the first new field. Set pField1 = New Field pField1.Name = "GID1" pField1.Type = esriFieldTypeInteger pField1.Length = 10 pFeatureClass.AddField pField1 'Loops through all selected files and preforms Do Until pGxObject Is Nothing If TypeOf pGxObject Is esriCatalog.IGxDataset Then Set pName = pGxObject.InternalObjectName Set pDS = pName.Open Set pGDSE = pDS With pGDSE If .CanAlterSpatialReference Then .AlterSpatialReference pFieldEdit End If End With End If pStatusBar.Message(0) = "Done: " & pGxObject.Name Set pGxObject = plist.Next Loop CleanUp: Set pFieldEdit = Nothing Set pGDSE = Nothing pStatusBar.Message(0) = "Done" End Sub

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  • Get Mechanize to handle cookies from an arbitrary POST (to log into a website programmatically)

    - by Horace Loeb
    I want to log into https://www.t-mobile.com/ programmatically. My first idea was to use Mechanize to submit the login form: However, it turns out that this isn't even a real form. Instead, when you click "Log in" some javascript grabs the values of the fields, creates a new form dynamically, and submits it. "Log in" button HTML: <button onclick="handleLogin(); return false;" class="btnBlue" id="myTMobile-login"><span>Log in</span></button> The handleLogin() function: function handleLogin() { if (ValidateMsisdnPassword()) { // client-side form validation logic var a = document.createElement("FORM"); a.name = "form1"; a.method = "POST"; a.action = mytmoUrl; // defined elsewhere as https://my.t-mobile.com/Login/LoginController.aspx var c = document.createElement("INPUT"); c.type = "HIDDEN"; c.value = document.getElementById("myTMobile-phone").value; // the value of the phone number input field c.name = "txtMSISDN"; a.appendChild(c); var b = document.createElement("INPUT"); b.type = "HIDDEN"; b.value = document.getElementById("myTMobile-password").value; // the value of the password input field b.name = "txtPassword"; a.appendChild(b); document.body.appendChild(a); a.submit(); return true } else { return false } } I could simulate this form submission by POSTing the form data to https://my.t-mobile.com/Login/LoginController.aspx with Net::HTTP#post_form, but I don't know how to get the resultant cookie into Mechanize so I can continue to scrape the UI available when I'm logged in. Any ideas?

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  • Problem with oracle stored procedure - parameters

    - by Nicole
    I have this stored procedure: CREATE OR REPLACE PROCEDURE "LIQUIDACION_OBTENER" ( p_Cuenta IN NUMBER, p_Fecha IN DATE, p_Detalle OUT LIQUIDACION.FILADETALLE%TYPE ) IS BEGIN SELECT FILADETALLE INTO p_Detalle FROM Liquidacion WHERE (FILACUENTA = p_Cuenta) AND (FILAFECHA = p_Fecha); END; / ...and my c# code: string liquidacion = string.Empty; OracleCommand command = new OracleCommand("Liquidacion_Obtener"); command.BindByName = true; command.Parameters.Add(new OracleParameter("p_Cuenta", OracleDbType.Int64)); command.Parameters["p_Cuenta"].Value = cuenta; command.Parameters.Add(new OracleParameter("p_Fecha", OracleDbType.Date)); command.Parameters["p_Fecha"].Value = fecha; command.Parameters.Add("p_Detalle", OracleDbType.Varchar2, ParameterDirection.Output); OracleConnectionHolder connection = null; connection = this.GetConnection(); command.Connection = connection.Connection; command.CommandTimeout = 30; command.CommandType = CommandType.StoredProcedure; OracleDataReader lector = command.ExecuteReader(); while (lector.Read()) { liquidacion += ((OracleString)command.Parameters["p_Detalle"].Value).Value; } the thing is that when I try to put a value into the parameter "Fecha" (that is a date) the code gives me this error (when the line command.ExecuteReader(); is executed) Oracle.DataAccess.Client.OracleException : ORA-06502: PL/SQL: numeric or value error ORA-06512: at "SYSTEM.LIQUIDACION_OBTENER", line 9 ORA-06512: at line 1 I tried with the datetime and was not the problem, I eve tried with no input parameters and just the output and still got the same error. Aparently the problem is with the output parameter. I already tried putting p_Detalle OUT VARCHAR2 instead of p_Detalle OUT LIQUIDACION.FILADETALLE%TYPE but it didn't work either I hope my post is understandable.. thanks!!!!!!!!!!

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  • issue in property file

    - by devuser
    I want to load the property file when tomcat is starting.so I'm using servletContextListener to do that and i can get values of property file to my web application. But i want to keep the same value after changing the property file once log into web application.But when i change the value of property file and log into system again it change the value to new one.I want to keep the same value that loaded when tomcat was starting.how can i implement this? My coding is as below import javax.servlet.*; import java.io.IOException; import java.util.Properties; import java.util.logging.Level; import java.util.logging.Logger; import java.io.*; import java.util.ResourceBundle; public final class sysProperties implements javax.servlet.ServletContextListener { private static Properties props = new Properties(); private static String file_name = "com/util/contact.properties"; public addSystemProperties() { } public void contextInitialized(ServletContextEvent servletContextEvent) { // Get the context ServletContext servletContext = servletContextEvent.getServletContext(); // Set a context attribute try { // props.load(servletContext.getResourceAsStream(file_name)); props.load(getClass().getClassLoader().getResourceAsStream(file_name)); System.out.println(" Application X is starting"); servletContext.setAttribute("h1",props.getProperty("home.h1")); servletContext.setAttribute("h2",props.getProperty("home.h2")); System.out.println("h1"+servletContext.getAttribute("h1")); System.out.println("h2"+ servletContext.getAttribute("h2")); ; } catch (Exception e) { System.out.println(" Error setting context attribute: " + e.getMessage()); } } public void contextDestroyed(ServletContextEvent servletContextEvent) { // Get the context ServletContext servletContext = servletContextEvent.getServletContext(); // Output the context variable we set earlier System.out.println(" Application X is shutting down"); System.out.println(" Value of h1 is: " + servletContext.getAttribute("h1")); System.out.println(" Value of h2 is: " + servletContext.getAttribute("h2")); // Clean up (not really necessary as the context is being destroyed, but let's be neat) servletContext.removeAttribute(props.getProperty("h1")); servletContext.removeAttribute(props.getProperty("h2")); } }

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  • validation properties by attribute

    - by netmajor
    I create class with two property - name,link(below). I use simple property validation by Required and StringLength attribute. I bind this class object to WPF ListBox(with textBoxs). But when I have textbox empty or write words longer than 8 sign nothing happens :/ What should I do to fires ErrorMessage? Or how to implement validation in other way ? I also try use : if (value is int) { throw new ArgumentException("Wpisales stringa!!"); } But it only fires in debug mode :/ My class with implementation of attribute validation: public class RssInfo : INotifyPropertyChanged { public RssInfo() { } public RssInfo(string _nazwa, string _link) { nazwa = _nazwa; link = _link; } private string nazwa; [Required(ErrorMessage = "To pole jest obowiazkowe nAZWA")] public string Nazwa { get { return nazwa; } set { if (value != nazwa) { nazwa = value; onPropertyChanged("Nazwa"); } if (value is int) { throw new ArgumentException("Wpisales stringa!!"); } } } private string link; [Required(ErrorMessage="To pole jest obowiazkowe link")] [StringLength(8, ErrorMessage = "Link cannot be longer than 8 characters")] public string Link { get { return link; } set { if (value != link) { link = value; onPropertyChanged("Link"); } } } #region INotifyPropertyChanged Members public event PropertyChangedEventHandler PropertyChanged; #endregion private void onPropertyChanged(string propertyName) { if (this.PropertyChanged != null) { PropertyChanged(this, new PropertyChangedEventArgs(propertyName)); } } }

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  • Linq to XML: create an anonymous object with element attributes and values

    - by Phil Scholtes
    I'm new to Linq and I'm trying to query a XML document to find a list of account managers for a particular user. (I realize it might make more sense to put this in a database or something else, but this scenario calls for a XML document). <user emailAddress='[email protected]'> <accountManager department='Customer Service' title='Manager'>[email protected]</accountManager> <accountManager department='Sales' title='Account Manager'>[email protected]</accountManager> <accountManager department='Sales' title='Account Manager'>[email protected]</accountManager> </user> I trying to create a list of objects (anonymous type?) with properties consisting of both XElement attributes (department, title) and values (email). I know that I can get either of the two, but my problem is selecting both. Here is what I'm trying: var managers = _xDoc.Root.Descendants("user") .Where(d => d.Attribute("emailAddress").Value == "[email protected]") .SelectMany(u => u.Descendants("accountManager").Select(a => a.Value)); foreach (var manager in managers) { //do stuff } I can get at a.Value and a.Attribute but I can't figure out how to get both and store them in an object. I have a feeling it would wind up looking something like: select new { department = u.Attribute("department").Value, title = u.Attribute("title").Value, email = u.Value };

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  • Is possible to reuse subqueries?

    - by Gothmog
    Hello, I'm having some problems trying to perform a query. I have two tables, one with elements information, and another one with records related with the elements of the first table. The idea is to get in the same row the element information plus several records information. Structure could be explain like this: table [ id, name ] [1, '1'], [2, '2'] table2 [ id, type, value ] [1, 1, '2009-12-02'] [1, 2, '2010-01-03'] [1, 4, '2010-01-03'] [2, 1, '2010-01-02'] [2, 2, '2010-01-02'] [2, 2, '2010-01-03'] [2, 3, '2010-01-07'] [2, 4, '2010-01-07'] And this is want I would like to achieve: result [id, name, Column1, Column2, Column3, Column4] [1, '1', '2009-12-02', '2010-01-03', , '2010-01-03'] [2, '2', '2010-01-02', '2010-01-02', '2010-01-07', '2010-01-07'] The following query gets the proper result, but it seems to me extremely inefficient, having to iterate table2 for each column. Would be possible in anyway to do a subquery and reuse it? SELECT a.id, a.name, (select min(value) from table2 t where t.id = subquery.id and t.type = 1 group by t.type) as Column1, (select min(value) from table2 t where t.id = subquery.id and t.type = 2 group by t.type) as Column2, (select min(value) from table2 t where t.id = subquery.id and t.type = 3 group by t.type) as Column3, (select min(value) from table2 t where t.id = subquery.id and t.type = 4 group by t.type) as Column4 FROM (SELECT distinct id FROM table2 t WHERE (t.type in (1, 2, 3, 4)) AND t.value between '2010-01-01' and '2010-01-07') as subquery LEFT JOIN table a ON a.id = subquery.id

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