Search Results

Search found 32789 results on 1312 pages for 'object relational mapping'.

Page 356/1312 | < Previous Page | 352 353 354 355 356 357 358 359 360 361 362 363  | Next Page >

  • Get Specific Data From Array, Based On Another Value

    - by A Smith
    I have an array that outputs these values: Array ( [0] => stdClass Object ( [ID] => 6585 [COLOR] => red [Name] => steve ) [1] => stdClass Object ( [ID] => 5476 [COLOR] => blue [Name] => sol ) [2] => stdClass Object ( [ID] => 7564 [COLOR] => yellow [Name] => jake ) [3] => stdClass Object ( [ID] => 3465 [COLOR] => green [Name] => helen ) ) Now, I will know the ID of the person, and I need the get the COLOR value for that specific value set. How is this best achieved please?

    Read the article

  • Simple Database normalization question...

    - by user365531
    Hi all, I have a quick question regarding a database that I am designing and making sure it is normalized... I have a customer table, with a primary key of customerId. It has a StatusCode column that has a code which reflects the customers account status ie. 1 = Open, 2 = Closed, 3 = Suspended etc... Now I would like to have another field in the customer table that flags whether the account is allowed to be suspended or not... certain customers will be automatically suspended if they break there trading terms... others not... so the relevant table fields will be as so: Customers (CustomerId(PK):StatusCode:IsSuspensionAllowed) Now both fields are dependent on the primary key as you can not determine the status or whether suspensions are allowed on a particular customer unless you know the specific customer, except of course when the IsSuspensionAllowed field is set to YES, the the customer should never have a StatusCode of 3 (Suspended). It seems from the above table design it is possible for this to happen unless a check contraint is added to my table. I can't see how another table could be added to the relational design to enforce this though as it's only in the case where IsSuspensionAllowed is set to YES and StatusCode is set to 3 when the two have a dependence on each other. So after my long winded explanation my question is this: Is this a normalization problem and I'm not seeing a relational design that will enforce this... or is it actually just a business rule that should be enforced with a check contraint and the table is in fact still normalized. Cheers, Steve

    Read the article

  • Python namespace in between builtins and global?

    - by Paul
    Hello, As I understand it python has the following outermost namespaces: Builtin - This namespace is global across the entire interpreter and all scripts running within an interpreter instance. Globals - This namespace is global across a module, ie across a single file. I am looking for a namespace in between these two, where I can share a few variables declared within the main script to modules called by it. For example, script.py: import Log from Log import foo from foo log = Log() foo() foo.py: def foo(): log.Log('test') # I want this to refer to the callers log object I want to be able to call script.py multiple times and in each case, expose the module level log object to the foo method. Any ideas if this is possible? It won't be too painful to pass down the log object, but I am working with a large chunk of code that has been ported from Javascript. I also understand that this places constraints on the caller of foo to expose its log object. Thanks, Paul

    Read the article

  • does mysql stored procedures support data types like array, hash,etc?

    - by Yang
    i am creating a mysql function which takes in a varchar and change it to a int based on a mapping table. select name, convert_to_code(country) from users where sex = 'male' here, the convert_to_code() function takes in a country name (e.g. Japan, Finland..) and change it to country code which is an integer (e.g. 1001, 2310..) based on a mapping table called country_maping like below: country_name (varchar) | country_code (int) Japan | 1001 Finland | 2310 Canada | 8756 currently, the stored function need to select country_code from country_mapping where country_name = country_name and return the query result. is that possible to create a hash data struct in SP to optimize the process so that it will not need to perform the query for each row matches the where clause. thanks in advance!

    Read the article

  • c++ how to ? function_x ( new object1 )

    - by ismail marmoush
    Hi i want to do the next instead of MyClass object; function_x (object); i want to function_x ( new object ); so what will be the structure of the MyClass to be able to do that .. if i just compiled it , it gives me a compile time error answer function_x (MyClass() ) New Edit thanks for the quick answers.. i did ask the wrong Question i should have asked how temporary variables created in C++ and the answer

    Read the article

  • jboss connection pooling

    - by Web
    I have a question related to Prepared Steatement pooling (across all connections). Here's the config file <datasources> <local-tx-datasource> <jndi-name>JNDI-NAME</jndi-name> <connection-url>jdbc:mysql://<server_name>/<database_name>?useServerPrepStmts=true</connection-url> <driver-class>com.mysql.jdbc.Driver</driver-class> <user-name>xxx</user-name> <password>xxxxx</password> <min-pool-size>10</min-pool-size> <max-pool-size>20</max-pool-size> <idle-timeout-minutes>20</idle-timeout-minutes> <exception-sorter-class-name>org.jboss.resource.adapter.jdbc.vendor.MySQLExceptionSorter</exception-sorter-class-name> <valid-connection-checker-class-name>org.jboss.resource.adapter.jdbc.vendor.MySQLValidConnectionChecker</valid-connection-checker-class-name> <background-validation>true</background-validation> <background-validation-minutes>5</background-validation-minutes> <prepared-statement-cache-size>100</prepared-statement-cache-size> <share-prepared-statements>true</share-prepared-statements> <!-- sql to call when connection is created <new-connection-sql>some arbitrary sql</new-connection-sql> --> <!-- sql to call on an existing pooled connection when it is obtained from pool - MySQLValidConnectionChecker is preferred for newer drivers <check-valid-connection-sql>some arbitrary sql</check-valid-connection-sql> --> <!-- corresponding type-mapping in the standardjbosscmp-jdbc.xml --> <metadata> <type-mapping>mySQL</type-mapping> </metadata> </local-tx-datasource> </datasources> It seems that this line: <background-validation-minutes>5</background-validation-minutes> doesn't cause any problems with Prepared Statements, but: <idle-timeout-minutes>20</idle-timeout-minutes> causes that all connections are removed and re-created if there was no traffic for the last 20 minutes. Because of that existing Prepared Statements are removed from the pool of cached Prepared Statements. How to overcome this issue? I have to use idle-timeout-minutes because MySQL server closes the connection after 8h

    Read the article

  • JQuery methods and DOM properties

    - by Bob Smith
    I am confused as to when I can use the DOM properties and when I could use the Jquery methods on a Jquery object. Say, I use a selector var $elemSel = $('#myDiv').find('[id *= \'select\']') At this point, $elemSel is a jquery object which I understand to be a wrapper around the array of DOM elements. I could get a reference to the DOM elements by iterating through the $elemSel object/array (Correct?) My questions: 1. Is there a way to convert this $elemSel into a non JQuery regular array of DOM elements? 2. Can I combine DOM properties and JQuery methods at the same time (something like this) $elemSel.children('td').nodeName (nodeName is DOM related, children is JQuery related) EDIT: What's wrong with this? $elemSel.get(0).is(':checked') EDIT 2: Thanks for the responses. I understand now that I can use the get(0) to get a DOM element. Additional questions: How would I convert a DOM element to a JQuery object? If I assign "this" to a variable, is that new var DOM or JQuery? If it's JQuery, how can I convert this to a DOM element? (Since I can't use get(0)) var $elemTd = $(this); When I do a assignment like the one above, I have seen some code samples not include the $ sign for the variable name. Why? And as for my original question, can I combine the DOM properties and JQuery functions at the same time on a JQuery object? $elemSel.children('td').nodeName

    Read the article

  • Executing logic before save or validation with EF Code-First Models

    - by Ryan Norbauer
    I'm still getting accustomed to EF Code First, having spent years working with the Ruby ORM, ActiveRecord. ActiveRecord used to have all sorts of callbacks like before_validation and before_save, where it was possible to modify the object before it would be sent off to the data layer. I am wondering if there is an equivalent technique in EF Code First object modeling. I know how to set object members at the time of instantiation, of course, (to set default values and so forth) but sometimes you need to intervene at different moments in the object lifecycle. To use a slightly contrived example, say I have a join table linking Authors and Plays, represented with a corresponding Authoring object: public class Authoring { public int ID { get; set; } [Required] public int Position { get; set; } [Required] public virtual Play Play { get; set; } [Required] public virtual Author Author { get; set; } } where Position represents a zero-indexed ordering of the Authors associated to a given Play. (You might have a single "South Pacific" Play with two authors: a "Rodgers" author with a Position 0 and a "Hammerstein" author with a Position 1.) Let's say I wanted to create a method that, before saving away an Authoring record, it checked to see if there were any existing authors for the Play to which it was associated. If no, it set the Position to 0. If yes, it would find set the Position of the highest value associated with that Play and increment by one. Where would I implement such logic within an EF code first model layer? And, in other cases, what if I wanted to massage data in code before it is checked for validation errors? Basically, I'm looking for an equivalent to the Rails lifecycle hooks mentioned above, or some way to fake it at least. :)

    Read the article

  • Strange Values in SYS.DM_TRAN_LOCKS table RESOURCE_ASSOCIATED_ENTITY_ID column

    - by AJM
    I’ve been trying to understand some strange values in the RESOURCE_ASSOCIATED_ENTITY_ID column of SYS.DM_TRAN_LOCKS when RESOURCE_TYPE is “OBJECT”. Although these should be object Ids, I cannot determine what object they actually refer to. I’ve tried everything I can think of, including querying all system tables with columns of type INT and BIGINT to see if I can find the value. No luck. The funny values actually appear in SYS.DM_TRAN_LOCKS, SYS.SYSLOCKINFO and SP_LOCK.

    Read the article

  • Py_INCREF/DECREF: When

    - by Izz ad-Din Ruhulessin
    Is one correct in stating the following: If a Python object is created in a C function, but the function doesn't return it, no INCREF is needed, but a DECREF is. [false]If the function does return it, you do need to INCREF, in the function that receives the return value.[/false] When assigning C typed variables as attributes, like double, int etc., to the Python object, no INCREF or DECREF is needed. Assigning Python objects as attributes to your other Python objects goes like this: PyObject *foo; foo = bar // A Python object tmp = self->foo; Py_INCREF(foo); self->foo = foo; Py_XDECREF(tmp); //taken from the manual, but it is unclear if this works in every situation EDIT: -- can I safely use this in every situation? (haven't run into one where it caused me problems) dealloc of a Python object needs to DECREF for every other Python object that it has as an attribute, but not for attributes that are C types. Edit With 'C type as an attribute I mean bar and baz: typedef struct { PyObject_HEAD PyObject *foo; int bar; double baz; } FooBarBaz;

    Read the article

  • C# Converter difficulties

    - by Petr
    Hi, I am trying to fill object[] with List<string> but I cannot figure out how to use ConvertAll. MSDN did not help me. At first I tried to create an instance of Converter but it looks like it expects delegate? Converter<string, object> conv = new Converter<string, object>(??); //why delegate? this.comboBox1.Items.AddRange(Form1.AnimalType.ConvertAll<object>(conv)); Thanks :)

    Read the article

  • give control in datalist color

    - by KareemSaad
    I had datalist as menu that display categories and subs and I want to give red color or css for the selected item(category or sub) I tried but I had a problem This is my code private Label Lb; protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { } protected void dlCategory_ItemDataBound(object sender, DataListItemEventArgs e) { if (e.Item.ItemType == ListItemType.Item || e.Item.ItemType == ListItemType.AlternatingItem) { Lb = (Label)e.Item.FindControl("LblCat"); } } protected void dlCategory_SelectedIndexChanged(object sender, EventArgs e) { Lb.ForeColor = System.Drawing.Color.Red; } }

    Read the article

  • error handeling in informatca power center

    - by user223541
    i want to devlop a mapping for followinfg scenerio . I have a 1 source and 1 target and 1 error table.Target and Error tables have all fields that are present in source tables.But the data type o of all fieds for error table are varchar .Error table dont have integirty or foreign key and other constraints . Error table also have2 more fileds .Error no and error msg. Now when the workflow is executed if there is erro while inserting any record then that recored shold be moved to error table.Also the data base error code and error message should be logged in error no and error message in error tables fields as mentioned. How can i devlop such a mappng?Where can i find exaples of such mapping ?

    Read the article

  • How can I inherit an ASP.NET MVC controller and change only the view?

    - by AlexWalker
    I have a controller that's inheriting from a base controller, and I'm wondering how I can utilize all of the logic from the base controller, but return a different view than the base controller uses. The base controller populates a model object and passes that model object to its view, but I'm not sure how I can access that model object in the child controller so that I can pass it to the child controller's view.

    Read the article

  • SubSonic 3.0 - Save method with all columns as parameters?

    - by Todd Menier
    Hi, Just getting started with SubSonic. I'm using the Repository pattern, so my domain objects are totally seperate, and SubSonic-generated classes are used only in my data access layer. I'm wondering if a template exists that will give me a Save method (Insert/Update) that requires all table column values as parameters. My thinking is that since I need to do the mapping work manually, at least if my database schema changes (ie, a new column is added), I won't forget to add a corresponding mapping, since the auto-generated method signature would change and the compiler would catch it. I've considered messing with the T4 templates to add this feature, but thought I'd check if this already exists somewhere before I head down that path. Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Queue Data structure app crash with front() method

    - by Programer
    I am implementing queue data strcutre but my app gets crashed, I know I am doing something wrong with Node pointer front or front() method of queue class #include <iostream> using namespace std; class Node { public: int get() { return object; }; void set(int object) { this->object = object; }; Node * getNext() { return nextNode; }; void setNext(Node * nextNode) { this->nextNode = nextNode; }; private: int object; Node * nextNode; }; class queue{ private: Node *rear; Node *front; public: int dequeue() { int x = front->get(); Node* p = front; front = front->getNext(); delete p; return x; } void enqueue(int x) { Node* newNode = new Node(); newNode->set(x); newNode->setNext(NULL); rear->setNext(newNode); rear = newNode; } int Front() { return front->get(); } int isEmpty() { return ( front == NULL ); } }; main() { queue q; q.enqueue(2); cout<<q.Front(); system("pause"); }

    Read the article

  • ajaxSubmit options success & error functions aren't fired

    - by Thommy Tomka
    jQuery 1.7.2 jQuery Validate 1.1.0 jQuery Form 3.18 Wordpress 3.4.2 I am trying to code a contact/ mail form in above environment/ with above jQuery libs. Now I am having a problem with the jQuery Form JS: I have taken the original code from the developers page for ajaxSubmit and only altered the target option to an ID which exists in my HTML source and replaced $ with jQuery in function showRequest. The problem is, that the function namend after success: does not fire. I tried the same with error: and again nothing fired. Only complete: did and the function I placed there alerted the responseText from the receiving script. Does anyone has an idea whats going wrong? Thanks in advance! Thomas jQuery(document).ready(function() { var options = { target: '#mail-status', // target element(s) to be updated with server response beforeSubmit: showRequest, // pre-submit callback success: showResponse, // post-submit callback // other available options: //url: url // override for form's 'action' attribute //type: type // 'get' or 'post', override for form's 'method' attribute //dataType: null // 'xml', 'script', or 'json' (expected server response type) //clearForm: true // clear all form fields after successful submit //resetForm: true // reset the form after successful submit // $.ajax options can be used here too, for example: //timeout: 3000 }; jQuery("#mailform").validate( { submitHandler: function(form) { jQuery(form).ajaxSubmit(options); }, errorPlacement: function(error, element) { }, rules: { author: { minlength: 2, required: true }, email: { required: true, email: true }, comment: { minlength: 2, required: true } }, highlight: function(element) { jQuery(element).addClass("e"); jQuery(element.form).find("label[for=" + element.id + "]").addClass("e"); }, unhighlight: function(element) { jQuery(element).removeClass("e"); jQuery(element.form).find("label[for=" + element.id + "]").removeClass("e"); } }); }); // pre-submit callback function showRequest(formData, jqForm, options) { // formData is an array; here we use $.param to convert it to a string to display it // but the form plugin does this for you automatically when it submits the data var queryString = jQuery.param(formData); // jqForm is a jQuery object encapsulating the form element. To access the // DOM element for the form do this: // var formElement = jqForm[0]; alert('About to submit: \n\n' + queryString); // here we could return false to prevent the form from being submitted; // returning anything other than false will allow the form submit to continue return true; } // post-submit callback function showResponse(responseText, statusText, xhr, $form) { // for normal html responses, the first argument to the success callback // is the XMLHttpRequest object's responseText property // if the ajaxSubmit method was passed an Options Object with the dataType // property set to 'xml' then the first argument to the success callback // is the XMLHttpRequest object's responseXML property // if the ajaxSubmit method was passed an Options Object with the dataType // property set to 'json' then the first argument to the success callback // is the json data object returned by the server alert('status: ' + statusText + '\n\nresponseText: \n' + responseText + '\n\nThe output div should have already been updated with the responseText.'); }

    Read the article

  • How do I write a powershell script that gets the file with the most recent last write time from a fo

    - by Shoko
    The subject line says it all. I'd also like to do this using pipes. I figured that I could use Get-ChildItem, Measure-Object and Where-Object, but Measure-Object doesn't like dates. Should I have a script block which loops through each item returned from Get-ChildItem and does a comparison to see if it's the most recent? I thought that there should be a handy PS cmdlet for that.

    Read the article

  • I Can Not Use Session In Page _Load And I Got Bellow Error

    - by LostLord
    hi my dear friends .... why i got this error : (Object reference not set to an instance of an object.) when i put this code in my page_load.: protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { BackEndUtils.OverallLoader(); string Teststr = Session["Co_ID"].ToString(); } ========================================================================== this session is made when user logins to my web site and this session works in other areas... thanks for your attention

    Read the article

  • Why is a NullReferenceException thrown when a ToolStrip button is clicked twice with code in the `Click` event handler?

    - by Patrick
    I created a clean WindowsFormsApplication solution, added a ToolStrip to the main form, and placed one button on it. I've added also an OpenFileDialog, so that the Click event of the ToolStripButton looks like the following: private void toolStripButton1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { openFileDialog1.ShowDialog(); } I didn't change any other properties or events. The funny thing is that when I double-click the ToolStripButton (the second click must be quite fast, before the dialog opens), then cancel both dialogs (or choose a file, it doesn't really matter) and then click in the client area of main form, a NullReferenceException crashes the application (error details attached at the end of the post). Please note that the Click event is implemented while DoubleClick is not. What's even more strange that when the OpenFileDialog is replaced by any user-implemented form, the ToolStripButton blocks from being clicked twice. I'm using VS2008 with .NET3.5. I didn't change many options in VS (only fontsize, workspace folder and line numbering). Does anyone know how to solve this? It is 100% replicable on my machine, is it on others too? One solution that I can think of is disabling the button before calling OpenFileDialog.ShowDialog() and then enabling the button back (but it's not nice). Any other ideas? And now the promised error details: System.NullReferenceException was unhandled Message="Object reference not set to an instance of an object." Source="System.Windows.Forms" StackTrace: at System.Windows.Forms.NativeWindow.WindowClass.Callback(IntPtr hWnd, Int32 msg, IntPtr wparam, IntPtr lparam) at System.Windows.Forms.UnsafeNativeMethods.PeekMessage(MSG& msg, HandleRef hwnd, Int32 msgMin, Int32 msgMax, Int32 remove) at System.Windows.Forms.Application.ComponentManager.System.Windows.Forms.UnsafeNativeMethods.IMsoComponentManager.FPushMessageLoop(Int32 dwComponentID, Int32 reason, Int32 pvLoopData) at System.Windows.Forms.Application.ThreadContext.RunMessageLoopInner(Int32 reason, ApplicationContext context) at System.Windows.Forms.Application.ThreadContext.RunMessageLoop(Int32 reason, ApplicationContext context) at System.Windows.Forms.Application.Run(Form mainForm) at WindowsFormsApplication1.Program.Main() w C:\Users\Marchewek\Desktop\Workspaces\VisualStudio\WindowsFormsApplication1\Program.cs:line 20 at System.AppDomain._nExecuteAssembly(Assembly assembly, String[] args) at System.AppDomain.ExecuteAssembly(String assemblyFile, Evidence assemblySecurity, String[] args) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.HostingProcess.HostProc.RunUsersAssembly() at System.Threading.ThreadHelper.ThreadStart_Context(Object state) at System.Threading.ExecutionContext.Run(ExecutionContext executionContext, ContextCallback callback, Object state) at System.Threading.ThreadHelper.ThreadStart() InnerException:

    Read the article

  • Design Patterns: What is a type

    - by contactmatt
    A very basic question, but after reading the "Design Patterns: Elements of reusable OO Software" book, I'm a little confused. The book states, "An object's type only refers to its interface-the set of request to which it can respond. An object can have many types, and objects of different classes can have the same type." Could someone please better explain what a Type is? I also don't understand how one object can have multiple types...unless the book is speaking of polymorphism....

    Read the article

  • No method 'get' on backbone model save

    - by user888734
    I'm using backbone for a reasonably complicated form. I have a number of nested models, and have been computing other variables in the parent model like so: // INSIDE PARENT MODEL computedValue: function () { var value = this.get('childModel').get('childModelProperty'); return value; } This seems to work fine for keeping my UI in sync, but as soon as I call .save() on the parent model, I get: Uncaught TypeError: Object #<Object> has no method 'get' It seems that the child model kind of temporarily stops responding. Am I doing something inherently wrong? EDIT: The stack trace is: Uncaught TypeError: Object #<Object> has no method 'get' publish.js:90 Backbone.Model.extend.neutralDivisionComputer publish.js:90 Backbone.Model.extend.setNeutralComputed publish.js:39 Backbone.Events.trigger backbone.js:163 _.extend.change backbone.js:473 _.extend.set backbone.js:314 _.extend.save.options.success backbone.js:385 f.Callbacks.o jquery.min.js:2 f.Callbacks.p.fireWith jquery.min.js:2 w jquery.min.js:4 f.support.ajax.f.ajaxTransport.send.d

    Read the article

  • Why does my Spring Controller direct me to the wrong page?

    - by kc2001
    I am writing my first Spring 3.0.5 MVC app and am confused about why my controller mappings aren't doing what I expect. I have a VerifyPasswordController that is called after a user tries to log in by entering his name and password. // Called upon clicking "submit" from /login @RequestMapping(value = "/verifyPassword", method = RequestMethod.POST) @ModelAttribute("user") public String verifyPassword(User user, BindingResult result) { String email = user.getEmail(); String nextPage = CHOOSE_OPERATION_PAGE; // success case if (result.hasErrors()) { nextPage = LOGIN_PAGE; } else if (!passwordMatches(email, user.getPassword())) { nextPage = LOGIN_FAILURE_PAGE; } else { // success } return nextPage; } I can verify in the debugger that this method is being called, but afterwards, the verifyPassword page is displayed rather than the chooseOperation page. The console output of WebLogic seems to show that my mapping are correct: INFO : org.springframework.web.servlet.mvc.annotation.DefaultAnnotationHandlerMapping - Mapped URL path [/chooseOperation] onto handler 'chooseOperationController' INFO : org.springframework.web.servlet.mvc.annotation.DefaultAnnotationHandlerMapping - Mapped URL path [/chooseOperation.*] onto handler 'chooseOperationController' INFO : org.springframework.web.servlet.mvc.annotation.DefaultAnnotationHandlerMapping - Mapped URL path [/chooseOperation/] onto handler 'chooseOperationController' Here is the ChooseOperationController: @Controller @SessionAttributes("leaveRequestForm") public class ChooseOperationController implements PageIfc, AttributeIfc { @RequestMapping(value = "/chooseOperation") @ModelAttribute("leaveRequestForm") public LeaveRequest setUpLeaveRequestForm( @RequestParam(NAME_ATTRIBUTE) String name) { LeaveRequest form = populateFormFromDatabase(name); return form; } // helper methods omited } I welcome any advice, particularly "generic" techniques for debugging such mapping problems. BTW, I've also tried to "redirect" to the desired page, but got the same result. servlet-context.xml: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <beans:beans xmlns="http://www.springframework.org/schema/mvc" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:beans="http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans" xmlns:context="http://www.springframework.org/schema/context" xsi:schemaLocation=" http://www.springframework.org/schema/mvc http://www.springframework.org/schema/mvc/spring-mvc-3.0.xsd http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans/spring-beans-3.0.xsd http://www.springframework.org/schema/context http://www.springframework.org/schema/context/spring-context-3.0.xsd"> <!-- DispatcherServlet Context: defines this servlet's request-processing infrastructure --> <!-- Enables the Spring MVC @Controller programming model --> <annotation-driven /> <!-- Handles HTTP GET requests for /resources/** by efficiently serving up static resources in the ${webappRoot}/resources directory --> <resources mapping="/resources/**" location="/resources/" /> <!-- Resolves views selected for rendering by @Controllers to .jsp resources in the /WEB-INF/views directory --> <beans:bean class="org.springframework.web.servlet.view.InternalResourceViewResolver"> <beans:property name="prefix" value="/WEB-INF/views/" /> <beans:property name="suffix" value=".jsp" /> </beans:bean> <context:component-scan base-package="com.engilitycorp.leavetracker" /> <beans:bean id="leaveRequestForm" class="com.engilitycorp.leavetracker.model.LeaveRequest" /> </beans:beans> The constants: String LOGIN_FAILURE_PAGE = "loginFailure"; String LOGIN_PAGE = "login"; String CHOOSE_OPERATION_PAGE = "chooseOperation";

    Read the article

  • Load an Assembly from Bin in ASP.NET

    - by Pete Michaud
    I have a file name, like "Foo.dll," for a library that I know is in the bin directory. I want to create an Assembly object for it. I'm trying to instantiate this object from a class that's not a page, so I don't have the Request object to get the path. How do I get the path I need to use Assembly.Load()?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 352 353 354 355 356 357 358 359 360 361 362 363  | Next Page >