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  • Eclipselink update existing tables

    - by javydreamercsw
    Maybe I got it wrong but i though that JPA was able to update an existing table (model changed adding a column) but is not working in my case. I can see in the logs eclipselink attempting to create it but failing because it already exists. Instead of trying an update to add the column it keeps going. (Had to remove some < so it displays) property name="javax.persistence.jdbc.url" value="jdbc:mysql://localhost:3306/jwrestling"/ property name="javax.persistence.jdbc.password" value="password"/ property name="javax.persistence.jdbc.driver" value="com.mysql.jdbc.Driver"/ property name="javax.persistence.jdbc.user" value="user"/ property name="eclipselink.ddl-generation" value="create-tables"/ property name="eclipselink.logging.logger" value="org.eclipse.persistence.logging.DefaultSessionLog"/ property name="eclipselink.logging.level" value="INFO"/ And here's the table with the change (online column added) [EL Warning]: 2010-05-31 14:39:06.044--ServerSession(16053322)--Exception [EclipseLink-4002] (Eclipse Persistence Services - 2.1.0.v20100517-r7246): org.eclipse.persistence.exceptions.DatabaseException Internal Exception: com.mysql.jdbc.exceptions.jdbc4.MySQLSyntaxErrorException: Table 'account' already exists Error Code: 1050 Call: CREATE TABLE account (ID INTEGER NOT NULL, USERNAME VARCHAR(32) NOT NULL, SECURITY_KEY VARCHAR(255) NOT NULL, EMAIL VARCHAR(64) NOT NULL, STATUS VARCHAR(8) NOT NULL, TIMEDATE DATETIME NOT NULL, PASSWORD VARCHAR(255) NOT NULL, ONLINE TINYINT(1) default 0 NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (ID)) Query: DataModifyQuery(sql="CREATE TABLE account (ID INTEGER NOT NULL, USERNAME VARCHAR(32) NOT NULL, SECURITY_KEY VARCHAR(255) NOT NULL, EMAIL VARCHAR(64) NOT NULL, STATUS VARCHAR(8) NOT NULL, TIMEDATE DATETIME NOT NULL, PASSWORD VARCHAR(255) NOT NULL, ONLINE TINYINT(1) default 0 NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (ID))") [EL Warning]: 2010-05-31 14:39:06.074--ServerSession(16053322)--Exception [EclipseLink-4002] (Eclipse Persistence Services - 2.1.0.v20100517-r7246): org.eclipse.persistence.exceptions.DatabaseException After this it continues with the following. Am I doing something wrong or is a bug?

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  • Is it possible to read data that has been separately copied to the Android sd card without having ro

    - by icecream
    I am developing an application that needs to access data on the sd card. When I run on my development device (an odroid with Android 2.1) I have root access and can construct the path using: File sdcard = Environment.getExternalStorageDirectory(); String path = sdcard.getAbsolutePath() + File.separator + "mydata" File data = new File(path); File[] files = data.listFiles(new FilenameFilter() { @Override public boolean accept(File dir, String filename) { return filename.toLowerCase().endsWith(".xyz"); }}); However, when I install this on a phone (2.1) where I do not have root access I get files == null. I assume this is because I do not have the right permissions to read the data from the sd card. I also get files == null when just trying to list files on /sdcard. So the same applies without my constructed path. Also, this app is not intended to be distributed through the app store and is needs to use data copied separately to the sd card so this is a real use-case. It is too much data to put in res/raw (I have tried, it did not work). I have also tried adding: <uses-permission android:name="android.permission.WRITE_EXTERNAL_STORAGE" /> to the manifest, even though I only want to read the sd card, but it did not help. I have not found a permission type for reading the storage. There is probably a correct way to do this, but I haven't been able to find it. Any hints would be useful.

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  • Naming convention for non-virtual and abstract methods

    - by eagle
    I frequently find myself creating classes which use this form (A): abstract class Animal { public void Walk() { // TODO: do something before walking // custom logic implemented by each subclass WalkInternal(); // TODO: do something after walking } protected abstract void WalkInternal(); } class Dog : Animal { protected override void WalkInternal() { // TODO: walk with 4 legs } } class Bird : Animal { protected override void WalkInternal() { // TODO: walk with 2 legs } } Rather than this form (B): abstract class Animal { public abstract void Walk(); } class Dog : Animal { public override void Walk() { // TODO: do something before walking // custom logic implemented by each subclass // TODO: walk with 4 legs // TODO: do something after walking } } class Bird : Animal { public override void Walk() { // TODO: do something before walking // custom logic implemented by each subclass // TODO: walk with 2 legs // TODO: do something after walking } } As you can see, the nice thing about form A is that every time you implement a subclass, you don't need to remember to include the initialization and finalization logic. This is much less error prone than form B. What's a standard convention for naming these methods? I like naming the public method Walk since then I can call Dog.Walk() which looks better than something like Dog.WalkExternal(). However, I don't like my solution of adding the suffix "Internal" for the protected method. I'm looking for a more standardized name. Btw, is there a name for this design pattern?

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  • Rails 2.3.2 trying to render ERB instead of HAML

    - by c00lryguy
    Rails is suddenly trying to render ERB instead of Haml and I can't figure out why. I've created new rails projects, reinstalled Haml, and reinstalled Rails. Here's exactly the steps I take when making my application (Rails 2.3.2): rails> rails test rails> cd test rails\test> haml --rails . rails\test> ruby script\generate model user email:string password:string rails\test> ruby script\generate controller users index rails\test> rake db:migrate Here's what the UsersController looks like: class UsersController < ApplicationController def index @users = User.all end end My routes: ActionController::Routing::Routes.draw do |map| map.resources :users end I now create views\users\index.html.haml: %table %th(style="text-align: left;") %h1 Users - for user in @users %tr %td= user.email %td= user.password Annnd run the server... I navigate to localhost:3000\users and I get this error message: Template is missing Missing template users/index.erb in view path app/views For some reason Rails is trying to find and render .erb files instead of .haml files. vendor\plugins\haml\init.rb exists, untouched. I've reinstalled Haml (Pretty Penny) multiple times and still get the same results. I've also tried adding config.gem 'haml' to my environment.rb but this also doesn't work. I can't figure out why suddenly rails will not render haml for me.

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  • CSS: Margin-top when parent's got no border

    - by Manny
    Hi, As you can see in this picture, I've got an orange div inside a green div with no top border. The orange div has a 30px top margin, but it's also pushing the green div down. Of course, adding a top border will fix the issue, but I need the green div to be top borderless. What could I do? html: <div class="header">Top</div> <div class="body"> <div class="container">Box</div> </div> <div class="foot">Bottom</div> css: .body { border: 1px solid black; border-top: none; border-bottom: none; width: 120px; height: 112px; background-color: lightgreen; } .body .container { background-color: orange; height: 50px; width: 50%; margin-top: 30px; } Thanks

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  • MapKit custom annotations being added to map, but are not visible on the map

    - by culov
    I learned a lot from the screencast at http://icodeblog.com/2009/12/21/introduction-to-mapkit-in-iphone-os-3-0/ , and ive been trying to incorporate the way he creates a custom annotation into my iphone app. He is hardcoding annotations and adding them individually to the map, whereas i want to add them from my data source. So i have an array of objects with a lat and a lng (ive checked that the values are within range and ought to be appearing on the map) that i iterate through and do [mapView addAnnotation:truck] once this process is completed, i check the number of annotations on the map with [[mapView annotations] count] and its equal to the number it ought to be, so all the annotations are getting added onto the mapView, but for some reason I cant see any annotations in the simulator. I've compared my code with his in all the pertinent places many times, but nothing seems to stand out as being incorrect. Ive also reviewed my code for the last several hours trying to find a point where I do something wrong, but nothing is coming to mind. The images are named just as they are assigned in the custom AnnotationView, the loadAnnotation function is done properly, etc... i dont know what it could be. so i suppose if i could have the answer to one question it would be, what are possible causes for a mapView to contain several annotations, but to not show any on the map? Thanks

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  • REST API error return good practices

    - by Remus Rusanu
    I'm looking for guidance on good practices when it comes to return errors from a REST API. I'm working on a new API so I can take it any direction right now. My content type is XML at the moment, but I plan to support JSON in future. I am now adding some error cases, like for instance a client attempts to add a new resource but has exceeded his storage quota. I am already handling certain error cases with HTTP status codes (401 for authentication, 403 for authorization and 404 for plain bad request URIs). I looked over the blessed HTTP error codes but none of the 400-417 range seems right to report application specific errors. So at first I was tempted to return my application error with 200 OK and a specific XML payload (ie. Pay us more and you'll get the storage you need!) but I stopped to think about it and it seems to soapy (/shrug in horror). Besides it feels like I'm splitting the error responses into distinct cases, as some are http status code driven and other are content driven. So what is the SO crowd recommendation? Good practices (please explain why!) and also, from a client pov, what kind of error handling in the REST API makes life easier for the client code?

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  • Qt - no such signal error

    - by bullettime
    I'm trying to trigger a signal when a double click happens in one of the draggable widgets on the fridge magnets example. Here's the changes I made to the example source: DragLabel: class DragLabel : public QLabel { public: DragLabel(const QString &text, QWidget *parent); QString labelText() const; public slots: void testSlot(){qDebug()<<"testSlot";} //<-- implemented this slot protected: void mouseDoubleClickEvent(QMouseEvent *ev){emit testSignal();} //<-- overriden this method private: QString m_labelText; signals: void testSignal(); //<-- added this signal }; The only thing I changed in the implementation file is adding connect(this,SIGNAL(testSignal()),this,SLOT(testSlot())); to DragLabel's constructor. Trying to compile the project resulted in 'undefined reference to `DragLabel::testSignal()' and 'collect2: ld returned 1 exit status' errors. When I comment out the call to the signal, it compiles and runs, but gives off 'Object::connect: No such signal QLabel::testSignal() in draglabel.cpp' warning in the application output. Apparently testSignal() isn't being recognized as a signal. What am I missing?

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  • Changing label content programmatically from within a DataTemplate used in a DataGrid column header

    - by iimpact
    I'm dynamically creating DataGrid columns (based on an event from my ViewModel) and programmatically adding them to an existing DataGrid. Each column uses a generic HeaderTemplate by setting it to a DataTemplate that has been identified in the xaml. The DataTemplate contains two labels in which needs their content needs to be changed upon creation of the DataGrid column. How would this be done? I understand that the DataTemplate uses the ContentPresenter but I am having trouble accessing it within a dynamically created DataGrid column. Code is as follows: xaml: (template used to format the DataGrid column header): <DataTemplate x:Key="columnTemplate"> <StackPanel> <Label Padding="0" Name="labelA"/> <Separator HorizontalAlignment="Stretch"/> <Label Padding="0" Name="labelB"/> </StackPanel> </DataTemplate> c#: (used to dynamically create a DataGrid column and add it to an existing DataGrid) var dataTemplate = FindResource("columnTemplate") as DataTemplate; var column = new DataGridTextColumn(); column.HeaderTemplate = dataTemplate; DataGrid1.Columns.Add(column); I would like to then access both labelA and labelB and change the content.

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  • How to Persist URL parameters when CakePHP form validation fails

    - by am2605
    Hi, I'm new to cakephp and trying to write a simple app with it, however I'm stuck with some form validation issues. I have a model named "Person" which hasMany "PersonSkill" objects. To add a "PersonSkill" to a person, I have set it up to call a url like this: http://localhost/myapp/person_skills/add/person_id:3 I have been passing through the person_id because I want to display the name of the person we are adding the skills for. My issue is if the validation fails, the person_id parameter is not persisted to the next request, so the person's name is not displayed. The add method on the controller looks like this: function add() { if (!empty($this->data)) { if ($this->PersonSkill->save($this->data)) { $this->Session->setFlash('Your person has been saved.'); $this->redirect(array('action' => 'view', 'id' => $this->PersonSkill->id)); } } else { $this->Person->id = $this->params['named']['person_id']; $this->set('person', $this->Person->read()); } } In my person_skill add.ctp I set a hidden field which holds the person_id, eg: echo $form->input('person_id', array('type'=>'hidden','value'=>$person['Person']['id'])); Is there a way to persist the person_id url parameter when form validation fails, or is there a better way to do this that I'm missing completely? Any advice would be greatly appreciated.

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  • Javascript: prototypeal inheritance and the prototype proprity

    - by JanD
    Hi, I have a simple code fragment in JS working with prototype inheritance. function object(o) { function F() {} F.prototype = o; return new F(); } //the following code block has a alternate version var mammal={ color: "brown", getColor: function(){ return this.color; } } var myCat = object(mammal); myCat.meow = function(){return "meow";} that worked fine but adding this: mammal.prototype.kindOf = "predator"; does not. ("mammal.prototype is undefined") Since I guessed that object maybe have no prototype I rewrote it, replacing the var mammal={... block with: function mammal(){ this.color="brown"; this.getColor = function(){return this.color;} } which gave me a bunch of other errors: "Function.prototype.toString called on incompatible object" and if I try to call _myCat.getColor() "myCat.getColor is not a function" Now I am totally confused. After reading Crockford, and Flanagan I did not get the solution for the errors. So it would be great if somebody knows... - why is the prototype undefined in the first example (which is foremost concern; I thought the prototype of explicitly set in the object() function) - why get I these strange errors trying to use the mammal function as prototype object in the object() function?

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  • Microsoft JScript runtime error: '(function name)' is undefined

    - by Velika2
    Microsoft JScript runtime error: 'txtGivenName_OnFocus' is undefined After adding what I thought was unrelated javascript code to a web page, I am suddenly getting errors that suggest that the browser cannot locate a javascript function that, to me, appears plain as day in design mode. I'm thinking that this is a load sequence order problem of some sort. Originally, my script was at the bottom of the page. I did this with the intent of helping my site's SEO ranking. When I moved the function to the top of the web page, the error went away. Now it is back. I have a feeling someone is going to suggest a jQuery solution to execute some code only when the page is fully loaded. I'm I ignorant of jQuery. IfjQuery is given in the answer, please explain what I need to do (references, placement of script files) for VS 2010 RTM. I am trying to set the focus to the first textbox on the webpage and preselect all of the text in the textbox More info: If I disable this Validator, the problem goes away: <asp:CustomValidator ID="valSpecifyOccupation" runat="server" ErrorMessage="Required" ClientValidationFunction="txtSpecifyOccupation_ClientValidate" Display="Dynamic" Enabled="False"></asp:CustomValidator> function txtSpecifyOccupation_ClientValidate(source, args) { var optOccupationRetired = document.getElementById("<%=optOccupationRetired.ClientID %>"); if (optOccupationRetired.checked) { args.IsValid = true; } else { var txtSpecifyOccupation = document.getElementById("<%=txtSpecifyOccupation.ClientID %>"); args.IsValid = ValidatorTrim(txtSpecifyOccupation.value) != ""; } }

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  • Categories of tags

    - by Peter Rowell
    I'm starting a pro bono project that is the web interface to the world's largest collection of lute music and it's a challenging collection from several points of view. The pieces are largely from 1400 to 1600, but they range from the mid-1200's to present day. Needless to say, there is tremendous variability in how the pieces are categorized and who they are attributed to. It is obvious that any sort of rigid, DB-enforced hierarchy isn't going to work with this collection, so my thoughts turn to tags. But not all tags are the same. I'll have tags that represent a person/role (composer, translator, entabulator, etc.), tags that represent the instrument(s) the piece in written for, and tags that represent how the piece has been classified by any one of half a dozen different classification systems used over the centuries. We will be using a semi-controlled tag vocabulary to prevent runaway tag proliferation (e.g. del.icio.us), but I want to treat the tags as belonging to different groups. People tags should not be offered when the editor is doing instrument tagging, etc. Has anyone done something like this? I have several ways I can think of to do it, but if there is an existing system that is well-done it would save me time implementing/debugging. FWIW: This is a Django system and I'm looking at starting with Django-tagging and then hacking from there, possibly adding a category field or ...

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  • if (i == 2) or if (2 == i) ?

    - by Maroloccio
    I usually use if (i == 2) in preference to if (2 == i) On occasion, I would switch things around when writing xUnit-type tests from scratch so as to follow the assertion convention of "expected" preceding "actual". When adding to existing unit tests, I always follow the style I find. No matter what, I always try to keep things consistent. Today I checked out some code with a lot of "if (2 == i)" and started wondering: which style is more "popular" nowadays? is popularity language-dependent? The latter probably because I am aware of why the "if (2 == i)" became common in the first place (C heritage) and because I see some languages go as far as disallowing assignments within conditions (e.g. Python). I thought about downloading some sources: apt-get source linux-source eclipse openoffice.org expanding them and performing a quick grep: grep --color --include=*.java --include=*.c -ERI \ "if[[:space:]]*\([[:space:]]*[[:digit:]]+[[:space:]]==" . or creating a quick "poll": http://goo.gl/mod/ciMF after a bit of searching and asking around, I am still not sure. So I am asking you: which way to go?

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  • Open Source: Why not release into Public Domain?

    - by Goosey
    I have recently been wondering why so little code is ever released as 'Public Domain'. MIT and BSD licenses are becoming extremely popular and practically only have the restriction of license propagation. The reasons I can think of so far are: Credit - aka Prestige, Street-cred, 'Props', etc. Authors don't want usage of the code restricted, but they also want credit for creating the code. Two problems with this reason. I have seen projects copy/paste the MIT or BSD license without adding the 'Copyright InsertNameHere' thereby making it a tag-along license that doesn't give them credit. I have talked to authors who say they don't care about people giving them credit, they just want people to use their code. Public Domain would make it easier for people to do so. License Change - IANAL, but I believe by licensing their code, even with an extremely nonrestrictive license, this means they can change the license on a later revision? This reason is not good for explaining most BSD/MIT licensed code which seems to have no intent of ever becoming more restrictive. AS IS - All licenses seem to have the SCREAMING CAPS declaration saying that the software is 'as is' and that the author offers no implied or express warranty. IANAL, but isn't this implied in public domain? Am I missing some compelling reason? The authors I have talked to about this basically said something along the lines of "BSD/MIT just seems like what you do, no one does public domain". Is this groupthink in action, or is there a compelling anti-public domain argument? Thanks EDIT: I am specifically asking about Public Domain vs BSD/MIT/OtherEquallyUnrestrictiveLicense. Not GPL. Please understand what these licenses allow, and this includes: Selling the work, changing the work and not 'giving the changes back', and incorporating the work in a differently (such as commercially) licensed work. Thank You to everyone who has replied who understands what BSD/MIT means.

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  • Windows Azure: asp.net <appsetting> for ChatHttpHandler not found

    - by veda
    I have a problem in setting the chartHttpHandler in web.config for windows azure Initially I added a chartHttpHandler on my web.config file <remove name="ChartImageHandler"/> <add name="ChartImageHandler" preCondition="integratedMode" verb="GET,HEAD" path="ChartImg.axd" type="System.Web.UI.DataVisualization.Charting.ChartHttpHandler, System.Web.DataVisualization, Version=3.5.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31bf3856ad364e35"/> under system.webServer section Then I got an error stating Invalid temp directory in chart handler configuration [c:\TempImageFiles\]. Then I found that I should change in From <add key="ChartImageHandler" value="storage=file;timeout=20;dir=c:\TempImageFiles\;" /> To <add key="ChartImageHandler" value="storage=file;timeout=20;" /> I am not able to find this section in my web.config file. So I tried to add it under section but it gave me error that it is an invalid child Likewise, I tried adding it under section, it too gave the same error... So, I added sepeartely, Then I am not able to see anything.. The webpage is just blank... What should I have to do.. Can anyone tell me "how to solve it"

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  • How do I add IIS Virtual Directories and arbitrary files in TFS Solution

    - by chriscena
    We have a web portal product from which we customize portals from customers. We use the precompiled web app and create a virtual directory (vd) where the customization resides. In addition to this we do some changes web.config in the web app folder. We would obviously like to keep these customizations under TFS source control. When I try to add the precompiled web app (which I don't want to add to source control), a warning tells me that the vds cannot be added. If I only add the folder that is referenced to by the vd, I lose the references to assemblies in the precompiled web app. My questions are: How do I structure a solution for adding IIS (sub application level) virtual directories and still retain the references to assemblies? Is it possible to add other directories/files from the web application level (like App_Theme, web.config etc.) to the solution? Since we already use Visual Source Safe, we have established a tree structure for each customization project: Project Root | |-Custom Sql | |-Custom Portal Files (which is added as a virtual directory) | |-Other Customizations I could probably do a lot of this manually through the source control explorer, but I'd like to have everything done through a solution. I've followed the instructions using this article: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb668986.aspx, but this doesn't address the exact problem that I have. Oh, and we are currently using Visual Source Safe for portal customizaton, but are eager to make the move to TFS. TIA

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  • How do I add a header with data to a QTableWidget in Qt?

    - by San Jacinto
    Hi, I'm still learning Qt and I am indebted to the SO community for providing me with great, very timely answers to my Qt questions. Thank you. I'm quite confused on the idea of adding a header to a QTableWidget. What I'd like to do is have a table that contains information about team members. Each row for a member should contain his first and last name, each in its own cell, an email address in one cell, and office in the other cell. I'd to have a header above these columns to name them as appropriate. I'm trying to start off easy and get just the header to display "Last" (as in last name). Here is my code. int column = m_ui-teamTableWidget-columnCount(); m_ui-teamTableWidget-setColumnCount(column+1); QString* qq = new QString("Last"); m_ui-teamTableWidget-horizontalHeader()-model()-setHeaderData(0, Qt::Horizontal, QVariant(QVariant::String, &qq)); My table gets rendered corretly, but the header doesn't contain what I would expect. It contains 1 cell that contains the text "1". I am obviously doing something very silly here that is wrong, but i am lost. I keep pouring over the documentation, finding nothing. Here are the documentation links to the function calls I am making for the very last line. http://doc.trolltech.com/4.5/qtableview.html#horizontalHeader http://doc.trolltech.com/4.5/qabstractitemview.html#model http://doc.trolltech.com/4.5/qabstractitemmodel.html#setHeaderData Thanks for any and all help. Edit: HOW I SOLVED THE PROBLEM Using some help from the accepted answer, I came up with the following code: m_ui-teamTableWidget-setColumnCount(m_ui-teamTableWidget-columnCount()+1); QTableWidgetItem* qtwi = new QTableWidgetItem(QString("Last"),QTableWidgetItem::Type); m_ui-teamTableWidget-setHorizontalHeaderItem(0,qtwi);

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  • jQuery: Inserting li items one by one?

    - by Legend
    I wrote the following (part of a jQuery plugin) to insert a set of items from a JSON object into a <ul> element. ... query: function() { ... $.ajax({ url: fetchURL, type: 'GET', dataType: 'jsonp', timeout: 5000, error: function() { self.html("Network Error"); }, success: function(json) { //Process JSON $.each(json.results, function(i, item) { $("<li></li>") .html(mHTML) .attr('id', "div_li"+i) .attr('class', "divliclass") .prependTo("#" + "div_ul"); $(slotname + "div_li" + i).hide(); $(slotname + "div_li" + i).show("slow") } } }); } }); }, ... Doing this maybe adding the <li> items one by one theoretically but when I load the page, everything shows up instantaneously. Instead, is there an efficient way to make them appear one by one more slowly? I'll explain with a small example: If I have 3 items, this code is making all the 3 items appear instantaneously (at least to my eyes). I want something like 1 fades in, then 2 fades in, then 3 (something like a newsticker perhaps). Anyone has a suggestion?

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  • CakePHP form $options['options']

    - by James
    Hey! Total CakePHP noob here. This is sort of a two fold question. In a view that is used for adding user objects I would like to use a drop down (selection) field in the form. Each user belongs to a group so when I add a user I want a drop down that contains all of the groups that the user could possibly join. Currently the group_id field is a textfield. I know how to force it to be a selection field, but I don't know how to populate the selection with the names of the groups programmatically. The Current method: echo $form->input('group_id', array( '1' => 'NameOfGroup1', '2' => 'NameOfGroup2', '3' => 'NameOfGroup3') ); I want to generate the options array programmatically though. echo $form->input('group_id', $this->Group->find('list')); This doesn't work though. I get an error: Undefined property: View::$Group [APP/views/users/add.ctp, line 8] To me this means that I don't have access to the Group object from inside my user view. How can I accomplish this? Again, I want to do it programmatically so that it updates as I add groups or remove them.

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  • Forwarding first responder to UIScrollView unsuccessful

    - by Winston
    Hello, I am trying to create an image cropping bpx whereby the underlying image can be zoomed an scrolled while the cropping "maskview" layer stays the same and the corners can be dragged in any direction. To achieve this, the ImageView is added to a UIScrollView, and this is added to the SelectionViewController.view . I then add the cropping "maskview" layer to the SelectionViewController.view. I did this instead of adding to the scrollview so that the cropping maskview won't be expanded when the underlying image expands. @interface SelectionViewController : UIViewController <UIScrollViewDelegate> { UIImageView *photoview; // Added to self.scrollview MaskedView *maskedview; // Added to self.view UIScrollView *scrollview; // Added to self.view } The maskview has first responder status and responds accordingly. However, the only event I am interested in the maskview is if any of the corners are dragged (this works fine). The problem I want to try to solve is two-fold: If it is a pinch or zoom gesture, I am trying to forward the responder to the UIScrollview using: [self.nextResponder touchesMoved:touches withEvent:event]; The scrollview does not seem to respond. I have confirmed that the self.nextResponder after the maskedview is the SelectionViewController's view itself. From there, it doesn't seem like the UIScrollview responds. It does respond fine if I remove the cropping maskedview. If I zoom in on the underlying image and the cropping maskview rectangle is still the same, I want to now crop the actual zoomed image. Let's say for the upper left hand corner of the crop box, how can I find what the coordinates translates to in the underlying UIImageView now that the image has been zoomed? Any insight into either of these questions would be appreciated. Thank you, Winston

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  • Why can't I add to the middle of an array with Perl's Tie::File?

    - by SCNCN2010
    File : #comment1 #comment2 #comment3 #START HERE a: [email protected] b: [email protected] my perl program : use Data::Dumper; use Tie::File; tie my @array, 'Tie::File', 'ala.txt' or die $!; my $rec = 'p: [email protected]'; my $flag =1 ; my $add_flag = 0; for my $i (0..$#array) { next if ($array[$i] =~ /^\s*$/); if ( $flag == 1 ) { if ($array[$i] =~ /#START HERE/ ) { $flag = 0; } else { next ; } } if (($array[$i] cmp $rec) == 1) { splice @array, $i, 0, $rec; $add_flag = 1; last ; } } if ( $add_flag == 0 ) { my $index = $#array+1; $array[$index] = $rec ; } the recording adding end of file always . I am trying to add to middle or begin or end like aplphbetical order Edit 2 : I want to do with Tie::FILE only . after add : (after 2 execution ) #comment1 #comment2 #comment3 #START HERE a: [email protected] b: [email protected] p: [email protected] a: [email protected] # if i add another record of a Expection : #comment1 #comment2 #comment3 #START HERE a: [email protected] a: [email protected] b: [email protected] p: [email protected] q: [email protected]

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  • Outputing value of TrueClass / FalseClass to integer or string/

    - by Nick Gorbikoff
    Hello. I'm trying to figure out if there is an easy way to do the following short of adding to_i method to TrueClass/FalseClass. Here is a dilemma: I have a boolean field in my rails app - that is obviously stored as Tinyint in mysql. However - I need to generate xml based of the data in mysql and send it to customer - there SOAP service requires the field in question to have 0 or 1 as the value of this field. So at the time of the xml generation I need to convert my False to 0 and my True to 1 ( which is how they are stored in the DB). Since True & False lack to_i method I could write some if statement that generate either 1 or 0 depending on true/false state. However I have about 10 of these indicators and creating and if/else for each is not very DRY. So what you recommend I do? Or I could add a to_i method to the True / False class. But I'm not sure where should I scope it in my rails app? Just inside this particular model or somewhere else?

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  • Working around "one executable per project" in Visual C# for many small test programs

    - by Kevin Ivarsen
    When working with Visual Studio in general (or Visual C# Express in my particular case), it looks like each project can be configured to produce only one output - e.g. a single executable or a library. I'm working on a project that consists of a shared library and a few application, and I already have one project in my solution for each of those. However, during development I find it useful to write small example programs that can run one small subsystem in isolation (at a level that doesn't belong in the unit tests). Is there a good way to handle this in Visual Studio? I'd like to avoid adding several dozen separate projects to my solution for each small test program I write, especially when these programs will typically be less than 100 lines of code. I'm hoping to find something that lets me continue to work in Visual Studio and use its build system (rather than moving to something like NAnt). I could foresee the answer being something like: A way of setting this up in Visual Studio that I haven't found yet A GUI like NUnit's graphical runner that searches an assembly for classes with defined Main() functions that you can select and run A command line tool that lets you specify an assembly and a class with a Main function to run

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  • C# compiler error CS0006: metadata file is not found

    - by Rob
    I've built a c# compiler using the tutorial on MSDN and a few other resources including here, and I've gotten it to work until I add additional reference assemblies. My errors stem from adding "System.dll" and "System.Windows.Forms.dll" to the ReferenceAssemblies list. here's my code: private void SetUpCompilingParameters() { string ver = string.Format("{0}.{1}.{2}", Environment.Version.Major, Environment.Version.MajorRevision, Environment.Version.Build); string libDir = string.Format(@"{0}", Environment.CurrentDirectory); string raDir = @"C:\Program Files (x86)\Reference Assemblies\Microsoft\Framework\.NETFramework\v4.0"; string exWpfDir = string.Format(@"C:\WINDOWS\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v{0}\WPF", ver); string exDir = string.Format(@"C:\WINDOWS\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v{0}", ver); MyCompiler = new CSharpCodeProvider(); CompilingParam = new CompilerParameters(); CompilingParam.GenerateExecutable = false; CompilingParam.GenerateInMemory = true; CompilingParam.IncludeDebugInformation = false; CompilingParam.TreatWarningsAsErrors = false; CompilingParam.CompilerOptions = string.Format("/lib:{0}", libDir); CompilingParam.CompilerOptions = string.Format("/lib:{0}", raDir); CompilingParam.CompilerOptions = string.Format("/lib:{0}", exDir); //CompilingParam.CompilerOptions = string.Format("/lib:{0}", exWpfDir); CompilingParam.ReferencedAssemblies.Add("System.dll"); CompilingParam.ReferencedAssemblies.Add("System.Windows.Forms.dll"); } As you can see, I've explicitly referenced directories in CompilerOptions but its not helping. I'd like to test the solution on here on stackoverflow that utilizes: CompilingParam.ReferencedAssemblies.Add(typeof(System.Xml.Linq.Extensions).Assembly.Location); but I'm having trouble using it for the general System.dll etc...

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