Search Results

Search found 10042 results on 402 pages for 'orient db'.

Page 355/402 | < Previous Page | 351 352 353 354 355 356 357 358 359 360 361 362  | Next Page >

  • Seeding many to many tables with Entity Framework

    - by Doozer1979
    I have a meeting entity and a users entity which have a many to many relationship. I'm using Autopoco to create seed data for the Users and meetings How do i seed the UserMeetings linking table that is created by EntityFramework with seed data? The linking table has two fields in it; User_Id, and Meeting_ID. I'm looping through the list of users that autopoco creates and attaching a random number of meetings Here's what i've got so far. foreach (var user in userList) { var rand = new Random(); var amountOfMeetingsToAdd = rand.Next(1, 300); for (var i = 0; i <= amountOfMeetingsToAdd; i++) { var randomMeeting = rand.Next(1, MeetingRecords); //Error occurs on This line user.Meetings.Add(_meetings[randomMeeting]); } } I got an 'Object reference not set to an instance of an object.' even though the meeting record that i'm trying to attach does exist. For info all this is happening prior to me saving the context to the DB.

    Read the article

  • connecting to secure database on private network from website host

    - by jim
    Hello all, I've got a requirement to both read and write data via a .net webservice to a sqlserver database that's on a private network. this database is currently accessed via a vpn connection by remote client software (on standard desktop machines) to get latest product prices and to upload product stock sales. I've been tasked with finding a way to centralise this access from a webservice that the clients then access, rather than them using the vpn route to connect directly to the database. My question is related to my .net service's relationship to the sqlserver database. What are the options for connecting to a private network vpn from a domain host in order to achive the functionality of allowing the webservice to both read and write data to the database. For now, I'm not too concerned about the client connectivity and security (tho i appreciate that this will have to be worked out too), I'm really just interested in discovering the options available in order to allow my .net webservice to connect to the private network in as painless and transparent a way as posible. [edit] the webservice will also be available to the retail website in order for it to lookup product info as well as allocate stock transfers to the same sqlserver db. it will therefore be located on the same domain as the retail site The option of switching the database onto public hosting is not feasible, so I have to work with the scenario as described above for now, unless there's a compelling rationale presented to do otherwise. thanks all... jim

    Read the article

  • Laravel4: Call to a member function on a non-object

    - by s0hno
    The following code will throw an error Call to a member function `links()` on a non-object routes.php: Route::get('videos', function(){ $data = DB::table('video_data_r')->paginate(5); return View::make('video',$data); }); Corresponding video view: <?php foreach($data as $item): ?> <div class="video_entry"> <a href="<?php echo $item -> url; ?>" target="_blank"><img src="<?php echo $item -> thumb; ?>" /></a> <a href="<?php echo $item -> url; ?>" target="_blank"><?php echo $item -> title; ?>"</a> </div> <?php endforeach; ?> <?php echo $data->links();?> Could you give me a good hint on what looks like a trivial error?

    Read the article

  • C# sqlite syntax in ASP.NET?

    - by acidzombie24
    -edit- This is no longer relevant and the question doesnt make sense to me anymore. I think i wanted to know how to create tables or know if the syntax is the same from winform to ASP.NET I am very use to sqlite http://sqlite.phxsoftware.com/ and would like to create a DB in a similar style. How do i do this? it doesnt need to be the same, just similar enough for me to enjoy. An example of the syntax. connection = new SQLiteConnection("Data Source=" + sz +";Version=3"); command = new SQLiteCommand(connection); connection.Open(); command.CommandText = "CREATE TABLE if not exists miscInfo(key TEXT, " + "value TEXT, UNIQUE (key));"; command.ExecuteNonQuery(); The @name is a symbol and command.Parameters.Add("@userDesc", DbType.String).Value = d.userDesc; replaces the symbol with escaped values/texts/blob command.CommandText = "INSERT INTO discData(rootfolderID, time, volumeName, discLabel, " + "userTitle, userDesc) "+ "VALUES(@rootfolderID, @time, @volumeName, @discLabel, " + "@userTitle, @userDesc); " + "SELECT last_insert_rowid() AS RecordID;"; command.Parameters.Add("@rootfolderID", DbType.Int64).Value = d.rootfolderID; command.Parameters.Add("@time", DbType.Int64).Value = d.time; command.Parameters.Add("@volumeName", DbType.String).Value = d.volumeName; command.Parameters.Add("@discLabel", DbType.String).Value = d.discLabel; command.Parameters.Add("@userTitle", DbType.String).Value = d.userTitle; command.Parameters.Add("@userDesc", DbType.String).Value = d.userDesc; d.discID = (long)command.ExecuteScalar();

    Read the article

  • Ajax request gets to server but page doesn't update - Rails, jQuery

    - by Jesse
    So I have a scenario where my jQuery ajax request is hitting the server, but the page won't update. I'm stumped... Here's the ajax request: $.ajax({ type: 'GET', url: '/jsrender', data: "id=" + $.fragment().nav.replace("_link", "") }); Watching the rails logs, I get the following: Processing ProductsController#jsrender (for 127.0.0.1 at 2010-03-17 23:07:35) [GET] Parameters: {"action"=>"jsrender", "id"=>"products", "controller"=>"products"} ... Rendering products/jsrender.rjs Completed in 651ms (View: 608, DB: 17) | 200 OK [http://localhost/jsrender?id=products] So, it seems apparent to me that the ajax request is getting to the server. The code in the jsrender method is being executed, but the code in the jsrender.rjs doesn't fire. Here's the method, jsrender: def jsrender @currentview = "shared/#{params[:id]}" respond_to do |format| format.js {render :template => 'products/jsrender.rjs'} end end For the sake of argument, the code in jsrender.rjs is: page<<"alert('this works!');" Why is this? I see in the params that there is no authenticity_token, but I have tried passing an authenticity_token as well with the same result. Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • how to make a software and preserve database integrity and correctness and please help confused

    - by user287745
    i have made an application project in vs 08 c#, sql server from vs 08. the database has like 20 tables and many fields in each have made an interface for adding deleting editting and retrieving data according to predefined needs of the users. now i have to 1) make to project in to a software which i can deliver to professor. that is he can just double click the icon and the software simply starts. no vs 08 needed to start the debugging 2) the database will be on one powerful computer (dual core latest everything win xp) and the user will access it from another computer connected using LAN i am able to change the connection string to the shared database using vs 08/ debugger whenever the server changes but how am i supposed to do that when its a software? 3)there will by many clients am i supposed to give the same software to every one, so they all can connect to the database, how will the integrity and correctness of the database be maintained? i mean the db.mdf file will be in a folder which will be shared with read and write access. so its not necessary that only one user will write at a time. so is there any coding for this or? please help me out here i am stuck do not know what to do i have no practical experience, would appreciate all the help thank you

    Read the article

  • Codeigniter Inserting Multidimensional Array as rows in MySQL

    - by RisingSun
    Please Refer to this question I asked Codeigniter Insert Multiple Rows in SQL To restate <tr> <td><input type="text" name="user[0][name]" value=""></td> <td><input type="text" name="user[0][address]" value=""><br></td> <td><input type="text" name="user[0][age]" value=""></td> <td><input type="text" name="user[0][email]" value=""></td> </tr> <tr> <td><input type="text" name="user[1][name]" value=""></td> <td><input type="text" name="user[1][address]" value=""><br></td> <td><input type="text" name="user[1][age]" value=""></td> <td><input type="text" name="user[1][email]" value=""></td> </tr> .......... Can Be Inserted into MySQL as this foreach($_POST['user'] as $user) { $this->db->insert('mytable', $user); } This results in multiple MySQL queries. Is it possible to optimise it further, so that the insert occurs in one query Something like this insert multiple rows via a php array into mysql but taking advantage of codeigniters simpler syntax. Thanks

    Read the article

  • For a set of sql-queries, how do you determine which result-set contains a certain row?

    - by ManBugra
    I have a set of sql - queries: List<String> queries = ... queries[0] = "select id from person where ..."; ... queries[8756] = "select id from person where ..."; Each query selects rows from the same table 'person'. The only difference is the where-clause. Table 'person' looks like this: id | name | ... many other columns How can i determine which queries will contain a certain person in their subset? For example: List<Integer> matchingQueries = magicMethod(queries, [23,45]); The list obtained by 'magicMethod' filters all sql queries present in the list 'queries' (defined above) and returns only those that contain either the person with id 23 OR a person with id 45. Why i need it: I am dealing with an application that contains products and categories where the categories are sql queries that define which products belong to them (queries stored in a table also). Now i have a requirement where an admin has to see all categories an item belongs to immediately after the item was created. Btw, over 8.000 categories defined (so far, more to come). language and db: java && postgreSQL Thanks,

    Read the article

  • php request variables assigning $_GEt

    - by chris
    if you take a look at a previous question http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2690742/mod-rewrite-title-slugs-and-htaccess I am using the solution that Col. Shrapnel proposed- but when i assign values to $_GET in the actual file and not from a request the code doesnt work. It defaults away from the file as if the $_GET variables are not set The code I have come up with is- if(!empty($_GET['cat'])){ $_GET['target'] = "category"; if(isset($_GET['page'])){ $_GET['pageID'] = $_GET['page']; } $URL_query = "SELECT category_id FROM cats WHERE slug = '".$_GET['cat']."';"; $URL_result = mysql_query($URL_query); $URL_array = mysql_fetch_array($URL_result); $_GET['category_id'] = $URL_array['category_id']; }elseif($_GET['product']){ $_GET['target'] = "product"; $URL_query = "SELECT product_id FROM products WHERE slug = '".$_GET['product']."';"; $URL_result = mysql_query($URL_query); $URL_array = mysql_fetch_array($URL_result); print_r($URL_array); $_GET['product_id'] = $URL_array['product_id']; The original variable string that im trying to represent is /cart.php?Target=product&product_id=16142&category_id=249 And i'm trying to build the query string variables with code and including cart.php so i can use cleaner URL's So I have product/product-title-with-clean-url/ going to slug.php?product=slug Then the slug searches the db for a record with the matching slug and returns the product_id as in the code above.Then built the query string and include cart.php

    Read the article

  • INSERT INTO table doesn't work???

    - by Joann
    I found a tutorial from nettuts and it has a source code in it so tried implementing it in my site.. It is working now. However, it doesn't have a Registration system so I am making one. The thing is, as I have expected, my code is not working... It doesn't seem to know how to INSERT into the database. Here's the function that inserts data into the db. function register_User($un, $email, $pwd) { $query = "INSERT INTO users( username, password, email ) VALUES(:uname, :pwd, :email) LIMIT 1"; if($stmt = $this->conn->prepare($query)) { $stmt->bind_param(':uname', $un); $stmt->bind_param(':pwd', $pwd); $stmt->bind_param(':email', $email); $stmt->execute(); if($stmt->fetch()) { $stmt->close(); return true; } else return "The username or email you entered is already in use..."; } } I have debugged the connection to the database from within the class, it says it's connected. I tried using this method instead: function register($un, $email, $pwd) { $registerquery = $this->conn->query( "INSERT INTO users(uername, password, email) VALUES('".$un."', '".$pwd."', '".$email."')"); if($registerquery) { echo "<h4>Success</h4>"; } else { echo "<h4>Error</h4>"; } } And it echos "Error"... Can you please help me pen point the error in this??? :(

    Read the article

  • Projects integration question

    - by qkrsppopcmpt
    Other team has one legacy system, which is data aggregators. It is implemented as web service using JAVA, SOAP,MTOM,Tomcat and Axis2. They have wsdl files defining functionalities such as search, retrieve data, upload, download. Our team has a new developed website which is developed using RoR with mySQL. It is sort of social networking. Users can register, add friends, upload images, videos. Also, they can search data. We are required to connect the two systems. One possible solution I think is - Adding components into our website. The component invoke services on the aggregators. - Synchronize website database to the aggregators. My doubts are: 1. How to add components in our websites? The components should use Java or Ruby or adapter from java to ruby. It is possible using ruby invoke web service. I think it should work since it is the point of web service. If so, can ruby call those services in wsdl directly? But how to deal with those different data structure? How to synchroinze our database to the aggregators. I think the best way is also through web service invocation such as upload. That means, we have to export the db records into xml files and then write some tools to upload. The web service project support MTOM. So, it is fine to upload huge data. Am I on the right record? Can anybody give me some hint. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Linq2Sql: query - subquery optimisation

    - by Budda
    I have the following query: IList<InfrStadium> stadiums = (from sector in DbContext.sectors where sector.Type=typeValue select new InfrStadium(sector.TeamId) ).ToList(); and InfrStadium class constructor: private InfrStadium(int teamId) { IList<Sector> teamSectors = (from sector in DbContext.sectors where sector.TeamId==teamId select sector) .ToList<>(); ... work with data } Current implementation perform 1+n queries, where n - number of records fetched the 1st time. I want to optimize that. And another one I would love to do using 'group' operator in way like this: IList<InfrStadium> stadiums = (from sector in DbContext.sectors group sector by sector.TeamId into team_sectors select new InfrStadium(team_sectors.Key, team_sectors) ).ToList(); with appropriate constructor: private InfrStadium(int iTeamId, IEnumerable<InfrStadiumSector> eSectors) { IList<Sector> teamSectors = eSectors.ToList(); ... work with data } But attempt to launch query causes the following error: Expression of type 'System.Int32' cannot be used for constructor parameter of type 'System.Collections.Generic.IEnumerable`1[InfrStadiumSector]' Question 1: Could you please explain, what is wrong here, I don't understand why 'team_sectors' is applied as 'System.Int32'? I've tried to change query a little (replace IEnumerable with IQueryeable): IList<InfrStadium> stadiums = (from sector in DbContext.sectors group sector by sector.TeamId into team_sectors select new InfrStadium(team_sectors.Key, team_sectors.AsQueryable()) ).ToList(); with appropriate constructor: private InfrStadium(int iTeamId, IQueryeable<InfrStadiumSector> eSectors) { IList<Sector> teamSectors = eSectors.ToList(); ... work with data } In this case I've received another but similar error: Expression of type 'System.Int32' cannot be used for parameter of type 'System.Collections.Generic.IEnumerable1[InfrStadiumSector]' of method 'System.Linq.IQueryable1[InfrStadiumSector] AsQueryableInfrStadiumSector' Question 2: Actually, the same question: can't understand at all what is going on here... P.S. I have another to optimize query idea (describe here: Linq2Sql: query optimisation) but I would love to find a solution with 1 request to DB).

    Read the article

  • Modify SQL result set before returning from stored procedure

    - by m0sa
    I have a simple table in my SQL Server 2008 DB: Tasks_Table -id -task_complete -task_active -column_1 -.. -column_N The table stores instructions for uncompleted tasks that have to be executed by a service. I want to be able to scale my system in future. Until now only 1 service on 1 computer read from the table. I have a stored procedure, that selects all uncompleted and inactive tasks. As the service begins to process tasks it updates the task_active flag in all the returned rows. To enable scaleing of the system I want to enable deployment of the service on more machines. Because I want to prevent a task being returned to more than 1 service I have to update the stored procedure that returns uncompleted and inactive tasks. I figured that i have to lock the table (only 1 reader at a time - I know I have to use an apropriate ISOLATION LEVEL), and updates the task_active flag in each row of the result set before returning the result set. So my question is how to modify the SELECT result set iin the stored procedure before returning it?

    Read the article

  • Same session and session ID for different subdomains in Grails project - How can I do that?

    - by fluxon
    I am currently working on a project that supports multiple languages. In order to be seo friendly, I am trying to redirect users subdomains corresponding to their locale (or their preferred language). I.e., my projects's url is mydomain.com and I work with the subdomains en.mydomain.com, es.mydomain.com, de.mydomain.com, fr.mydomain.com ... you get the idea. All subdomains are served by the same grails app for now. What happens is that my grails project maintains different sessions (as seen by the session ids) for every single subdomain, hence information is lost, when a user switches between languages. I had not forseen that. :( How can I explicitly set the session identifier? I would like it to be based on just mydomain.com. I got the hint that Apache Tomcat offers something like <Context sessionCookiePath="/" sessionCookieDomain=".mydomain.com"> , but that does not help for the devel environment etc. Any hints? Have you tried storing session information in the DB? This is sometimes used for load-balancing purposes and might help here as well?! Help is highly appreciated (as always)! Cheers!

    Read the article

  • How to use AFIncrementalStore to binding with a NSManagedObject

    - by Matrosov Alexander
    I am searching for more information on how to use AFIncrementalStore. I need to know how to implement it step by step. Please don't down vote it, because of many resources, I really need help with this. If I understood right AFIncrementalStore it is a layer for fetching data from the server and for the mapping data model. Am I right? So I have few URL that I need to mapping into my local model. All of them use GET requests. For example base_url/api/categories I get this string in response: [{"category":{"name":"3d max","id":"1111001","users":[]}}, {"category":{"name":"photoshop","id":"1111002","users":[]}}, {"category":{"name":"auto cad","id":"1111003","users":[]}}] So I have a question how I can binding my local db with this data using AFIncrementalStore. Also if you can see there are relationships in the response string that are connected to uses. The array for users will contain id that is correspond to concert users. So I think second question is how to point that model has to have relationship.

    Read the article

  • Is it better to use a relational database or document-based database for an app like Wufoo?

    - by mboyle
    I'm working on an application that's similar to Wufoo in that it allows our users to create their own databases and collect/present records with auto generated forms and views. Since every user is creating a different schema (one user might have a database of their baseball card collection, another might have a database of their recipes) our current approach is using MySQL to create separate databases for every user with its own tables. So in other words, the databases our MySQL server contains look like: main-web-app-db (our web app containing tables for users account info, billing, etc) user_1_db (baseball_cards_table) user_2_db (recipes_table) .... And so on. If a user wants to set up a new database to keep track of their DVD collection, we'd do a "create database ..." with "create table ...". If they enter some data in and then decide they want to change a column we'd do an "alter table ....". Now, the further along I get with building this out the more it seems like MySQL is poorly suited to handling this. 1) My first concern is that switching databases every request, first to our main app's database for authentication etc, and then to the user's personal database, is going to be inefficient. 2) The second concern I have is that there's going to be a limit to the number of databases a single MySQL server can host. Pretending for a moment this application had 500,000 user databases, is MySQL designed to operate this way? What if it were a million, or more? 3) Lastly, is this method going to be a nightmare to support and scale? I've never heard of MySQL being used in this way so I do worry about how this affects things like replication and other methods of scaling. To me, it seems like MySQL wasn't built to be used in this way but what do I know. I've been looking at document-based databases like MongoDB, CouchDB, and Redis as alternatives because it seems like a schema-less approach to this particular problem makes a lot of sense. Can anyone offer some advice on this?

    Read the article

  • Do all the HTML5 storage systems work together ?

    - by azera
    While there are a lot of good stuff about html5, one thing I don't get is the redondant storage mechanism, first there is localstorage and sessionstorage, which are key value stores, one is for one instance of the app ("one tab"), and the other works for all the instances of that application so they can share data. Both are saved when you close your browser and have a limited size (usually 5MB), that's great and everything would be nice if we stopped there. But then there is the "Web SQL Database", which has the same security system as the localstorage, the same size limit, the same everything except it works like/is sqlite, with tables and sql syntax and all of that. And the bummer is, they don't work on the same data at all ! This is not two way to access your data, this is really two storage for every html 5 app out there (not created by default yes, but still you see my point). What I would like to know is, is there a reason for both of this mechanisms to exist at the same time ? Or did they just look at sql and nosql movement to pick the best then went "screw it let's add both !" ? Why not implement local/session storage as a table inside web sql db ?

    Read the article

  • Connect Rails model to non-rails database

    - by the_snitch
    I'm creating a new web application (Rails 3 beta), of which pieces of it will access data from a legacy mysql database that a current php application is using. I do not wish to modify the legacy db schema, I just want to be able to read/write to it, as well as the rails application having it's own database using activerecord for the newer stuff. I'm using mysql for the rails app, so I have the adapter installed. How is the best way to do this? For example, I want contacts to come from the old database. Should I create a contacts controller, and manually call sql to get the variables for the views? Or should I create a Contact model, and define attributes that match the fields in the database, and am I able to use it like Contact.mail_address to have it call "SELECT mailaddr FROM contacts WHERE id=Contact.id". Sorry, I've never done much in Rails outside of the standard stuff that is documented well. I'm not sure of what the best approach would be. Ideally, I want the contacts to be presented to my rails application as native as possible, so that I can expose them RESTfully for API access. Any suggestions and code examples would be much appreciated

    Read the article

  • Codeigniter: Library function--I'm stuck

    - by Kevin Brown
    I have a library function that sets up my forms, and submits data. They're long, and they work, so I'll spare you reading my code. :) I simply need a way for my functions to determine how to handle the data. Until now, the function did one thing: Submit a report for the current user. NOW, the client has requested that an administrator also be able to complete a form--this means that the form would be filled out, and it would CREATE a user at the same time, whereas the current function EDITS and is accessed by an EXISTING user. Do I need a separate function to do essentially the same thing? How do I make one function perform two tasks? One to update a user, and if there is no user, create one. Current controller: function survey() { $id = $this->session->userdata('id'); $data['member'] = $this->home_model->getUser($id); //Convert the db Object to a row array $data['manager'] = $data['member']->row(); $manager_id = $data['manager']->manager_id; $data['manager'] = $this->home_model->getUser($manager_id); $data['manager'] = $data['manager']->row(); $data['header'] = "Home"; $this->survey_form_processing->survey_form($this->_container,$data, $method); } Current Library: function survey_form($container) { //Lots of validation stuff $this->CI->validation->set_rules($rules); if ( $this->CI->validation->run() === FALSE ) { // Output any errors $this->CI->validation->output_errors(); } else { // Submit form $this->_submit(); } $this->CI->load->view($container,$data); The submit function is huge too. Basically says, "Update table with data where user_id=current user" I hope this wasn't too confusing. I'll create two functions if need be, but I'd like to keep redundancy down! }

    Read the article

  • Does a Postgresql dump create sequences that start with - or after - the last key?

    - by bennylope
    I recently created a SQL dump of a database behind a Django project, and after cleaning the SQL up a little bit was able to restore the DB and all of the data. The problem was the sequences were all mucked up. I tried adding a new user and generated the Python error IntegrityError: duplicate key violates unique constraint. Naturally I figured my SQL dump didn't restart the sequence. But it did: DROP SEQUENCE "auth_user_id_seq" CASCADE; CREATE SEQUENCE "auth_user_id_seq" INCREMENT 1 START 446 MAXVALUE 9223372036854775807 MINVALUE 1 CACHE 1; ALTER TABLE "auth_user_id_seq" OWNER TO "db_user"; I figured out that a repeated attempt at creating a user (or any new row in any table with existing data and such a sequence) allowed for successful object/row creation. That solved the pressing problem. But given that the last user ID in that table was 446 - the same start value in the sequence creation above - it looks like Postgresql was simply trying to start creating rows with that key. Does the SQL dump provide the wrong start key by 1? Or should I invoke some other command to start sequences after the given start ID? Keenly curious.

    Read the article

  • EF Code First - Relationships

    - by CaffGeek
    I have these classes public class EntityBase : IEntity { public int Id { get; set; } public DateTime Created { get; set; } public string CreatedBy { get; set; } public DateTime Updated { get; set; } public string UpdatedBy { get; set; } } public class EftInterface : EntityBase { public string Name { get; set; } public Provider Provider { get; set; } public List<BusinessUnit> BusinessUnits { get; set; } } public class Provider : EntityBase, IEntity { public string Name { get; set; } public decimal DefaultDebitLimit { get; set; } public decimal DefaultCreditLimit { get; set; } public decimal TreasuryDebitLimit { get; set; } public decimal TreasuryCreditLimit { get; set; } } public class BusinessUnit : EntityBase { public string Name { get; set; } } An interface, is really a Provider, with a collection of Business Units. The issue is that while my db model ends up having a correct EftInterfaces table, with a FK to Provider_Id, the BusinessUnits table has a FK to EftInterface_Id. But, a BusinessUnit can be included in more than one EftInterface. I need a many to many relationship. A BusinessUnit can be part of many EftInterfaces, and an EftInterface can contain many BusinessUnits. How can I get CodeFirst to generate the many-to-many table?

    Read the article

  • Spring MVC: should service layer be returning operation specific DTO's ?

    - by arrages
    In my Spring MVC application I am using DTO in the presentation layer in order to encapsulate the domain model in the service layer. The DTO's are being used as the spring form backing objects. hence my services look something like this: userService.storeUser(NewUserRequestDTO req); The service layer will translate DTO - Domain object and do the rest of the work. Now my problem is that when I want to retrieve a DTO from the service to perform say an Update or Display I can't seem to find a better way to do it then to have multiple methods for the lookup that return different DTO's like... EditUserRequestDTO userService.loadUserForEdit(int id); DisplayUserDTO userService.loadUserForDisplay(int id); but something does not feel right about this approach. The reason do have separate DTO's is that DisplayUserDTO is strongly typed to be read only and also there are many properties of user that are entities from a lookup table in the db (like city and state) so the DisplayUserDTO would have the string description of the properties while the EditUserRequestDTO will have the id's that will back the select drop down lists in the forms. What do you think? thanks

    Read the article

  • mongoose updating a field in a MongoDB not working

    - by Masiar
    I have this code var UserSchema = new Schema({ Username: {type: String, index: true}, Password: String, Email: String, Points: {type: Number, default: 0} }); [...] var User = db.model('User'); /* * Function to save the points in the user's account */ function savePoints(name, points){ if(name != "unregistered user"){ User.find({Username: name}, function(err, users){ var oldPoints = users[0].Points; var newPoints = oldPoints + points; User.update({name: name}, { $inc: {Points: newPoints}}, function(err){ if(err){ console.log("some error happened when update"); } else{ console.log("update successfull! with name = " + name); User.find({Username: name}, function(err, users) { console.log("updated : " + users[0].Points); }); } }); }); } } savePoints("Masiar", 666); I would like to update my user (by finding it with its name) by updating his/her points. I'm sure oldPoints and points contain a value, but still my user keep being at zero points. The console prints "update successful". What am I doing wrong? Sorry for the stupid / noob question. Masiar

    Read the article

  • PHP OOP: Avoid Singleton/Static Methods in Domain Model Pattern

    - by sunwukung
    I understand the importance of Dependency Injection and its role in Unit testing, which is why the following issue is giving me pause: One area where I struggle not to use the Singleton is the Identity Map/Unit of Work pattern (Which keeps tabs on Domain Object state). //Not actual code, but it should demonstrate the point class Monitor{//singleton construction omitted for brevity static $members = array();//keeps record of all objects static $dirty = array();//keeps record of all modified objects static $clean = array();//keeps record of all clean objects } class Mapper{//queries database, maps values to object fields public function find($id){ if(isset(Monitor::members[$id]){ return Monitor::members[$id]; } $values = $this->selectStmt($id); //field mapping process omitted for brevity $Object = new Object($values); Monitor::new[$id]=$Object return $Object; } $User = $UserMapper->find(1);//domain object is registered in Id Map $User->changePropertyX();//object is marked "dirty" in UoW // at this point, I can save by passing the Domain Object back to the Mapper $UserMapper->save($User);//object is marked clean in UoW //but a nicer API would be something like this $User->save(); //but if I want to do this - it has to make a call to the mapper/db somehow $User->getBlogPosts(); //or else have to generate specific collection/object graphing methods in the mapper $UserPosts = $UserMapper->getBlogPosts(); $User->setPosts($UserPosts); Any advice on how you might handle this situation? I would be loathe to pass/generate instances of the mapper/database access into the Domain Object itself to satisfy DI - At the same time, avoiding that results in lots of calls within the Domain Object to external static methods. Although I guess if I want "save" to be part of its behaviour then a facility to do so is required in its construction. Perhaps it's a problem with responsibility, the Domain Object shouldn't be burdened with saving. It's just quite a neat feature from the Active Record pattern - it would be nice to implement it in some way.

    Read the article

  • Strange JPA one-to-many behavior when trying to set the "many" on the "one" entity

    - by errr
    I've mapped two entities using JPA (specifically Hibernate). Those entities have a one-to-many relationship (I've simplified for presentation): @Entity public class A { @ManyToOne public B getB() { return b; } } @Entity public Class B { @OneToMany(mappedBy="b") public Set<A> getAs() { return as; } } Now, I'm trying to create a relationship between two instances of these entities by using the setter of the one-side/not-owner-side of the relationship (i.e the table being referenced to): em.getTransaction().begin(); A a = new A(); B b = new B(); Set<A> as = new HashSet<A>(); as.add(a); b.setAs(as); em.persist(a); em.persist(b); em.getTransaction().commit(); But then, the relationship isn't persisted to the DB (the row created for entity A isn't referencing the row created for entity B). Why is it so? I'd excpect it to work. Also, if I remove the "mappedBy" property from the @OneToMany annotation it will work. Again - why is it so? and what are the possible effects for removing the "mappedBy" property?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 351 352 353 354 355 356 357 358 359 360 361 362  | Next Page >