Search Results

Search found 10494 results on 420 pages for 'beyond the documentation'.

Page 355/420 | < Previous Page | 351 352 353 354 355 356 357 358 359 360 361 362  | Next Page >

• How do I run a universal app on the iPhone 3.1.3 simulator?

  - by bpapa

  I'm working on a new app that I want to be universal for the iPhone and iPad. I started out with the "Create a Window-based app" wizard, and it created separate app delegates in "iPhone" and "iPad" groups. Since I already was quite familiar with iPhone dev, I did that part of my project, and now I'm ready to do some iPad stuff. So... I started out by adding a UISplitViewController to my iPad delegate, switch the Active SDK to 3.2, and it works! But when I switch back to 3.1.3, and try to run it in the simulator, Build and Go fails. For starters, I see: ...path.../iPad/AppDelegate_Pad.h:13: error: expected specifier-qualifier-list before 'UISplitViewController' I've got my Base SDK set to 3.2 and my Deployment Target set to 3.1.3. I thought that was enough. But I also have found in the documentation this method to conditionally compile: #if __IPHONE_OS_VERSION_MAX_ALLOWED >= 30200 MyIPadViewController* vc; // Create the iPad view controller #else MyIPhoneViewController* vc; // Create the iPhone view controller #endif So do I need to do this everywhere? It seems like an awful lot of code to add (that I'll be getting rid of in a short time for 4.0 anyway) so I feel like I must be doing something wrong. And, I don't even have any idea how this works for things like @property or @synthesize declarations. tl;dr version of the question - did I miss a setting somewhere?

  Read the article

• Static Libraries on iPhone device

  - by Akusete

  I have two projects, a Cocoa iPhone application and a static library which it uses. I've tested it successfully on the iPhone simulator, but when I try to deploy it to my iPhone device I get (symbol not found) link errors. If I remove the dependancy of the library the project builds/runs fine. I have made sure all the build settings are set to iPhoneOS not the simulator. Im sure its something simple, but has anyone run into similar problems moving from iPhone simulator to device? --EDIT: I have managed to create new projects (one for the application and one for the static library), and successfully get them to run on the iPhone or simulator. But I have a very strange problem... for each specific project I cannot get it working for BOTH the device and the simulator... I have double checked the build settings, made sure the libraries that are being references are for the matching build settings (I believe) but I cannot resolve these linking errors. I think I must be doing something very wrong... all the apple documentation says 'its super simple - one click' but this is giving me a lot of problems. This is probably something to do with xCode build settings, but I cannot seem to understand why selecting the different build platforms and rebuilding the libraries does not work.

  Read the article

• Facebook new js api and cross-domain file

  - by vondip

  Hi all, I am building a simple facebook iframe application. I've decided since the code is separate from facebook none the less, I will also create a connect website as well. In my connect website I'm trying to figure out the following: I am using facebook's new api and I am calling the init function. I can't seem to figure out where I combine my cross-domain file. There's no mention of it in their documentation either. http://developers.facebook.com/docs/reference/javascript/FB.init I am referring to these lines of code: <div id="fb-root"></div> <script> window.fbAsyncInit = function() { FB.init({appId: 'your app id', status: true, cookie: true, xfbml: true}); }; (function() { var e = document.createElement('script'); e.async = true; e.src = document.location.protocol + '//connect.facebook.net/en_US/all.js'; document.getElementById('fb-root').appendChild(e); }()); </script>

  Read the article

• Are finalizers ever allowed to call other managed classes' methods?

  - by romkyns

  I used to be pretty sure the answer is "no", as explained in Overriding the Finalize method and Object.Finalize documentation. However, while randomly browsing through FileStream in Reflector, I found that it can actually call just such a method from a finalizer: private SafeFileHandle _handle; ~FileStream() { if (this._handle != null) { this.Dispose(false); } } protected override void Dispose(bool disposing) { try { ... } finally { if ((this._handle != null) && !this._handle.IsClosed) // <=== HERE { this._handle.Dispose(); // <=== AND HERE } [...] } } I started wondering whether this will always work due to the exact way in which it's written, and hence whether the "do not touch managed classes from finalizers" is just a guideline that can be broken given a good reason and the necessary knowledge to do it right. I dug a bit deeper and found out that the worst that can happen when the "rule" is broken is that the managed object being accessed had already been finalized, or may be getting finalized in parallel on a separate thread. So if the SafeFileHandle's finalizer didn't do anything that would cause a subsequent call to Dispose fail then the above should be fine... right? Question: so there might after all be situations in which a method on another managed class may be called reliably from a finalizer? I've always believed this to be false, but this code suggests that it's possible and that there can be good enough reasons to do it. Bonus: Observe that the SafeFileHandle will not even know it's being called from a finalizer, since this is just a normal call to Dispose(). The base class, SafeHandle, actually has two private methods, InternalDispose and InternalFinalize, and in this case InternalDispose will be called. Isn't this a problem? Why not?...

  Read the article

• Switch/case without break inside DllMain

  - by Sherwood Hu

  I have a Dllmain that allocates Thread local storage when a thread attaches to this DLL. Code as below: BOOL APIENTRY DllMain(HMODULE hModule, DWORD ul_reason_for_call, LPVOID lpReserved) { LPVOID lpvData; BOOL fIgnore; switch (ul_reason_for_call) { case DLL_PROCESS_ATTACH: onProcessAttachDLL(); // Allocate a TLS index. if ((dwTlsIndex = TlsAlloc()) == TLS_OUT_OF_INDEXES) return FALSE; // how can it jump to next case??? case DLL_THREAD_ATTACH: // Initialize the TLS index for this thread. lpvData = (LPVOID) LocalAlloc(LPTR, MAX_BUFFER_SIZE); if (lpvData != NULL) fIgnore = TlsSetValue(dwTlsIndex, lpvData); break; ... } I know that for the main thread, the DLL_THREAD_ATTACH is not entered, as per Microsoft Documentation. However, the above code worked. I am using VC2005. When I entered the debugger, I saw that after it entered DLL_THREAD_ATTACH case when ul_reason_for_call = 1! How can that happen? If I add `break' at the end of DLL_PROCESS_ATTACH block, the DLL failed to work. How can this happen?

  Read the article

• Is there a way to programmatically tell if particular block of memory was not freed by FastMM?

  - by Wodzu

  I am trying to detect if a block of memory was not freed. Of course, the manager tells me that by dialog box or log file, but what if I would like to store results in a database? For example I would like to have in a database table a names of routines which allocated given blocks. After reading a documentation of FastMM I know that since version 4.98 we have a possibility to be notified by manager about memory allocations, frees and reallocations as they occur. For example OnDebugFreeMemFinish event is passing to us a PFullDebugBlockHeader which contains useful informations. There is one thing that PFullDebugBlockHeader is missing - the information if the given block was freed by the application. Unless OnDebugFreeMemFinish is called only for not freed blocks? This is which I do not know and would like to find out. The problem is that even hooking into OnDebugFreeMemFinish event I was unable to find out if the block was freed or not. Here is an example: program MemLeakTest; {$APPTYPE CONSOLE} uses FastMM4, ExceptionLog, SysUtils; procedure MemFreeEvent(APHeaderFreedBlock: PFullDebugBlockHeader; AResult: Integer); begin //This is executed at the end, but how should I know that this block should be freed //by application? Unless this is executed ONLY for not freed blocks. end; procedure Leak; var MyObject: TObject; begin MyObject := TObject.Create; end; begin OnDebugFreeMemFinish := MemFreeEvent; Leak; end. What I am missing is the callback like: procedure OnMemoryLeak(APointer: PFullDebugBlockHeader); After browsing the source of FastMM I saw that there is a procedure: procedure LogMemoryLeakOrAllocatedBlock(APointer: PFullDebugBlockHeader; IsALeak: Boolean); which could be overriden, but maybe there is an easier way?

  Read the article

• Please recommend a CMS framework in Java good for making a monitoring system

  - by TiansHUo

  I already have Java code to display and process data from a database. I would now like to implement the code as modules, and incorporate as a whole into a CMS system. The CMS MUST support Spring, Hibernate, etc. The CMS MUST not be GPL, and preferably open source (lGPL, BSD,etc). The CMS MUST have good documentation and support The CMS MUST be secure (safe from XSS and injection) and support different levels of authorizations, (built-in or module) The CMS MUST have good navigation and tab, (built-in or module) +1, for having a good ajax paginated table module to display data +1, for using ajax to change pages with support for bookmarks and history.back() +1, for using jquery or prototype +1, for being easy to deploy, and easy to add modules +1, for supporting dynamically add/remove and drag-dropping of modules Please recommend a CMS best for the job. Thank you! EDIT: I don't need blogs or wikis or etc. I just want a framework where I can display paginated lists and time series graphs and log files. I will also host some pages for configuration. All of these code are already implemented.

  Read the article

• Using Moq to set indexers in C#

  - by emddudley

  I'm having trouble figuring out how to set indexers in C# with Moq. The Moq documentation is weak, and I've done a lot of searching... what I'd like to do is similar in the solution to How to Moq Setting an Indexed property: var someClass = new Mock<ISomeClass>(); someClass.SetupSet(o => o.SomeIndexedProperty[3] = 25); I want to modify the above to work for any index and any value so I can just do something like this: someClass.Object.SomeIndexedProperty[1] = 5; Currently I have the following, which works great for the indexed property getter, but if I ever set the value Moq ignores it: var someValues = new int[] { 10, 20, 30, 40 }; var someClass = new Mock<ISomeClass>(); someClass.Setup(o => o.SomeIndexedProperty[It.IsAny<int>()]) .Returns<int>(index => someValues[index]); // Moq doesn't set the value below, so the Assert fails! someClass.Object.SomeIndexedProperty[3] = 25; Assert.AreEqual(25, someClass.Object.SomeIndexedProperty[3]);

  Read the article

• Is there a good way to execute MySQL statements atomically via JDBC?

  - by javanix

  Suppose I have a table that contains valid data. I would like to modify this data in some way, but I'd like to make sure that if any errors occur with the modification, the table isn't changed and the method returns something to that effect. For instance, (this is kind of a dumb example, but it illustrates the point so bear with me) suppose I want to edit all the entries in a "name" column so that they are properly capitalized. For some reason, I want either ALL of the names to have proper capitalization, or NONE of them to have proper capitalization (and the starting state of the table is that NONE of them do). Is there an already-implemented way to run a batch update on the table and be assured that, if any one of the updates fails, all changes are rolled back and the table remains unchanged? I can think of a few ways to do this by hand (though suggestions are welcomed), but it'd be nice if there was some method I could use that would function this way. I looked at the java.sql.statement.executeBatch() command, but I'm not convinced by the documentation that my table wouldn't be changed if it failed in some manner.

  Read the article

• Can I compare a template variable to an integer in Django/App Engine templates?

  - by matt b

  Using Django templates in Google App Engine (on Python), is it possible to compare a template variable to an integer in an {% if %} block? views.py: class MyHandler(webapp.RequestHandler): def get(self): foo_list = db.GqlQuery(...) ... template_values['foos'] = foo_list template_values['foo_count'] = len(foo_list) handler.response.out.write(template.render(...)) My template: {% if foo_count == 1 %} There is one foo. {% endif %} This blows up with 'if' statement improperly formatted. What I was attempting to do in my template was build a simple if/elif/else tree to be grammatically correct to be able to state #foo_count == 0: There are no foos. #foo_count == 1: There is one foo. #else: There are {{ foos|length }} foos. Browsing the Django template documents (this link provided in the GAE documentation appears to be for versions of Django far newer than what is supported on GAE), it appears as if I can only actually use boolean operators (if in fact boolean operators are supported in this older version of Django) with strings or other template variables. Is it not possible to compare variables to integers or non-strings with Django templates? I'm sure there is an easy way to workaround this - built up the message string on the Python side rather than within the template - but this seems like such a simple operation you ought to be able to handle in a template. It sounds like I should be switching to a more advanced templating engine, but as I am new to Django (templates or any part of it), I'd just like some confirmation first.

  Read the article

• Form With Quantity doesn't seem to submit

  - by Karl Entwistle

  Hey guys, I've been trying to understand the documentation and find an example, but I'm at a loss. This is just a submit form within the cart for updating the quantity. However, the updated quantity is not getting saved to the database -- it always makes the quantity 0. Please help. Form <% for line_item in @cart.line_items %> <% form_for :lineitems, :url => {:controller => "line_items", :action => "cart_update", :id => "#{line_item.product_id}"} do |l| %> <%= l.text_field :quantity, :size => '3', :value => line_item.quantity %> <%= l.submit 'cart_update' %> <% end %> Route map.connect 'line_item_update', :controller => 'line_items', :action => 'cart_update' Controller def cart_update @product = Product.find(params[:id]) item = LineItem.find_or_create_by_cart_id(:cart_id => current_cart.id, :product_id => @product.id, :quantity => 0, :unit_price => @product.price) item.quantity = (params[:quantity]).to_i item.save redirect_to :controller => 'products' end

  Read the article

• Is it important to dispose SolidBrush and Pen?

  - by Joe

  I recently came across this VerticalLabel control on CodeProject. I notice that the OnPaint method creates but doesn't dispose Pen and SolidBrush objects. Does this matter, and if so how can I demonstrate whatever problems it can cause? EDIT This isn't a question about the IDisposable pattern in general. I understand that callers should normally call Dispose on any class that implements IDisposable. What I want to know is what problems (if any) can be expected when GDI+ object are not disposed as in the above example. It's clear that, in the linked example, OnPaint may be called many times before the garbage collector kicks in, so there's the potential to run out of handles. However I suspect that GDI+ internally reuses handles in some circumstances (for example if you use a pen of a specific color from the Pens class, it is cached and reused). What I'm trying to understand is whether code like that in the linked example will be able to get away with neglecting to call Dispose. And if not, to see a sample that demonstrated what problems it can cause. I should add that I have very often (including the OnPaint documentation on MSDN) seen WinForms code samples that fail to dispose GDI+ objects.

  Read the article

• MediaFileUpload of HTML in UTF-8 encoding using Python and Google-Drive-SDK

  - by Victoria

  Looking for example using MediaFileUpload has a reference to the basic documentation for creating/uploading a file to Google Drive. However, while I have code that creates files, converting from HTML to Google Doc format. It works perfectly when they contain only ASCII characters, but when I add a non-ASCII character, it fails, with the following traceback: Traceback (most recent call last): File "d:\my\py\ckwort.py", line 949, in <module> rids, worker_documents = analyze( meta, gd ) File "d:\my\py\ckwort.py", line 812, in analyze gd.mkdir( **iy ) File "d:\my\py\ckwort.py", line 205, in mkdir self.create( **( kw['subop'])) File "d:\my\py\ckwort.py", line 282, in create media_body=kw['media_body'], File "D:\my\py\gdrive2\oauth2client\util.py", line 120, in positional_wrapper return wrapped(*args, **kwargs) File "D:\my\py\gdrive2\apiclient\http.py", line 676, in execute headers=self.headers) File "D:\my\py\gdrive2\oauth2client\util.py", line 120, in positional_wrapper return wrapped(*args, **kwargs) File "D:\my\py\gdrive2\oauth2client\client.py", line 420, in new_request redirections, connection_type) File "D:\my\py\gdrive2\httplib2\__init__.py", line 1597, in request (response, content) = self._request(conn, authority, uri, request_uri, method, body, headers, redirections, cachekey) File "D:\my\py\gdrive2\httplib2\__init__.py", line 1345, in _request (response, content) = self._conn_request(conn, request_uri, method, body, headers) File "D:\my\py\gdrive2\httplib2\__init__.py", line 1282, in _conn_request conn.request(method, request_uri, body, headers) File "C:\Python27\lib\httplib.py", line 958, in request self._send_request(method, url, body, headers) File "C:\Python27\lib\httplib.py", line 992, in _send_request self.endheaders(body) File "C:\Python27\lib\httplib.py", line 954, in endheaders self._send_output(message_body) File "C:\Python27\lib\httplib.py", line 812, in _send_output msg += message_body UnicodeDecodeError: 'ascii' codec can't decode byte 0xc3 in position 370: ordinal not in range(128) I don't find any parameter to use to specify what file encoding should be used by MediaFileUpload (My files are using UTF-8). Am I missing something?

  Read the article

• atk4 advanced crud?

  - by thindery

  I have the following tables: -- ----------------------------------------------------- -- Table `product` -- ----------------------------------------------------- CREATE TABLE IF NOT EXISTS `product` ( `id` INT NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT , `productName` VARCHAR(255) NULL , `s7location` VARCHAR(255) NULL , PRIMARY KEY (`id`) ) ENGINE = InnoDB; -- ----------------------------------------------------- -- Table `pages` -- ----------------------------------------------------- CREATE TABLE IF NOT EXISTS `pages` ( `id` INT NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT , `productID` INT NULL , `pageName` VARCHAR(255) NOT NULL , `isBlank` TINYINT(1) NULL , `pageOrder` INT(11) NULL , `s7page` INT(11) NULL , PRIMARY KEY (`id`) , INDEX `productID` (`productID` ASC) , CONSTRAINT `productID` FOREIGN KEY (`productID` ) REFERENCES `product` (`id` ) ON DELETE NO ACTION ON UPDATE NO ACTION) ENGINE = InnoDB; -- ----------------------------------------------------- -- Table `field` -- ----------------------------------------------------- CREATE TABLE IF NOT EXISTS `field` ( `id` INT NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT , `pagesID` INT NULL , `fieldName` VARCHAR(255) NOT NULL , `fieldType` VARCHAR(255) NOT NULL , `fieldDefaultValue` VARCHAR(255) NULL , PRIMARY KEY (`id`) , INDEX `id` (`pagesID` ASC) , CONSTRAINT `pagesID` FOREIGN KEY (`pagesID` ) REFERENCES `pages` (`id` ) ON DELETE NO ACTION ON UPDATE NO ACTION) ENGINE = InnoDB; I have gotten CRUD to work on the 'product' table. //addproduct.php class page_addproduct extends Page { function init(){ parent::init(); $crud=$this->add('CRUD')->setModel('Product'); } } This works. but I need to get it so that when a new product is created it basically allows me to add new rows into the pages and field tables. For example, the products in the tables are a print product(like a greeting card) that has multiple pages to render. Page 1 may have 2 text fields that can be customized, page 2 may have 3 text fields, a slider to define text size, and a drop down list to pick a color, and page 3 may have five text fields that can all be customized. All three pages (and all form elements, 12 in this example) are associated with 1 product. So when I create the product, could i add a button to create a page for that product, then within the page i can add a button to add a new form element field? I'm still somewhat new to this, so my db structure may not be ideal. i'd appreciate any suggestions and feedback! Could someone point me toward some information, tutorials, documentation, ideas, suggestions, on how I can implement this?

  Read the article

• PHP: retrieve all declared namespaces of a DOMElement

  - by soulmerge

  I am using the DOM extension to parse an xml file containing xml namespaces. I would have that namespace declarations are treated just like any other attribute, but my tests seem to disagree. I have a document that starts like this: <rdf:RDF xmlns:rdf="http://www.w3.org/1999/02/22-rdf-syntax-ns#" xmlns="http://purl.org/rss/1.0/" xmlns:taxo="http://purl.org/rss/1.0/modules/taxonomy/" xmlns:dc="http://purl.org/dc/elements/1.1/" xmlns:syn="http://purl.org/rss/1.0/modules/syndication/" xmlns:prism="http://purl.org/rss/1.0/modules/prism/" xmlns:admin="http://webns.net/mvcb/" > And a test code like this: $doc = new DOMDocument(); $doc->loadXml(file_get_contents('/home/soulmerge/tmp/rss1.0/recent.xml')); $root = $doc->documentElement; var_dump($root->tagName); # prints 'string(7) "rdf:RDF"' var_dump($root->attributes->item(0)); # prints 'NULL' var_dump($root->getAttributeNode('xmlns')); # prints 'object(DOMNameSpaceNode)#3 (0) {}' So the questions are: Does anyone know where could I find the documentation of DOMNameSpaceNode? A search on php.net does not yield any useful result. How do I extract all those namespace declarations from that DOMElement?

  Read the article

• Python C API from C++ app - know when to lock

  - by Alex

  Hi Everyone, I am trying to write a C++ class that calls Python methods of a class that does some I/O operations (file, stdout) at once. The problem I have ran into is that my class is called from different threads: sometimes main thread, sometimes different others. Obviously I tried to apply the approach for Python calls in multi-threaded native applications. Basically everything starts from PyEval_AcquireLock and PyEval_ReleaseLock or just global locks. According to the documentation here when a thread is already locked a deadlock ensues. When my class is called from the main thread or other one that blocks Python execution I have a deadlock. Python Cfunc1() - C++ func that creates threads internally which lead to calls in "my class", It stuck on PyEval_AcquireLock, obviously the Python is already locked, i.e. waiting for C++ Cfunc1 call to complete... It completes fine if I omit those locks. Also it completes fine when Python interpreter is ready for the next user command, i.e. when thread is calling funcs in the background - not inside of a native call I am looking for a workaround. I need to distinguish whether or not the global lock is allowed, i.e. Python is not locked and ready to receive the next command... I tried PyGIL_Ensure, unfortunately I see hang. Any known API or solution for this ? (Python 2.4)

  Read the article

• django-social-auth for Facebook is redirecting home and not logging in

  - by Scott Rogowski

  I have had django-social-auth working for Google for quite some time now but am having problems with Facebook. I am at the point where clicking on the /login/facebook/ link will take me to the Facebook authorization page. I then click "go to app" and it redirects me to my home page but does not log in or create a user but does put some strange "#=" onto the back of my URL. Reading up on that, here https://developers.facebook.com/blog/post/552/, and here https://github.com/omab/django-social-auth/issues/199, it seems that would be happening if the redirect uri was not defined. However, on my facebook app settings, I have the following (replacing my site with example.com): + App Namespace: "example" + Site URL: "http://example.com/complete/facebook/" + Site Domain: "example.com" + Sandbox Mode: "On" + Post-Authorize Redirect URL: "http://apps.facebook.com/example/" + Deauthorize URL: "http://www.example.com/" + Post-Authorize URL: "http://example.com/complete/facebook/" The request that django-social-auth is sending to facebook is (replacing my info again): "https://www.facebook.com/dialog/oauth?scope=email&state=*&redirect_uri=http%3A%2F%2Fexample.com%2Fcomplete%2Ffacebook%2F%3Fredirect_state%3D***&client_id=*" The /complete/facebook/ is what is in the documentation and google works as /complete/google/ What am I missing here?

  Read the article

• Why does Microsoft advise against readonly fields with mutable values?

  - by Weeble

  In the Design Guidelines for Developing Class Libraries, Microsoft say: Do not assign instances of mutable types to read-only fields. The objects created using a mutable type can be modified after they are created. For example, arrays and most collections are mutable types while Int32, Uri, and String are immutable types. For fields that hold a mutable reference type, the read-only modifier prevents the field value from being overwritten but does not protect the mutable type from modification. This simply restates the behaviour of readonly without explaining why it's bad to use readonly. The implication appears to be that many people do not understand what "readonly" does and will wrongly expect readonly fields to be deeply immutable. In effect it advises using "readonly" as code documentation indicating deep immutability - despite the fact that the compiler has no way to enforce this - and disallows its use for its normal function: to ensure that the value of the field doesn't change after the object has been constructed. I feel uneasy with this recommendation to use "readonly" to indicate something other than its normal meaning understood by the compiler. I feel that it encourages people to misunderstand the meaning of "readonly", and furthermore to expect it to mean something that the author of the code might not intend. I feel that it precludes using it in places it could be useful - e.g. to show that some relationship between two mutable objects remains unchanged for the lifetime of one of those objects. The notion of assuming that readers do not understand the meaning of "readonly" also appears to be in contradiction to other advice from Microsoft, such as FxCop's "Do not initialize unnecessarily" rule, which assumes readers of your code to be experts in the language and should know that (for example) bool fields are automatically initialised to false, and stops you from providing the redundancy that shows "yes, this has been consciously set to false; I didn't just forget to initialize it". So, first and foremost, why do Microsoft advise against use of readonly for references to mutable types? I'd also be interested to know: Do you follow this Design Guideline in all your code? What do you expect when you see "readonly" in a piece of code you didn't write?

  Read the article

• How do I implement a listener pattern over RMI using Spring?

  - by predhme

  So here is a generalized version of our application desgin: @Controller public class MyController { @Autowired private MyServiceInterface myServiceInterface; @RequestMapping("/myURL") public @ResponseBody String doSomething() { MyListenerInterface listener = new MyListenerInterfaceImpl(); myServiceInterface.doThenCallListener(listener); // do post stuff } } public interface MyListenerInterface { public void callA(); public void callB(); } public class MyListenerInterfaceImpl implements MyListenerInterface { // ... omitted for clarity } public interface MyServiceInterface { public void doThenCallListener(MyListenerInterface listener); } public class MyServiceImpl { public void doThenCallListener(MyListenerInterface listener) { // do stuff listener.callA(); } } Basically I have a controller that is being called via AJAX in which I am looking to return a response as a string. However, I need to make a call to the backend (MyServiceInterface). That guy is exposed through RMI by using Spring (man that was easy). But the service method as described requires a listener to be registered for invokation completion purposes. So what I assume I need to achieve is transparently to the backend make it so that when the listener methods are called, really the call is going over RMI. I would have thought Spring would have a simple way to wrap a POJO (not a service singleton) with RMI calls. I looked through their documentation but they had nothing besides exposing services via RMI. Could someone point me in the right direction?

  Read the article

• How do you manually set a RadioGroup value in wicket?

  - by Kane

  I'm trying to change the selected radio button in a Wicket RadioGroup during an AjaxEventBehavior but can't figure out how to do so. Specifically when a user types some text in a textbox I want to change the selected radio button to one I specify. How do you do this? Here's what I have so far (it crashes on addComponent): myRadioGroup = new RadioGroup("MyNewGroup", new PropertyModel(getPojo(), "selectedGroup")); Radio internalRadio = new Radio("InternalDirectoryNumber", new Model("Internal")); myRadioGroup .add(internalRadio); Radio externalRadio = new Radio("OtherMobileNumber", new Model("External")); myRadioGroup .add(externalRadio); TextField myTxtField= new TextField("TextBoxPrivateNumber", new PropertyModel(getVoiceItem(), "privateMobilePhone")); myTxtField.add( new AjaxEventBehavior( "onKeyUp" ) { @Override protected void onEvent(AjaxRequestTarget target) { Component component = target.getPage().get("myForm:MyNewGroup").setDefaultModelObject("External"); target.addComponent(component); //this causes an exception } }); myRadioGroup .add(myTxtField); Here is the exception that's thrown. java.lang.IllegalArgumentException: cannot update component that does not have setOutputMarkupId property set to true. Component: [MarkupContainer [Component id = myRadioGroup]] What's the proper way to do this? I'm not finding a whole lot of wicket documentation for this online.

  Read the article

• G++ Multi-platform memory leak detection tool

  - by indyK1ng

  Does anyone know where I can find a memory memory leak detection tool for C++ which can be either run in a command line or as an Eclipse plug-in in Windows and Linux. I would like it to be easy to use. Preferably one that doesn't overwrite new(), delete(), malloc() or free(). Something like GDB if its gonna be in the command line, but I don't remember that being used for detecting memory leaks. If there is a unit testing framework which does this automatically, that would be great. This question is similar to other questions (such as http://stackoverflow.com/questions/283726/memory-leak-detection-under-windows-for-gnu-c-c ) however I feel it is different because those ask for windows specific solutions or have solutions which I would rather avoid. I feel I am looking for something a bit more specific here. Suggestions don't have to fulfill all requirements, but as many as possible would be nice. Thanks. EDIT: Since this has come up, by "overwrite" I mean anything which requires me to #include a library or which otherwise changes how C++ compiles my code, if it does this at run time so that running the code in a different environment won't affect anything that would be great. Also, unfortunately, I don't have a Mac, so any suggestions for that are unhelpful, but thank you for trying. My desktop runs Windows (I have Linux installed but my dual monitors don't work with it) and I'd rather not run Linux in a VM, although that is certainly an option. My laptop runs Linux, so I can use that tool on there, although I would definitely prefer sticking to my desktop as the screen space is excellent for keeping all of the design documentation and requirements in view without having to move too much around on the desktop. NOTE: While I may try answers, I won't mark one as accepted until I have tried the suggestion and it is satisfactory. EDIT2: I'm not worried about the cross-platform compatibility of my code, it's a command line application using just the C++ libraries.

  Read the article

• JUnit Test method with randomized nature

  - by Peter

  Hey, I'm working on a small project for myself at the moment and I'm using it as an opportunity to get acquainted with unit testing and maintaining proper documentation. I have a Deck class with represents a deck of cards (it's very simple and, to be honest, I can be sure that it works without a unit test, but like I said I'm getting used to using unit tests) and it has a shuffle() method which changes the order of the cards in the deck. The implementation is very simple and will certainly work: public void shuffle() { Collections.shuffle(this.cards); } But, how could I implement a unit test for this method. My first thought was to check if the top card of the deck was different after calling shuffle() but there is of course the possibility that it would be the same. My second thought was to check if the entire order of cards has changed, but again they could possibly be in the same order. So, how could I write a test that ensures this method works in all cases? And, in general, how can you unit test methods for which the outcome depends on some randomness? Cheers, Pete

  Read the article

• Perl's Devel::LeakTrace::Fast Pointing to blank files and evals

  - by kt

  I am using Devel::LeakTrace::Fast to debug a memory leak in a perl script designed as a daemon which runs an infinite loop with sleeps until interrupted. I am having some trouble both reading the output and finding documentation to help me understand the output. The perldoc doesn't contain much information on the output. Most of it makes sense, such as pointing to globals in DBI. Intermingled with the output, however, are several leaked SV(<LOCATION>) from (eval #) line # Where the numbers are numbers and <LOCATION> is a location in memory. The script itself is not using eval at any point - I have not investigated each used module to see if evals are present. Mostly what I want to know is how to find these evals (if possible). I also find the following entries repeated over and over again leaked SV(<LOCATION>) from line # Where line # is always the same #. Not very helpful in tracking down what file that line is in.

  Read the article

• openssl crypto library - base64 conversion

  - by Hassan Syed

  I'm using openssl BIO objects to convert a binary string into a base64 string. The code is as follows: void ToBase64(std::string & s_in) { BIO * b_s = BIO_new( BIO_s_mem() ); BIO * b64_f = BIO_new( BIO_f_base64() ); b_s = BIO_push( b64_f , b_s); std::cout << "IN::" << s_in.length(); BIO_write(b_s, s_in.c_str(), s_in.length()); char * pp; int sz = BIO_get_mem_data(b_s, &pp); std::cout << "OUT::" << sz << endl; s_in.assign(pp,sz); //std::cout << sz << " " << std::string(pp,sz) << std::endl; BIO_free (b64_f); // TODO ret error potential BIO_free (b_s); // } The in length is either 64 or 72. However the output is always 65, which is incorrect it should be much larger than that. The documentation isn't the best in the world, AFAIK the bio_s_mem object is supposed to grow dynamically. What am I doing wrong ?

  Read the article

• JFLAP Turing Machine shortcut problem

  - by Robert Lamb

  In JFLAP (http://jflap.org), there are some shortcuts for Turing machine transitions. One of these shortcuts allows you to transition as long as the current tape symbol isn't the indicated symbol. For example, the transition !g,x;R basically says "Take this transition if the current tape symbol is not g". So far, so good. But the transition I want is !?,~;R which basically says "Move right as long as the current symbol is not the end-of-string (empty cell) symbol". The problem is I cannot figure out how to type in "!?". The JFLAP online documentation (http://www.jflap.org/tutorial/turing/one/index.html#syntax) has this to say: The first shortcut is that there exists the option of using the “!” character to convey the meaning of “any character but this character.” For example, concerning the transition (!a; x, R), if the head encounters any character but an “a”, it will replace the character with an “x” and move right. To write the expression “!?”, just type a “1” in when inputting a command. My question is...how do I actually do what that last sentence is trying to explain to me? Thanks for your help! Robert

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 351 352 353 354 355 356 357 358 359 360 361 362  | Next Page >