Search Results

Search found 11042 results on 442 pages for 'side'.

Page 355/442 | < Previous Page | 351 352 353 354 355 356 357 358 359 360 361 362  | Next Page >

  • CSRF Protection in AJAX Requests using MVC2

    - by mnemosyn
    The page I'm building depends heavily on AJAX. Basically, there is just one "page" and every data transfer is handled via AJAX. Since overoptimistic caching on the browser side leads to strange problems (data not reloaded), I have to perform all requests (also reads) using POST - that forces a reload. Now I want to prevent the page against CSRF. With form submission, using Html.AntiForgeryToken() works neatly, but in AJAX-request, I guess I will have to append the token manually? Is there anything out-of-the box available? My current attempt looks like this: I'd love to reuse the existing magic. However, HtmlHelper.GetAntiForgeryTokenAndSetCookie is private and I don't want to hack around in MVC. The other option is to write an extension like public static string PlainAntiForgeryToken(this HtmlHelper helper) { // extract the actual field value from the hidden input return helper.AntiForgeryToken().DoSomeHackyStringActions(); } which is somewhat hacky and leaves the bigger problem unsolved: How to verify that token? The default verification implementation is internal and hard-coded against using form fields. I tried to write a slightly modified ValidateAntiForgeryTokenAttribute, but it uses an AntiForgeryDataSerializer which is private and I really didn't want to copy that, too. At this point it seems to be easier to come up with a homegrown solution, but that is really duplicate code. Any suggestions how to do this the smart way? Am I missing something completely obvious?

    Read the article

  • iOS 5 Audio Alarms Don't Sound Without kAudioSessionProperty_OverrideCategoryMixWithOthers On

    - by coneybeare
    I have an audio app that is having some problems with the way iOS 5 has changed audio behaviors. When my app's audio is playing (AVAudioSessionCategoryPlayback), and a Clock.app alarm or timer is fired from the OS, the UIAlertView notification pops up, but without the audio alert. My application sound ducks fine to get out of the way of the audio alert, but the alarm app's audio alert does not sound. Naturally, tons of support requests poured in over the iOS 5 change. I have solved this temporarily by setting kAudioSessionProperty_OverrideCategoryMixWithOthers which lets the alarm audio come through, but there are a few very undesirable side-effects when doing this: Other app's audio can play with/over mine. The remote control events are not routed to my app, but to iPod.app. None of the above drawbacks are acceptable for my app's requirements. I have been hacking away at this for some time now but haven't been able to crack it. How can I setup my audio such that: My app's audio still uses the AVAudioSessionCategoryPlayback category for background audio. The Clock.app alarms still have their audio alerts make sound The app still responds to remote control notifications

    Read the article

  • Java: Cleaning up what causes a connection reset

    - by Zombies
    There seems to be some confusion as well contradicting statements on various SO answers: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/585599/whats-causing-my-java-net-socketexception-connection-reset . You can see here that the accepted answer states that the connection was closed by other side. But this is not true, closing a connection doesn't cause a connection reset. It is cauesed by "an underlying TCP/IP error." What I want to know is if a SocketException: Connection reset means really besides "unerlying TCP/IP Error." What really causes this? As I doubt it has anything to do with the connection being closed (since closing a connection isn't an exception worthy flag, and reading from a closed connection is, but that isn't an "underlying TCP/IP error." My hypothesis is this Connection reset is caused from a server's failure to acknowledge an ACK packet (either wholly or just improperly as per TCP/IP). And that a SocketTimeoutException is generated only when no data is generated to be read (since this is thrown during a read after a certain duration, and read is waiting for data, but is not concerned with ACK packets). In other words, read() throws SocketTimeoutException if it didn't read any bytes of actual data (DATA LAYER) in its allotted time.

    Read the article

  • please clarify some aspects of AJAX with ASP.NET web forms for a beginner

    - by citrus
    Im familiar with asp.net web forms. I would now like to move on to writing web applications that use AJAX. I would like to get to the stage where I can create an app: that has "edit in place" (no page reload) where i can reorder images using drag and drop (also saves the order to DB) that has google like search suggestions while typing on the fly 1)So do I need to learn how to use AJAX.net and Jquery(my JS library of choice)? Can I make do using only AJAX.net or only Jquery? 2)As far a I know, Jquery will allow me to perform client side manipulations/actions and AJAX.net is the part that will allow me to connect some of my actions to the Server. EG. if I wanted to re-order elements using drag and drop, I would use Jquery, but in order to save the result of the re-order to the DB I would have to use AJAX.net correct? 2a)So In order to learn how to do the above Im thinking I should first learn Jquery so I know how to manipulate/ select elements, and then I can lean how to save these changes to the DB. 3)I searched the books titled "ASP.net AJAX in action" and ASP.net 3.5 AJAX, both of these books did not contain any references to "Jquery". Is this because they may be using a different JS library, or perhaps the book focuses on the AJAX user controls? I just found it confusing that 2 popular AJAX books dont make any reference to Jquery. Thanks for any help.

    Read the article

  • Trying to return data asynchronously using jQuery AND jSon in MVC 2.0

    - by Calibre2010
    Hi, I am trying to use Jquerys getJSON method to return data server side to my browser, what happens is the url the getJSON method points to does get reached but upon the postback the result does not get returned to the browser for some odd reason. I wasen't sure if it was because I was using MVC 2.0 and jQuery 1.4.1 and it differs to the MVC 1.0 version and jQuerys 1.3.2 version. . this is the code sections Controller public JsonResult StringReturn() { NameDTO myName = new NameDTO(); myName.nameID = 1; myName.name= "James"; myName.nameDescription = "Jmaes"; return Json(myName); } View with JQuery <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function () { $("#myButton").click(function () { $.getJSON("Home/StringReturn/", null, function (data) { alert(data.name); $("#show").append($("<div>" + data.name + "</div>")); }); }); }); </script> HTML <input type="button" value="clickMe" id="myButton"/> <div id="show">d</div>

    Read the article

  • Blob in Java/Hibernate/sql-server 2005

    - by Ramy
    Hi, I'm trying to insert an HTML blob into our sql-server2005 database. i've been using the data-type [text] for the field the blob will eventually live in. i've also put a '@Lob' annotation on the field in the domain model. The problem comes in when the HTML blob I'm attempting to store is larger than 65536 characters. Its seems that is the caracter-limit for a text data type when using the @Lob annotation. Ideally I'd like to keep the whole blob in tact rather than chunk it up into multiple rows in the database. I appreciate any help or insight that might be provided. Thanks! _Ramy Allow me to clarify annotation: @Lob @Column(length = Integer. MAX_VALUE) //per an answer on stackoverflow private String htmlBlob; database side (sql-server-2005): CREATE TABLE dbo.IndustrySectorTearSheetBlob( ... htmlBlob text NULL ... ) Still seeing truncation after 65536 characters... EDIT: i've printed out the contents of all possible strings (only 10 right now) that would be inserted into the Database. Each string seems to contain all cahracters, judging by the fact that the close html tag is present at the end of the string....

    Read the article

  • SQL View with Data from two tables

    - by Alex
    Hello! I can't seem to crack this - I have two tables (Persons and Companies), and I'm trying to create a view that: 1) shows all persons 2) also returns companies by themselves once, regardless of how many persons are related to it 3) orders by name across both tables To clarify, some sample data: (Table: Companies) Id Name 1 Banana 2 ABC Inc. 3 Microsoft 4 Bigwig (Table: Persons) Id Name RelatedCompanyId 1 Joe Smith 3 2 Justin 3 Paul Rudd 4 4 Anjolie 5 Dustin 4 The output I'm looking for is something like this: Name PersonName CompanyName RelatedCompanyId ABC Inc. NULL ABC Inc. NULL Anjolie Anjolie NULL NULL Banana NULL Banana NULL Bigwig NULL Bigwig NULL Dustin Dustin Bigwig 4 Joe Smith Joe Smith Microsoft 3 Justin Justin NULL NULL Microsoft NULL Microsoft NULL Paul Rudd Paul Rudd Bigwig 4 As you can see, the new "Name" column is ordered across both tables (the company names appear correctly in between the person names), and each company appears exactly once, regardless of how many people are related to it. Can this even be done in SQL?! P.S. I'm trying to create a view so I can use this later for easy data retrieval, fulltext indexing and make the programming side simpler by just querying the view.

    Read the article

  • asp.net how to add items programmatically to detailsview

    - by dotnet-practitioner
    I have the following code for each lookup table. So far I am doing copy/paste for each drop down list control. But I think there is a better way of doing this. I should be able to specify DataTextField, DataValueField, control names etc. Of course I will have to manually add configuration related database values on the database side like look up table, and other changes in the stored proc. But at the aspx page or .cs page, there has to be a better way then copy/paste.. <asp:TemplateField HeaderText="Your Ethnicity"> <EditItemTemplate> <asp:DropDownList ID="ddlEthnicity" runat="server" DataSourceid="ddlDAEthnicity" DataTextField="Ethnicity" DataValueField="EthnicityID" SelectedValue='<%#Bind("EthnicityID") %>' > </asp:DropDownList> </EditItemTemplate> <ItemTemplate > <asp:Label Runat="server" Text='<%# Bind("Ethnicity") %>' ID="lblEthnicity"> </asp:Label> </ItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateField> Please let me know... Thanks

    Read the article

  • Is it practical to program with your feet?

    - by bmm
    Has anyone tried using foot pedals in addition to the traditional keyboard and mouse combo to improve your effectiveness in the editor? Any actual experiences out there? Does it work, or is it just for carpal tunnel relief? I found one blog entry from a programmer who actually tried it: So now I can type using my feet for most of the modifier keys. I am using the pedals as I type this. I am still getting used to them, but the burning in my left wrist has definitely reduced. I think I can also type a little faster, but I am too lazy to do the speed tests with and without the pedals to verify this. On the negative side: Working out where to put your feet when you aren’t typing can be a little awkward. The pedals tend to move around the carpet, despite being metal and quite heavy. Some small spikes might have helped. Although the travel on the pedals is small, they are surprisingly stiff. Another programmer's experience: Anybody with hand pain must get foot pedals, since they can remove a tremendous load from your hands. I have two foot pedals, and use one for the SHIFT key, and the other for the CONTROL key. (I still type META by hand.) I have found that in the process of using the Emacs text editor to compose computer programs, I tend to use the SHIFT, CONTROL and META keys constantly, and it is easy to remove most of this load from one's hands. Some foot switch products: Savant Elite Triple Foot Switch FragPedal Bilbo Step On It!

    Read the article

  • When can a == b be false and a.Equals(b) true?

    - by alastairs
    I ran into this situation today. I have an object which I'm testing for equality; the Create() method returns a subclass implementation of MyObject. MyObject a = MyObject.Create(); MyObject b = MyObject.Create(); a == b; // is false a.Equals(b); // is true Note I have also over-ridden Equals() in the subclass implementation, which does a very basic check to see whether or not the passed-in object is null and is of the subclass's type. If both those conditions are met, the objects are deemed to be equal. The other slightly odd thing is that my unit test suite does some tests similar to Assert.AreEqual(MyObject.Create(), MyObject.Create()); // Green bar and the expected result is observed. Therefore I guess that NUnit uses a.Equals(b) under the covers, rather than a == b as I had assumed. Side note: I program in a mixture of .NET and Java, so I might be mixing up my expectations/assumptions here. I thought, however, that a == b worked more consistently in .NET than it did in Java where you often have to use equals() to test equality.

    Read the article

  • How do you obtain a formatted date and time for the current locale in C?

    - by jwaddell
    What C function should I call to obtain a formatted date and time for the locale where the program is being executed? I'm asking this question because I have run into a problem using the ClamAV daemon API. The VERSION command returns the date and time of the latest virus definitions, but the code uses a call to ctime to format it. As far as I can tell ctime does not format the datetime according to the current locale and uses the English abbreviations for days of the week and the month in the returned string. This causes problems as my Java program which uses the ClamAV API does respect the current locale and thus expects the day of the week and month name to have the local abbreviations. The datetime format would need to be in the same format as that produced by ctime: Www Mmm dd hh:mm:ss yyyy Where Www is the weekday, Mmm the month in letters, dd the day of the month, hh:mm:ss the time, and yyyy the year. I could rewrite the Java program to always assume English dates but I'd be happier to submit a patch to ClamAV as it seems like a bug on their side to me.

    Read the article

  • Optimizing PHP require_once's for low disk i/o?

    - by buggedcom
    Q1) I'm designing a CMS (-who isn't!) but priority is being given to caching. Literally everything is cached. DB rows, DB id queries, Configuration data, processed data, compiled templates. Currently it has two layers of caching. The first is a opcode cache or memory cache such as apc, eaccelerator, xcache or memcached. If an entry is not found in there it is then searched for in the secondary slow cache, ie php includes. Are the opcode caches actually faster than doing a require_once to a php file with a var_export'd array of data in it? My tests are inconclusive as my development box (5.3 of XAMPP) keeps throwing errors installing any of the aforementioned programs. Q2) The CMS has numerous helper classes that are autoloaded on demand instead of loading all files. Mostly each has a require before it so no autoloading needs to take place, however this is not the question. Because a page script can have up to 50/60 helper files included I have a feeling that if the site was under pressure it would buckle because of all the i/o that this incurs. Ignore for the moment that there is output cache in place that would remove the need for what I am about to suggest, and also that opcode caches would render this moot. What I have tried to do is join all the helper files required for the scripts execution in one single file. This is achievable and works well, however it has a side effect of greatly increasing the memory usage dramatically even though technically the same code is being used. What are your thoughts and opinions on this?

    Read the article

  • Get Mechanize to handle cookies from an arbitrary POST (to log into https://www.t-mobile.com/ progra

    - by Horace Loeb
    I want to log into https://www.t-mobile.com/ programmatically. My first idea was to use Mechanize to submit the login form: However, it turns out that this isn't even a real form. Instead, when you click "Log in" some javascript grabs the values of the fields, creates a new form dynamically, and submits it. "Log in" button HTML: <button onclick="handleLogin(); return false;" class="btnBlue" id="myTMobile-login"><span>Log in</span></button> The handleLogin() function: function handleLogin() { if (ValidateMsisdnPassword()) { // client-side form validation logic var a = document.createElement("FORM"); a.name = "form1"; a.method = "POST"; a.action = mytmoUrl; // defined elsewhere as https://my.t-mobile.com/Login/LoginController.aspx var c = document.createElement("INPUT"); c.type = "HIDDEN"; c.value = document.getElementById("myTMobile-phone").value; // the value of the phone number input field c.name = "txtMSISDN"; a.appendChild(c); var b = document.createElement("INPUT"); b.type = "HIDDEN"; b.value = document.getElementById("myTMobile-password").value; // the value of the password input field b.name = "txtPassword"; a.appendChild(b); document.body.appendChild(a); a.submit(); return true } else { return false } } I could simulate this form submission by POSTing the form data to https://my.t-mobile.com/Login/LoginController.aspx with Net::HTTP#post_form, but I don't know how to get the resultant cookie into Mechanize so I can continue to scrape the UI available when I'm logged in. Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • Jquery Internet Explorer 8 compatibility issue, does not load data unless history is deleted...

    - by Scarface
    Hey guys, I have a weird problem. I have an update system that refreshes data on a time interval. It works well in all browsers except internet explorer 8. The problem is that once it loads the data, it does not matter if the data updates further, it will not update the data visually until the internet history is cleared. I am not using any cookies server-side...Anyone ever encounter something like this? Here is my javascript, thanks for any assistance in advance function prepare(response) { var d = new Date(); count++; d.setTime(response.time*1000); var mytime = d.getHours()+':'+d.getMinutes()+':'+d.getSeconds(); var string = '<li class="shoutbox-list" id="list-'+count+'">' + '<span class="shoutbox-list-nick"><a href="statistics.php?user='+response.user+'">'+response.user+'</a></span>' + ' <span class="date">'+mytime+'</span><br>' + '<span class="msg">'+response.message+'</span>' +'</li>'; return string; } function refresh() { $.getJSON(files+"shoutbox.php?action=view&time="+lastTime+"&topic_id="+topic_id, function(json) { if(json.length) { for(i=0; i < json.length; i++) { $('#daddy-shoutbox-list').prepend(prepare(json[i])); $('#list-' + count).fadeIn(1500); } var j = i-1; lastTime = json[j].time; } //alert(lastTime); }); timeoutID = setTimeout(refresh, 3000); } $(document).ready(function() { var options = { dataType: 'json', beforeSubmit: validate, success: function(response, status){ if (response.error=='success'){ success(response, status); } else { $.prompt(response.error); } } }; $('#daddy-shoutbox-form').ajaxForm(options); timeoutID = setTimeout(refresh, 100); });

    Read the article

  • Encrypting an id in an URL in ASP.NET MVC

    - by Chuck Conway
    I'm attempting to encode the encrypted id in the Url. Like this: http://www.calemadr.com/Membership/Welcome/9xCnCLIwzxzBuPEjqJFxC6XJdAZqQsIDqNrRUJoW6229IIeeL4eXl5n1cnYapg+N However, it either doesn't encode correctly and I get slashes '/' in the encryption or I receive and error from IIS: The request filtering module is configured to deny a request that contains a double escape sequence. I've tried different encodings, each fails: HttpUtility.HtmlEncode HttpUtility.UrlEncode HttpUtility.UrlPathEncode HttpUtility.UrlEncodeUnicode Update The problem was I when I encrypted a Guid and converted it to a base64 string it would contain unsafe url characters . Of course when I tried to navigate to a url containing unsafe characters IIS(7.5/ windows 7) would blow up. Url Encoding the base64 encrypted string would raise and error in IIS (The request filtering module is configured to deny a request that contains a double escape sequence.). I'm not sure how it detects double encoded strings but it did. After trying the above methods to encode the base64 encrypted string. I decided to remove the base64 encoding. However this leaves the encrypted text as a byte[]. I tried UrlEncoding the byte[], it's one of the overloads hanging off the httpUtility.Encode method. Again, while it was URL encoded, IIS did not like it and served up a "page not found." After digging around the net I came across a HexEncoding/Decoding class. Applying the Hex Encoding to the encrypted bytes did the trick. The output is url safe. On the other side, I haven't had any problems with decoding and decrypting the hex strings.

    Read the article

  • Magento resource model for table with compound primary key

    - by sdek
    I am creating a custom module for a Magento ecommerce site, and the module will center around a new (ie, custom) table that has a compound/composite primary key, or rather the table has two columns that make up the primary key. Does anybody know how to create your models/resource models based on a table with a compound key? To give a few more details, I have looked up several tutorials and also used the excellent moduleCreator script. But it seems like all the tutorials revolve around the table having a PK with just one column in it. Something like this: class <Namespace>_<Module>_Model_Mysql4_<Module> extends Mage_Core_Model_Mysql4_Abstract { public function _construct(){ $this->_init('<module_alias>/<table_alias>', '<table_primary_key_id>'); } } Also, I just noticed that looking at the database model almost all tables have a single primary key. I understand this has much to do with the EAV-style db structure, but still is it possible to use a table with a compound PK? I want to stick with the Magento framework/conventions if possible. Is it discouraged? Should I just change the structure of my custom table to have some dummy id column? I do have the ability to do that, but geez! (Another side note that I thought I would mention is that it looks like the Zend Framework provides a way to base a class on a table with compound primary key (see Example #20 on this page - about half-way down), so it seems that the Magento framework should also provide for it... I just don't see how.)

    Read the article

  • Rails : fighting long http response times with ajax. Is it a good idea? Please, help with implementa

    - by baranov
    Hi, everybody! I've googled some tutorials, browsed some SO answers, and was unable to find a recipe for my problem. I'm writing a web site which is supposed to display almost realtime stock chart. Data is stored in constantly updating MySQL database, I wrote a find_by_sql query code which fetches all the data I need to get my chart drawn. Everything is ok, except performance - it takes from one second to one minute for different queries to fetch all the data from the database, this time includes necessary (My)SQL-server side calculations. This is simply unacceptable. I got the following idea: if the data is queried from the MySQL server one point a time instead of entire dataset, it takes only about 1-100ms to get an individual point. I imagine the data fetch process might be browser-driven. After the user presses the button in order to get a chart drawn, controller makes one request to the database and renders, say, a progress bar, say 1% ready. When the browser gets the response, it immediately makes an (ajax) request, and the server fetches the next piece of data and renders "2%". And so on, until all the data is ready and the server displays the requested chart. Could this be implemented in rails+js, is there a tutorial for solving a similar problem on the Web? I suppose if the thing is feasible at all, somebody should have already done this before. I have read several articles about ajax, I believe I do understand general principles, but never did nontrivial ajax programming myself. Thanks for your time!

    Read the article

  • Download file in coldfusion and read its content

    - by Deepak
    cfhttp with a get to download the files. Does anyone have an example of cfhttp working? Are there special settings that need to be set up on the server side to get this tag to work. When I try the following code: <CFHTTP METHOD = "get" URL="http://data.bls.gov/PDQ/servlet/SurveyOutputServlet?series_id=LNU04032231&years_option=specific_years&to_year=2010&from_year=2009&delimiter=comma&output_view&output_format=excelTable" path="/Users/Deepak" file="testfile.xls"> Nothing comes back to my computer? How do you get it to pop up the "where do you want to save the file box" dialogue box? I am submitting a form in coldfusion by hitting this link http://data.bls.gov/PDQ/servlet/SurveyOutputServlet?series_id=LNU04032231&years_option=specific_years&to_year=2010&from_year=2009&delimiter=comma&output_view&output_format=excelTable I am getting a excel file as a result. How can I save this file on my local box. Or, is it possible to directly read the content of file without saving it in my local box through coldfusion using cfftp or cfhttp? cfhttp.mimeType is application/vnd.ms-excel in this case. Thanks!!

    Read the article

  • What am I missing in IIS7?

    - by faded19
    Hello All, Ok here is my dilemma, I have been developing on a shared host at discountasp.net (IIS 6)for some time now. All was going well, however now that app is complete we are moving it to its own dedicated server which is now server 2008 and IIS 7. I am currently using asp forms authentication (which again seems to work just fine on IIS6) The issue seems to occur after I click login, it pops the "Signing In" box..an error then arises in the JavaScript of Membership.js "Object Does not Support Membership.js" I verified that the code was making it to: membership.BeginLogin(uid, pwd, rememberme); and was in fact passing the correct variables. Another odd thing I noticed when setting the forms permissions is that when I went to select Users or Roles within the IIS 7 management console it would take forever, and then time out with the following error: A Network related or instance specific error occurred while establishing a connection to SQL Server. The server was not or was not accessible, verify that the instance name is correct and that SQL Server is configured to allow remote connections (provider - named pipes provider: error 40 - could not open a connection to SQL Server.) I am rather weak on the hardware/configure side of the house so I am not really sure what the issue is, it’s almost as if IIS7 cannot see the DB. They both reside on the same server however. If anyone could help point me in the right direction as to how to resolve this I would be eternally grateful! Thanks in advance Bryan

    Read the article

  • Subscription Based Billing

    - by regex
    Hello All, I'm putting together a small start up company which will be set up with a subscription based billing model. The bill will go to customers on either a monthly or quarterly basis depending on the end user's preference. My question is two parted: I'm new to online billing and I'm only really aware of Pay Pal when it comes to third party bill payment, but this seems more like a check out system. I'm sure there are better alternatives than PayPal for third party billing processors (I have tried Googling for them, but I'm having trouble finding exactly what I'm looking for). What options (companies) are available for third party payment processing and what types of experiences (good or bad) have you had with them? We would like to give our customers the ability to set up recurring payments. I'd rather not store a customer's credit card number on our database as I imagine there are a plethora of compliance guidelines around this. Is there a third party solution for recurring payment processing? On a side note, this is not necessarily a code related question and is more business focused. I wasn't sure if there was a better route for posting this question, and please commont or modify this if there is another route I should take. Thanks!!

    Read the article

  • Adding a dynamic image to UITable View Cell

    - by Graeme
    Hi, I have a table in which I want a dynamic image to load in at the left-hand side. The table needs to use an IF statement to select the appropriate image from the "Resources" folder, and needs to be based upon [dog types]. The [dog types] is extracted from an RSS feed, and so the image in the table cell needs to match the each cell's [dog types] tag. Update: See code below for what I'm looking to do (only below it's for earthquakes, for me its pictures of dogs). I suspect I need to use - (UIImage *)imageForTypes:(NSString *)types { to do such a thing. Thanks. Updated code: This is for Apple's Earthquake sample but does exactly what I need to do. It matches images to the severity (2.0, 3.0, 4.0, 5.0 etc.) of every earthquake to the magnitude. - (UIImage *)imageForMagnitude:(CGFloat)magnitude { if (magnitude >= 5.0) { return [UIImage imageNamed:@"5.0.png"]; } if (magnitude >= 4.0) { return [UIImage imageNamed:@"4.0.png"]; } if (magnitude >= 3.0) { return [UIImage imageNamed:@"3.0.png"]; } if (magnitude >= 2.0) { return [UIImage imageNamed:@"2.0.png"]; } return nil; } and under - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath magnitudeImage.image = [self imageForMagnitude:earthquake.magnitude];

    Read the article

  • iPad: Cannot load facebook page wall in UIWebview

    - by geekay
    Its already too long i am struggling with this issue. After searching a lot I decided to post a question here. What my app does Captures photo Uploads the photo on the wall of the page Displays the facebook page wall in a UIWebview after upload is complete Everything was working as expected 4 days back :) Suddenly something went wrong :( Code NSString *facebookPageURL =@"https://m.facebook.com/pages/<myPageName>/<myPageID>?v=wall" UIWebView *webView = [[UIWebView alloc] initWithFrame:kAppFrame]; [webView setUserInteractionEnabled:NO]; [webView setBackgroundColor:[UIColor clearColor]]; webView.delegate = self; [webView setHidden: YES]; NSURL *url = [NSURL URLWithString:[facebookPageURL stringByAddingPercentEscapesUsingEncoding:NSUTF8StringEncoding] relativeToURL:[NSURL URLWithString:@"http://login.facebook.com"]]; NSMutableURLRequest *request = nil; if(url) request = [NSMutableURLRequest requestWithURL:url]; [webView loadRequest:request]; [self.view addSubview:webView]; [webView reload]; [self.view bringSubviewToFront:webView]; webView = nil; Scenario If I open the url facebookPageURL in Safari in iOS Simulator it works well If I open the url in any browser on Mac it works well In webView I see a white screen If I change the facebookPageURL to remove ?v=wall to ?v=info I am stil able to see the page.(not blank screen atleast). Note 1. My facebook Page is NOT unpublished and is visible. 2. I have cross checked the facebook page permissions. I suspect there is something changed on facebook side overnight. Please guide.

    Read the article

  • How to call a .NET COM method with an array from delphi using PSafeArray?

    - by Sebastian Godelet
    Hello. I have an .NET (4.0) interface which is implemented with a ServicedComponent COM+ class: interface DotNetIface { void MethodRef(var System.Guid guid); void MethodArray(System.Guid[] guids, params object[] parameters); void MethodCStyle([MarshalAs(UnmanagedType.LPArray, ArraySubType=UnmanagedType.Struct, SizeConst=5)]System.Guid[] guids); } Now I used the Delphi 2007 import wizard to import the type library, and as expected I get the following signatures: procedure MethodRef(var guid : TGuid); procedure MethodArray(guids : PSafeArray); procedure MethodCStyle(var guids : ClrGuid /* from mscorlib_TLB */); If i now call the "ref" method like this it works fine: procedure CallByRef(guid : TGuid); var test : TGuid; begin test := ... comRef.MethodRef(guid); end; Now I also need the array method procedure CallArray(); var localGuid : TGuid; arrayVariant : OleVariant; begin arrayVariant := VarArrayCreate([0,4], varVariant /* dont know here */); arrayVariant[0] := localGuid; /* compile error, cannot cast implicitly */ comRef.MethodArray(PSafeArray(TVarData(arrayVariant.VArray)), /* here this object... PSafeArray works actually*/); end; Now lastly i tried with a c array procedure CallCStyle(); var localGuid : TGuid; arrayOfGuid : array [0..4] of ClrGuid; begin arrayOfGuid[0] := ClrGuid(localGuid); comRef.MethodCStyle(PSafeArray(/* now i dont know put it*/, /* here this object... PSafeArray works actually*/); end; I seriously dont know how to make this work. I hope someone has more experience with COM marshalling thx Side node: I found VT_CLSID which i think can be passed for SafeArrayCreate, but I am not sure how to sue that

    Read the article

  • Active Directory - Query Group for all machines

    - by Ben Cawley
    Hi, I'm trying to obtain a list of all Machines that are members of a known group. I have the group GUID and am constructing a query using the "memberof=" format and filtering by ObjectClass. This works fine but doesn't return machines if the PrimaryGroup attribute of a machine is set to be the known group. In this case, that machine won't be returned. I've found the explanation of why this is in the following link (See Joe Kaplan's response) http://www.eggheadcafe.com/software/aspnet/29773581/active-directory-query-c.aspx Unfortunately the outlined answer is how to obtain the list of groups from a given user. I'd like to do the reverse and from a given group obtain the list of machines. It seems that the PrimaryGroup information is stored on the Machine/User side so I'm not sure if what I want to do is even possible. I had thought I would be able to query the TokenGroup attribute of the known group and then construct a query to return all machines that have the TokenGroup attribute set but it seems that not all groups have this attribute. Does anyone have any ideas or suggestions? If any clarification is needed let me know! Cheers, Ben

    Read the article

  • Best Practice: QT4 QList<Mything*>... on Heap, or QList<Mything> using reference?

    - by Mike Crowe
    Hi Folks, Learning C++, so be gentle :)... I have been designing my application primarily using heap variables (coming from C), so I've designed structures like this: QList<Criteria*> _Criteria; // ... Criteria *c = new Criteria(....); _Criteria.append(c); All through my program, I'm passing pointers to specific Criteria, or often the list. So, I have a function declared like this: QList<Criteria*> Decision::addCriteria(int row,QString cname,QString ctype); Criteria * Decision::getCriteria(int row,int col) which inserts a Criteria into a list, and returns the list so my GUI can display it. I'm wondering if I should have used references, somehow. Since I'm always wanting that exact Criteria back, should I have done: QList<Criteria> _Criteria; // .... Criteria c(....); _Criteria.append(c); ... QList<Criteria>& Decision::addCriteria(int row,QString cname,QString ctype); Criteria& Decision::getCriteria(int row,int col) (not sure if the latter line is syntactically correct yet, but you get the drift). All these items are specific, quasi-global items that are the core of my program. So, the question is this: I can certainly allocate/free all my memory w/o an issue in the method I'm using now, but is there are more C++ way? Would references have been a better choice (it's not too late to change on my side). TIA Mike

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 351 352 353 354 355 356 357 358 359 360 361 362  | Next Page >