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  • Seam @Factory in abstract base class?

    - by Shadowman
    I've got a series of web actions I'm implementing in Seam to perform create, read, update, etc. operations. For my read/update/delete actions, I'd like to have individual action classes that all extend an abstract base class. I'd like to put the @Factory method in the abstract base class to retrieve the item that is to be acted upon. For example, I have this as the base class: public abstract class BaseAction { @In(required=false)@Out(required=false) private MyItem item=null; public MyItem getItem(){...} public void setItem(...){...} @Factory("item") public void initItem(){...} } My subclasses would extend BaseAction, so that I don't have to repeat the logic to load the item that is to be viewed, deleted, updated, etc. However, when I start my application, Seam throws errors saying I have declared multiple @Factory's for the same object. Is there any way around this? Is there any way to provide the @Factory in the base class without encoutnering these errors?

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  • How do the major C# DI/IoC frameworks compare?

    - by Slomojo
    At the risk of stepping into holy war territory, What are the strengths and weaknesses of these popular DI/IoC frameworks, and could one easily be considered the best? ..: Ninject Unity Castle.Windsor Autofac StructureMap Are there any other DI/IoC Frameworks for C# that I haven't listed here? In context of my use case, I'm building a client WPF app, and a WCF/SQL services infrastructure, ease of use (especially in terms of clear and concise syntax), consistent documentation, good community support and performance are all important factors in my choice. Update: The resources and duplicate questions cited appear to be out of date, can someone with knowledge of all these frameworks come forward and provide some real insight? I realise that most opinion on this subject is likely to be biased, but I am hoping that someone has taken the time to study all these frameworks and have at least a generally objective comparison. I am quite willing to make my own investigations if this hasn't been done before, but I assumed this was something at least a few people had done already. Second Update: If you do have experience with more than one DI/IoC container, please rank and summarise the pros and cons of those, thank you. This isn't an exercise in discovering all the obscure little containers that people have made, I'm looking for comparisons between the popular (and active) frameworks.

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  • JavaEE: Question about design

    - by Harry Pham
    I have a JSF page that will create a new Comment. I have the managed bean of that page to be RequestScoped managed bean. @ManagedBean(name="PostComment") @RequestScoped public class PostComment { private Comment comment = null; @ManagedProperty(value="#{A}") private A a; //A is a ViewScoped Bean @ManagedProperty(value="#{B}") private B b; //B is a ViewScoped Bean @PostConstruct public void init(){ comment = new Comment(); } // setters and getters for comment and all the managed property variable public void postComment(String location){ //persist the new comment ... if(location.equals("A")){ //update the comment list on page A }else if(location.equals("B")){ //update the comment list on page B } } } As you can see from the code above, 2 ViewScoped bean A and B will both use method postComment(), and getter getComment() from bean PostComment. The problem I am having right now is that, if I am on A, constructor of A will load, but it will also load constructor of bean B. This make my page load twice as slow. What would be the best way to solve this problem?

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  • Help me write my LISP :) LISP environments, Ruby Hashes...

    - by MikeC8
    I'm implementing a rudimentary version of LISP in Ruby just in order to familiarize myself with some concepts. I'm basing my implementation off of Peter Norvig's Lispy (http://norvig.com/lispy.html). There's something I'm missing here though, and I'd appreciate some help... He subclasses Python's dict as follows: class Env(dict): "An environment: a dict of {'var':val} pairs, with an outer Env." def __init__(self, parms=(), args=(), outer=None): self.update(zip(parms,args)) self.outer = outer def find(self, var): "Find the innermost Env where var appears." return self if var in self else self.outer.find(var) He then goes on to explain why he does this rather than just using a dict. However, for some reason, his explanation keeps passing in through my eyes and out through the back of my head. Why not use a dict, and then inside the eval function, when a new "sub-environment" needs to be created, just take the existing dict and update the key/value pairs that need to be updated, and pass that new dict into the next eval? Won't the Python interpreter keep track of the previous "outer" envs? And won't the nature of the recursion ensure that the values are pulled out from "inner" to "outer"? I'm using Ruby, and I tried to implement things this way. Something's not working though, and it might be because of this, or perhaps not. Here's my eval function, env being a regular Hash: def eval(x, env = $global_env) ........ elsif x[0] == "lambda" then ->(*args) { eval(x[2], env.merge(Hash[*x[1].zip(args).flatten(1)])) } ........ end The line that matters of course is the "lambda" one. If there is a difference, what's importantly different between what I'm doing here and what Norvig did with his Env class? If there's no difference, then perhaps someone can enlighten me as to why Norvig uses the Env class. Thanks :)

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  • how do I call a javacript function every 60 seconds?

    - by William
    So I'm trying to work on a Canvas demo, and I want this square to move from one side to the other, but I can't figure out how to call javascript in a way that repeats every 60 seconds. Here's what I got so far: <!DOCTYPE html> <html lang="en"> <head> <title>Canvas test</title> <meta charset="utf-8" /> <link href="/bms/style.css" rel="stylesheet" /> <style> body { text-align: center; background-color: #000000;} canvas{ background-color: #ffffff;} </style> <script type="text/javascript"> var x = 50; var y = 250; function update(){ draw(); x = x + 5; } function draw(){ var canvas = document.getElementById('screen1'); if (canvas.getContext){ var ctx = canvas.getContext('2d'); ctx.fillStyle = 'rgb(236,138,68)'; ctx.fillRect(x,y,24,24); } } </script> </head> <body onLoad="setTimeout(update(), 0);"> <canvas id="screen1" width="500" height="500"></canvas> </body> </html>

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  • MySQL move data from one table to another, matching ID's

    - by Reveller
    I have (a.o.) two MySQL tables with (a.o.) the following columns: tweets: ------------------------------------- id text from_user_id from_user ------------------------------------- 1 Cool tweet! 13295354 tradeny 2 Tweeeeeeeet 43232544 bolleke 3 Yet another 13295354 tradeny 4 Something.. 53546443 janusz4 users: ------------------------------------- id from_user num_tweets from_user_id ------------------------------------- 1 tradeny 2235 2 bolleke 432 3 janusz4 5354 I now want to normalize the tweets table, replacing tweets.from_user with an integer that matches users.id. Secondly, I want to fill in the corresponding users.from_user_id, Finally, I want to delete tweets.from_user_id so that the end result would look like: tweets: ------------------------ id text from_user ------------------------ 1 Cool tweet! 1 2 Tweeeeeeeet 2 3 Yet another 1 4 Something.. 3 users: ------------------------------------- id from_user num_tweets from_user_id ------------------------------------- 1 tradeny 2235 13295354 2 bolleke 432 43232544 3 janusz4 5354 53546443 My question is whether one could help me form the proper queries for this. I have only come so far: UPDATE tweets SET from_user = (SELECT id FROM users WHERE from_user = tweets.from_user) WHERE... UPDATE users SET from_user_id = (SELECT from_user_id FROM tweets WHERE from_user = tweets.from_user) WHERE... ALTER TABLE tweets DROP from_user_id Any help would be greatly appreciated :-)

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  • Visual studio erroneous errors when building a website?

    - by Curtis White
    Visual Studio 2008 shows a lot of erroneous errors when building a website (not a web project) in the errors list. These errors are usually corrected (removed) when I rebuild the site a couple times but they cost me wasted time. Is there anyway to hide the erroneous errors? Update: I've decided to look into this to see if I could reproduce it. This is the exact behavior I am seeing, using the website model, I type some invalid syntax on a page. The errors list fills up with errors. I correct the error and the errors list does not update. I build the project and the errors list still shows the errors but the build shows as build completed. I build the project a second time and the errors list is cleared. My question is there anyway to make the errors list clear on the first build? I thought it might have something to do with page build vs website build but it seems to make no difference. I am not using any third party dlls on this website.

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  • Should I use IDisposable for purely managed resources?

    - by John Gietzen
    Here is the scenario: I have an object called a Transaction that needs to make sure that only one entity has permission to edit it at any given time. In order to facilitate a long-lived lock, I have the class generating a token object that can be used to make the edits. You would use it like this: var transaction = new Transaction(); using (var tlock = transaction.Lock()) { transaction.Update(data, tlock); } Now, I want the TransactionLock class to implement IDisposable so that its usage can be clear. But, I don't have any unmanaged resources to dispose. however, the TransctionLock object itself is a sort of "unmanaged resource" in the sense that the CLR doesn't know how to properly finalize it. All of this would be fine and dandy, I would just use IDisposable and be done with it. However, my issue comes when I try to do this in the finalizer: ~TransactionLock() { this.Dispose(false); } I want the finalizer to release the transaction from the lock, if possible. How, in the finalizer, do I detect if the parent transaction (this.transaction) has already been finalized? Is there a better pattern I should be using? The Transaction class looks something like this: public sealed class Transaction { private readonly object lockMutex = new object(); private TransactionLock currentLock; public TransactionLock Lock() { lock (this.lockMutex) { if (this.currentLock != null) throw new InvalidOperationException(/* ... */); this.currentLock = new TransactionLock(this); return this.currentLock; } } public void Update(object data, TransactionLock tlock) { lock (this.lockMutex) { this.ValidateLock(tlock); // ... } } internal void ValidateLock(TransactionLock tlock) { if (this.currentLock == null) throw new InvalidOperationException(/* ... */); if (this.currentLock != tlock) throw new InvalidOperationException(/* ... */); } internal void Unlock(TransactionLock tlock) { lock (this.lockMutex) { this.ValidateLock(tlock); this.currentLock = null; } } }

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  • Ajax with Jsf 1.1 implementation

    - by Rohan Ved
    I am using JSF1.1 in that, have this code_ <%@ taglib uri="http://java.sun.com/jsf/html" prefix="h"%> <%@ taglib uri="http://java.sun.com/jsf/core" prefix="f"%> <%@ taglib uri="http://www.azureworlds.org" prefix="azure"%> <%@ taglib uri="http://myfaces.apache.org/tomahawk" prefix="x"%> <%@ taglib uri="http://www.asifqamar.com/jsf/asif" prefix="a"%> ... <x:selectOneMenu value="#{hotelBean.state}"> <f:selectItem itemLabel="Select One" itemValue="" /> <f:selectItem value="#{hotelBean.mapStates }" /> <x:ajax update="city" listener="#{hotelBean.handleCityChange}" /> </x:selectOneMenu> <h:outputText value="City* " /> <x:selectOneMenu id="city" value="#{hotelBean.city}"> <f:selectItem itemLabel="Select One" itemValue="" /> <f:selectItem value="#{hotelBean.mapCities }" /> </x:selectOneMenu> line x:ajax update="city" listener="#{hotelBean.handleCityChange}" is not working , i searched but got JSF1.1 not support for Ajax. then what can i do for this? and i have less knowledge of JS. Thanx

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  • OSGI, Servlets and JPA hello world / tutorial / example

    - by Kamil
    I want to build a web application which basically is a restful web-service serving json messages. I would like it to be as simple as possible. I was thinking about using servlets (with annotations). JPA as a database layer is a must - Toplink or Hibernate. Preferably working on Tomcat. I want to have app divided into modules serving different functionality (auth service, customer service, etc..). And I would like to be able to update those modules without reinstalling whole application on the server - like eclipse plugins, user is notified (when he enters webapp's home url) that update is available, clicks it, and app is downloading and installing updated module. I think this functionality can be made with OSGI, but I can't find any example code, or tutorial with simple hello world updatable servlet providing some data from database through jpa. I'm looking for an advice: - Is OSGI the right tool for this or it can be done with something simpler? - Where can I find some examples covering topic (or topics) which I need for this project. - Which OSGI implementation would be best-simplest for this task. *My knowledge of OSGI is basic. I know how bundles are described, I understand concept of OSGI container and what it does. I have never created any OSGI app yet.

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  • Entity Framework 4 + POCO with custom classes and WCF contracts (serialization problem)

    - by eman
    Yesterday I worked on a project where I upgraded to Entity Framework 4 with the Repository pattern. In one post, I have read that it is necessary to turn off the custom tool generator classes and then write classes (same like entites) by hand. That I can do it, I used the POCO Entity Generator and then deleted the new generated files .tt and all subordinate .cs classes. Then I wrote the "entity classes" by myself. I added the repository pattern and implemented it in the business layer and then implemented a WCF layer, which should call the methods from the business layer. By calling an Insert (Add) method from the presentation layer and everything is OK. But if I call any method that should return some class, then I get an error like (the connection was interrupted by the server). I suppose there is a problem with the serialization or am I wrong? How can by this problem solved? I'm using Visual Studio S2010, Entity Framework 4, C#. UPDATE: I have uploaded the project and hope somebody can help me! link text UPDATE 2: My questions: Why is POCO good (pros/cons)? When should POCO be used? Is POCO + the repository pattern a good choice? Should POCO classes by written by myself or could I use auto generated POCO classes?

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  • What is best practice about having one-many hibernate

    - by Patrick
    Hi all, I believe this is a common scenario. Say I have a one-many mapping in hibernate Category has many Item Category: @OneToMany( cascade = {CascadeType.ALL},fetch = FetchType.LAZY) @JoinColumn(name="category_id") @Cascade( value = org.hibernate.annotations.CascadeType.DELETE_ORPHAN ) private List<Item> items; Item: @ManyToOne(targetEntity=Category.class,fetch=FetchType.EAGER) @JoinColumn(name="category_id",insertable=false,updatable=false) private Category category; All works fine. I use Category to fully control Item's life cycle. But, when I am writing code to update Category, first I get Category out from DB. Then pass it to UI. User fill in altered values for Category and pass back. Here comes the problem. Because I only pass around Category information not Item. Therefore the Item collection will be empty. When I call saveOrUpdate, it will clean out all associations. Any suggestion on what's best to address this? I think the advantage of having Category controls Item is to easily main the order of Item and not to confuse bi-directly. But what about situation that you do want to just update Category it self? Load it first and merge? Thank you.

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  • What should i do for accomodating large scale data storage and retrieval?

    - by kailashbuki
    There's two columns in the table inside mysql database. First column contains the fingerprint while the second one contains the list of documents which have that fingerprint. It's much like an inverted index built by search engines. An instance of a record inside the table is shown below; 34 "doc1, doc2, doc45" The number of fingerprints is very large(can range up to trillions). There are basically following operations in the database: inserting/updating the record & retrieving the record accoring to the match in fingerprint. The table definition python snippet is: self.cursor.execute("CREATE TABLE IF NOT EXISTS `fingerprint` (fp BIGINT, documents TEXT)") And the snippet for insert/update operation is: if self.cursor.execute("UPDATE `fingerprint` SET documents=CONCAT(documents,%s) WHERE fp=%s",(","+newDocId, thisFP))== 0L: self.cursor.execute("INSERT INTO `fingerprint` VALUES (%s, %s)", (thisFP,newDocId)) The only bottleneck i have observed so far is the query time in mysql. My whole application is web based. So time is a critical factor. I have also thought of using cassandra but have less knowledge of it. Please suggest me a better way to tackle this problem.

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  • Javascript storing properties and functions in variables

    - by richard
    Hello, I'm having trouble with my programming style and I hope to get some feedback here. I recently bought Javascript: The Good Parts and while I find this a big help, I'm still having trouble designing this application. Especially when it comes to writing function and methods. Example: I have a function that let's the user switches games in my app. This function updates game-specific information in the current view. var games = { active: Titanium.App.Properties.getString('active_game'), gameswitcher_positions: { 'Game 1': 0, 'Game 2': 1, 'Game 3': 2, 'Game 4': 3, 'Game 5': 4 }, change: function(game) { if (active_game !== game) { gameswitcher.children[this.gameswitcher_positions[this.active]].backgroundImage = gameswitcher.children[this.gameswitcher_positions[this.active]].backgroundImage.replace('_selected', ''); gameswitcher.children[this.gameswitcher_positions[game]].backgroundImage = gameswitcher.children[this.gameswitcher_positions[game]].backgroundImage.replace('.png', '_selected.png'); events.update(game); this.active = game; } }, init: function() { gameswitcher.children[this.gameswitcher_positions[this.active]].backgroundImage = gameswitcher.children[this.gameswitcher_positions[this.active]].backgroundImage.replace('.png', '_selected.png'); events.update(this.active); } }; gameswitcher is a container view which contains buttons to switch games. I am not satisfied with this approach but I cannot think of a better one. Should I place the gameswitcher_positions outside of the variable in a seperate variable instead of as a property? And what about the active game? Please give me feedback, what am I doing wrong?

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  • How can I remove a JPanel from a JFrame?

    - by Roman
    Recently I asked here how to add a new JPanel to JFrame. The answer helped me to get a working code. But not I have a related question: "How can I remove an old JPanel". I need that because of the following problem. A new JPanel appears appears when I want (either time limit is exceeded or user press the "Submit" button). But in several seconds some element of the old JPanel appears together with the component of the new JPanel. I do not understand why it happens. I thought that it is because I have to other threads which update the window. But the first thread just add the old panel once (so, it should be finished). And in the second thread I have a loop which is broken (so, it also should be finished). Here is my code: private Thread controller = new Thread() { public void run() { // First we set the initial pane (for the selection of partner). SwingUtilities.invokeLater(new Runnable() { public void run() { frame.getContentPane().add(generatePartnerSelectionPanel()); frame.invalidate(); frame.validate(); } }); // Update the pane for the selection of the parnter. for (int i=40; i>0; i=i-1) { final int sec = i; SwingUtilities.invokeLater(new Runnable() { public void run() { timeLeftLabel.setText(sec + " seconds left."); } }); try {Thread.sleep(1000);} catch (InterruptedException e) {} if (partnerSubmitted) {break;} } // For the given user the selection phase is finished (either the time is over or form was submitted). SwingUtilities.invokeLater(new Runnable() { public void run() { frame.getContentPane().add(generateWaitForGamePanel()); frame.invalidate(); frame.validate(); } }); } };

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  • How to get at JSON in grails 2.0

    - by Mikey
    I am sending myself JSON like so with jQuery: $.ajax ({ type: "POST", url: 'http://localhost:8080/myproject/myController/myAction', dataType: 'json', async: false, //json object to sent to the authentication url data: {"stuff":"yes", "listThing":[1,2,3], "listObjects":[{"one":"thing"},{"two":"thing2"}]}, success: function () { alert("Thanks!"); } }) I send this to a controller and do println params And I know I'm already in trouble... [stuff:yes, listObjects[1][two]:thing2, listObjects[0][one]:thing, listThing[]:[1, 2, 3], action:myAction, controller:myController] I cannot figure out how to get at most of these values... I can get "yes" with params.stuff, but I cant do params.listThing.each{} or params.listObjects.each{} What am I doing wrong? UPDATE: I make the controller do this to try the two suggestions so far: println params println params.stuff println params.list('listObjects') println params.listThing def thisWontWork = JSON.parse(params.listThing) render("omg l2json") look how weird the parameters look at the end of the null pointer exception when I try the answers: [stuff:yes, listObjects[1][two]:thing2, listObjects[0][one]:thing, listThing[]:[1, 2, 3], action:l2json, controller:rateAPI] yes [] null | Error 2012-03-25 22:16:13,950 ["http-bio-8080"-exec-7] ERROR errors.GrailsExceptionResolver - NullPointerException occurred when processing request: [POST] /myproject/myController/myAction - parameters: stuff: yes listObjects[1][two]: thing2 listObjects[0][one]: thing listThing[]: 1 listThing[]: 2 listThing[]: 3 UPDATE 2 I am learning things, but this can't be right: println params['listThing[]'] println params['listObjects[0][one]'] prints [1, 2, 3] thing It seems like this is some part of grails new JSON marshaling. This is somewhat inconvenient for my purposes of hacking around with the values. How would I get all these individual params back into a big groovy object of nested maps and lists? Maybe I am not doing what I want with jQuery?

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  • How to get value of h:inputText when binded in JSF

    - by Tr?n Minh Phuong
    How can i get 2 h:inputTextValue from this? <h:dataTable cellspacing="0" value="#{managerManagedBean.lstMatch}" var="m" binding="#{managerManagedBean.datatableMatch}"> <!-- cellspacing='0' is important, must stay --> <h:column> <f:facet name="header">Team One</f:facet> <h:outputText value="#{m.teamOneName}"></h:outputText> </h:column> <h:column> <f:facet name="header">Match Score</f:facet> <h:inputText value="#{m.teamOneResult}" style="width: 20px; text-align: center" binding="#{input}"></h:inputText> - <h:inputText value="#{m.teamTwoResult}" style="width: 20px; text-align: center"></h:inputText> </h:column> <h:column> <f:facet name="header">Half Time</f:facet> <h:outputText value="#{m.haveHalfTime}"></h:outputText> </h:column> <h:column> <f:facet name="header">Team Two</f:facet> <h:outputText value="#{m.teamTwoName}"></h:outputText> </h:column> <h:column> <f:facet name="header">Match Date</f:facet> <h:outputText value="#{m.matchDate}"></h:outputText> </h:column> <h:column> <f:facet name="header">Control</f:facet> <h:commandButton action="#{managerManagedBean.update(m, input.value)}" value="Update Match"> </h:commandButton> </h:column> </h:dataTable>

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  • Dynamic Auto updating (to UI, Grid) binding list in C# Winform?

    - by Dhana
    I'm not even sure if i'm doing this correctly. But basically I have a list of objects that are built out of a class/interface. From there, I am binding the list to a datagrid view that is on a Windows Form (C#) Here the list is a Sync list which will auto update the UI, in this case datagridview. Every thing works fine now, but now i would like to have the List should have an dynamic object, that is the object will have by default two static property (ID, Name), and at run time user will select remaining properties. These should be bind to the data grid. Any update on the list should be auto reflected in the grid. I am aware that, we can use dynamic objects, but i would like to know , how to approach for solution, datagridview.DataSource = myData; // myData is AutoUpdateList<IPersonInfo> Now IPersonInfo is the type of object, need to add dynamic properties for this type at runtime. public class AutoUpdateList<T> : System.ComponentModel.BindingList<T> { private System.ComponentModel.ISynchronizeInvoke _SyncObject; private System.Action<System.ComponentModel.ListChangedEventArgs> _FireEventAction; public AutoUpdateList() : this(null) { } public AutoUpdateList(System.ComponentModel.ISynchronizeInvoke syncObject) { _SyncObject = syncObject; _FireEventAction = FireEvent; } protected override void OnListChanged(System.ComponentModel.ListChangedEventArgs args) { try { if (_SyncObject == null) { FireEvent(args); } else { _SyncObject.Invoke(_FireEventAction, new object[] { args }); } } catch (Exception) { // TODO: Log Here } } private void FireEvent(System.ComponentModel.ListChangedEventArgs args) { base.OnListChanged(args); } } Could you help out on this?

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  • EF4 POCO Not Updating Navigation Property On Save

    - by Gavin Draper
    I'm using EF4 with POCO objects the 2 tables are as follows Service ServiceID, Name, StatusID Status StatusID, Name The POCO objects look like this Service ServiceID, Status, Name Status StatusID, Name With Status on the Service object being a Navigation Property and of type Status. In my Service Repository I have a save method that takes a service objects attaches it to the context and calls save. This works fine for the service, but if the status for that service has been changed it does not get updated. My Save method looks like this public static void SaveService(Service service) { using (var ctx = Context.CreateContext()) { ctx.AttachModify("Services", service); ctx.AttachTo("Statuses",service.Status); ctx.SaveChanges(); } } The AttachModify method attaches an object to the context and sets it to modified it looks like this public void AttachModify(string entitySetName, object entity) { if (entity != null) { AttachTo(entitySetName, entity); SetModified(entity); } } public void SetModified(object entity) { ObjectStateManager.ChangeObjectState(entity, EntityState.Modified); } If I look at a SQL profile its not even including the navigation property in the update for the service table, it never touches the StatusID. Its driving me crazy. Any idea what I need to do to force the Navigation Property to update?

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  • Entity Framework and WCf

    - by Nihilist
    Hi I am little confused on designing WCf services with EF. When using WCf and EF, where do we draw this line on what properties to return and what not to with the entity. Here is my scenario I have User. Here are the relations. User [1 to many] Address, User [ 1 to many] Email, User [ 1 to many] Phone So now on the webform, on page1 I can edit user information. say I can edit few properties on the user entity and can also edit address, phone, email entities[ like add / delete and update any] On page2, i can only update user properties and nothing related to navigation properties [ address, email, phone]. So when I return the User Entity [ OR DTO] should i be returning the navigation properties too? Or should the client make multiple calls to get navigation properites. Also, how does it go with Save? Like should the client make multiple calls to save user and related entites or just one call to save the graph? Lets say, if I just have a Save(User user) [ where user has all the related entities too] both page1 and page2 will call save and pass me the user. but one page1 i will need a lot more information. but on page2 i just need the user primitive properties. So my question is, where do we draw this line, how do we design theses services ? Is the WCF operation designed on the page and the fields it has ? I am hoping i explained my problem well enough.

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  • Is it possible in Perl to require a subroutine call is made?

    - by MitchelWB
    I don't know enough about Perl to even know what I'm asking for exactly, but I'm writing a series of subroutines to be available for many individual scripts that all process different incoming flat files. The process is far from perfect, but it's what I've got to deal with and I'm trying to build myself a small library of subs that make it easier for me to manage it all. Each script handles a different incoming flat file with it's own formatting, sorting, grouping and outputting requirements. One common aspect is that we have small text files that house counters that are used to name the output files so that we have no duplicate file names. Because the processing of the data is different for each file, I need to open the file to get my counter value, because this is a common operation, I'd like to put it in a sub to retrieve the counter. But then need to write specific code to process the data. And would like a second sub that allows me to update the counter with the counter once I've processed the data. Is there a way to make the second sub call a requirement if the first one is called? Ideally if it could even be an error that would prevent the script from running at all much like a syntax error. EDIT: Here is a little [ugly and simplified] psuedo-code to give a better feel for what the current process is: require "importLibrary.plx"; #open data source file open DataIn, $filename; #call getCounterInfo from importLibrary.plx to get the counter value from counter file $counter = &getCounterInfo($counterFileName); while (<DataIn>) { #Process data based on unique formatting and requirements #output to task files based on requirements and name files using the $counter #increment $counter } #update counter file with new value of $counter &updateCounterInfo($counter);

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  • Loading Dimension Tables - Methodologies

    - by Nev_Rahd
    Hello, Recently I been working on project, where need to populated Dim Tables from EDW Tables. EDW Tables are of type II which does maintain historical data. When comes to load Dim Table, for which source may be multiple EDW Tables or would be single table with multi level pivoting (on attributes). Mean: There would be 10 records - one for each attribute which need to be pivoted on domain_code to make a single row in Dim. Out of these 10 records there would be some attributes with same domain_code but with different sub_domain_code, which needs further pivoting on subdomain code. Ex: if i got domain code: 01,02, 03 = which are straight pivot on domain code I would also have domain code: 10 with subdomain code / version as 2006,2007,2008,2009 That means I need to split my source table with above attributes into two = one for domain code and other for domain_code + version. so far so good. When it comes to load Dim Table: As per design specs for Dimensions (originally written by third party), what they want is: for every single change in EDW (attribute), it should assemble all the related records (for that NK) mean new one with other attribute values which are current = process them to create a new dim record and insert it. That mean if a single extract contains 100 records updated (one for each NK), it should assemble 100 + (100*9) records to insert / update dim table. How good is this approach. Other way I tried to do is just do a lookup into dim table for that NK get the value's of recent records (attributes which not changed) and insert it and update the current one. What would be the better approach assembling records at source side for one attribute change or looking into dim table's recent record and process it. If this doesn't make sense, would like to elaborate it further. Thanks

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  • Codeigniter: Library function--I'm stuck

    - by Kevin Brown
    I have a library function that sets up my forms, and submits data. They're long, and they work, so I'll spare you reading my code. :) I simply need a way for my functions to determine how to handle the data. Until now, the function did one thing: Submit a report for the current user. NOW, the client has requested that an administrator also be able to complete a form--this means that the form would be filled out, and it would CREATE a user at the same time, whereas the current function EDITS and is accessed by an EXISTING user. Do I need a separate function to do essentially the same thing? How do I make one function perform two tasks? One to update a user, and if there is no user, create one. Current controller: function survey() { $id = $this->session->userdata('id'); $data['member'] = $this->home_model->getUser($id); //Convert the db Object to a row array $data['manager'] = $data['member']->row(); $manager_id = $data['manager']->manager_id; $data['manager'] = $this->home_model->getUser($manager_id); $data['manager'] = $data['manager']->row(); $data['header'] = "Home"; $this->survey_form_processing->survey_form($this->_container,$data, $method); } Current Library: function survey_form($container) { //Lots of validation stuff $this->CI->validation->set_rules($rules); if ( $this->CI->validation->run() === FALSE ) { // Output any errors $this->CI->validation->output_errors(); } else { // Submit form $this->_submit(); } $this->CI->load->view($container,$data); The submit function is huge too. Basically says, "Update table with data where user_id=current user" I hope this wasn't too confusing. I'll create two functions if need be, but I'd like to keep redundancy down! }

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  • Validating a value for a DataColumn

    - by Richard Neil Ilagan
    Hello! I'm using a DataGrid with edit functionalities in my project. It's handy, compared to having to edit its source data manually, but sadly, that means that I'll have to deal with validating user input a bit more. And my problem is basically just that. When I set my DataGrid to EDIT mode, modify the values and then set it to UPDATE, what is the best way to check if a value that I've entered is, in fact, compatible with the corresponding column's data type? i.e. (simple example) // assuming DataTable dt = new DataTable(); dt.Columns.Add("aa",typeof(System.Int32)); DataGrid dg = new DataGrid(); dg.DataSource = dt; dg.DataBind(); dg.UpdateCommand += dg_Update; // this is the update handler protected void dg_Update(object src, DataGridCommandEventArgs e) { string newValue = (someValueIEnteredInTextBox); // HOW DO I CHECK IF [newValue] IS COMPATIBLE WITH COLUMN "aa" ABOVE? dt.LoadDataRow(newValue, true); } Thanks guys. Any leads would be so much help.

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  • SQL Server race condition issue with range lock

    - by Freek
    I'm implementing a queue in SQL Server (please no discussions about this) and am running into a race condition issue. The T-SQL of interest is the following: set transaction isolation level serializable begin tran declare @RecordId int declare @CurrentTS datetime2 set @CurrentTS=CURRENT_TIMESTAMP select top 1 @RecordId=Id from QueuedImportJobs with (updlock) where Status=@Status and (LeaseTimeout is null or @CurrentTS>LeaseTimeout) order by Id asc if @@ROWCOUNT> 0 begin update QueuedImportJobs set LeaseTimeout = DATEADD(mi,5,@CurrentTS), LeaseTicket=newid() where Id=@RecordId select * from QueuedImportJobs where Id = @RecordId end commit tran RecordId is the PK and there is also an index on Status,LeaseTimeout. What I'm basically doing is select a record of which the lease happens to be expired, while simultaneously updating the lease time with 5 minutes and setting a new lease ticket. So the problem is that I'm getting deadlocks when I run this code in parallel using a couple of threads. I've debugged it up to the point where I found out that the update statement sometimes gets executing twice for the same record. Now, I was under the impression that the with (updlock) should prevent this (it also happens with xlock btw, not with tablockx). So it actually look like there is a RangeS-U and a RangeX-X lock on the same range of records, which ought to be impossible. So what am I missing? I'm thinking it might have something to do with the top 1 clause or that SQL Server does not know that where Id=@RecordId is actually in the locked range? Deadlock graph: Table schema (simplified):

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