Search Results

Search found 24207 results on 969 pages for 'anonymous users'.

Page 358/969 | < Previous Page | 354 355 356 357 358 359 360 361 362 363 364 365  | Next Page >

  • mod_wsgi -apache configuration file

    - by Kevin
    guys sorry I'm a newbie to this but I've been following the mod_wsgi configuration tutorial and it's very spotty. In my httpd.conf file I add the virtual host like so: 'Main' server configuration # The directives in this section set up the values used by the 'main' server, which responds to any requests that aren't handled by a definition. These values also provide defaults for any containers you may define later in the file. # All of these directives may appear inside containers, in which case these default settings will be overridden for the virtual host being defined. # ServerName wsgihost DocumentRoot "/Library/WebServer/Documents" <Directory "/Library/WebServer/Documents"> Order allow,deny Allow from all </Directory> WSGIScriptAlias /myapp /Users/KL/modwsgi/env/myapp.wsgi <Directory "/Users/KL/modwsgi/env"> <Files myapp.wsgi> Order allow,deny Allow from all </Files> </Directory> Now, when I also added in my local host the following: 127.0.1.1 wsgihost but I can't seem to connect. Am I doing something terribly wrong?

    Read the article

  • How are large companies handling the storing and cataloging of software installation disks?

    - by CT
    I just started working in the IT department of a small-medium sized construction company with about 200 users. One of my responsibilities is to setup and configure all new machines that come in. I would like suggestions on how to best manage the installation disks and licenses of the software that comes with them. Plus any additional licensed software such as Autocad, Photoshop, etc as well as peripheral driver disks such as printers and scanners. Right now every machine is associated and labeled with an asset id. All asset ids are kept in a spreadsheet with applicable serial numbers, current user, warranty info, and software licenses. The physical disks are then kept within a folder in a cabinet. Each folder is marked with the asset id number as well as the current user. My problems with this is that the system was not maintained very completely before I came to the company. There are plenty of software folders with no asset ids labeled on them. Plenty of missing software folders (most likely are a lot of the unlabeled folders). Folders with names but not asset ids. Machines get switched to different users without the folders and spreadsheet being updated. I am not saying this method would necessarily be bad if it was better implemented and managed, but if I am going to have to take a lot of time to fix this system currently in place. I thought I would ask the community first on how others manage this process in case there are easier, more efficient ways of doing so. Thank you.

    Read the article

  • Script apparently changing file permissions on Mac OS to 000

    - by half_bit
    I wrote a little shellscript that helps installing a web application. The script itself just downloads a zip archive, extracts it and changes the permissions of the extracted files to the one needed to run the webapp. The problem now is that some users reported that after running my script, all the permissions of every file in their home directory or even on their whole computer changed to 000 (except the actual unzipped files which do have the correct permissions). The only lines in my script actually doing IO are these: URL="http://foo.com/" FILENAME="some.zip" curl --silent "$URL$FILENAME" -o $FILENAME > /dev/null echo "Unzipping...\c" if unzip -oqq $FILENAME > /dev/null then chmod -R 777 app/tmp app/webroot app/Config/database* app/configuration* chown -R www:www * rm $FILENAME echo "\t\t\tOK" exit 0 else echo "\t\t\tERROR" exit 1 fi I seriously can't explain this to myself. How can this even be possible? It is entirely possible that the users accidentally ran the script in their home directory, but that still wouldn't explain why the permissions where set to 000, not www/777.

    Read the article

  • Will the removal of NAT (with the use of IPv6) be bad for consumers? [closed]

    - by Jonathan.
    Possible Duplicate: How will IPv6 impact everyday users? (World IPv6 Day) As I understand when we have finally made the switch to IPv6 not only will NAT be unnecessary but it is incompatible with IPv6? Will that mean that ISPs will have to serve multiple IP addresses per customer? Will they provide a range of addresses for each customer or as each device connects will they get an IP address that isn't necessarily near that of the other devices in their house? But overall will this be bad for the Internet users? as surely it will allow ISPs to see exactly how many devices are being used, and so allow them to charge for the use of additional IP addresses? And then if that happens, what happens when you try to connect an extra device to your network? Will it simply not get an IP address? In my home we have about 15-20 devices connected at once, but for places where there are hundreds of devices, it seems like the perfect opportunity for ISPs to charge more? I think I may have it completely wrong, so is there somewhere where there is an explanation of who things will work when IPv6 becomes the norm?

    Read the article

  • Adding user groups from a remote domain server to permissions of a remote desktop terminal server fails. why?

    - by doveyg
    I have 3 computers, two of which are servers running Windows Server 2008 and another running Windows 7. One of the servers has the following roles installed; Active Directory, DHCP and DNS. The other server has a Terminal Server role installed. I am trying to log-on to the Terminal Server via Remote Desktop using the Windows 7 machine with credentials from the Active Directory server. Sounds simple enough, right? Well, no. Whenever I try to add users or groups from the Active Directory Domain server to the Terminal Server's permissions for RDP it seems to ignore, or forget, them. Though the various methods I was able to find it either adds a strange sting of numbers after the user group or the logo to the left has a question mark on it, reopening the dialogue box replaces the user group with the name of the Domain. I am confident I have the Domain setup correctly as I am able to log-on to users in the Active Directory from other computers I have put in the Domain, and when I attempt to browse the user objects from the Domain I am prompted with a username/password field and am able to view the structure of Active Directory objects. Please advise.

    Read the article

  • Global Email Forwarding with EXIM?

    - by Dexirian
    Been trying to find a solution to this for a while without success so here i go : I was given the task to build a High-Availability Load-Balanced Network Cluster for our 2 linux servers. I did some workaround and managed to get a DNS + SQL + Web Folders + Mails synchronisation going between both. Now i would like my server 2 to only do mailing and server 1 to only do web hosting. I transfered all the accounts for 1 to 2 using the WHM built-in account transfert feature. I created 2 different rsync jobs that sync, update, and delete the files for mail and websites. Now i was able to successfully transfer 1 mail accounts from 1 to 2, and the server 2 works flawlessly. All i had to do was change the MX entries to point to the new server and bingo. Now my problem is, some clients have their mail softwares configured so that they point to oldserver.domain.com. I cant make the (A) entry of oldserver.domain.com point to the new server for obvious reasons. I thought of using .foward files and add them to the home directories of the concerned users but that would be very difficult. So my question is : Is there a way to configure exim so that it will only foward mails to the new server? I need to change all the users so they use their mail on server 2 without them doing anything. Thanks! EDIT : TO CLARIFY MY PROBLEM Some clients have their mail point to oldserver.xyz instead of mail.olderserver.xyz I want to know if i can do something to prevent modifying the clients configuration I would also like to know is there is a way to find out what clients aren't properly configured

    Read the article

  • Very high Magento/Apache memory usage even without visitors (are we fooled by our hosting company?)

    - by MrDobalina
    I am no server guy and we have issues with our speed so I come here asking for advise. We have a VPS with 2 cores and 2gb of RAM at a Magento specialized hosting company. Over the course of the last weeks our site speed has gotten worse, even though our store is new, has less than 1000 SKUs and not even 100 visitos a day. At magespeedtest.com we only get 1.87 trans/sec @ 2.11 secs each with a mere 5 concurrent users. Our magento log files are clean, we have no huge database tables or anything like that. When we take a look at our server real time stats, we see that the memory usage jumped up from about 34% to 71% and now 82% in just a few days in idle, with no visitors on the site. Our hosting company said that we do not need to worry about that as it`s maybe related to mysql which creates buffers (which are maybe not even actually being used) and what is important is CPU and swap - stats are ok here. They also said that the low benchmark scores are caused by bad extensions or template modifications on our side. We are not sure if we can trust that statement as we only have 4 plugins installed (all from aheadworks and amasty which are known to be one of the best magento extension developers). Our template modifications are purely html and css, no modifications to the php code. Our pagespeed is ranked with 93/100 in firebug and Magento is properly configured, so the problem really just gets obvious when there are a handful of users on the site at the same time. Can anyone confirm our hosting`s statement about memory usage and where can I start looking for a solution?

    Read the article

  • Disk (EXT4) suddenly empty without any sign of why

    - by Ohnomydisk
    I have a Ubuntu 10.04 server with several disks in it. The disks are setup with a union filesystem, which presents them all as one logical /home. A few days ago, one of the disks appears to have suddenly 'become empty', for lack of better explanation. The amount of data on the /home mount almost halved within minutes - the disk appears to have had just over 400 GB of data prior to 'becoming empty'. I have absolutely no idea what happened. I was not using the server at the other time, but there are half a dozen other users who may have been (without root access and without the ability to hose a whole disk). I've ran SMART tests on the disk and it comes back clean. The filesystem checks fine (it has 12 GB used now, as some user software continued downloading after the incident). All I know is that around around midnight on October 19, the disk usage changed dramatically: The data points are every 15 minutes, and the full loss occured between captures: 2012-10-18 23:58:03.399647 - has 953.97/2059.07 GB [46.33 percent] 2012-10-19 00:13:15.909010 - has 515.18/2059.07 GB [25.02 percent] Other than that, I have not much to go off :-( I know that: There's nothing interesting in log files at that time Nobody appeared to be logged in via SSH at the time it occured (most users do not even use SSH) The server was online through whatever occured (3 months uptime) None of the other disks were affected and everything else on the server looks completely normal I have tried using "extundelete" on the disk and it didn't really find anything (some temporary files, but they looked new anyway) I am completely at a loss to what could have caused this. I was initially thinking maybe root escalation exploit, but even if someone did maliciously "rm" the disk contents, it would take more than 15 minutes for 400 GB?

    Read the article

  • Revoke directory access for a particular user in Solaris

    - by permissiontomars
    I have a need to allow directory access to a particular user on my file system. I want this user to be unable to access any other directory in my file system (initially anyway. It may need access to some directories later). For example: I have a directory called /opt/mydir. - I want my dedicated user to only be able to access this directory, and nothing else. - I want all other users to be able to access this directory as normal. I'm new to Linux and its permissions. I've read a fair bit of background material but I'm a little confused. Is there anyway to revoke permissions to /opt/mydir for a single dedicated user? A possible flawed method would be to only allow access to /opt/mydir and exclude every other user. This won't work because I want all other users to work as normal; accessing the directory. I'm working on Solaris 10. Any suggestions are appreciated.

    Read the article

  • CNAME vs A records

    - by deb
    I built a small rails app that allow users to make a simple site. It uses subdomain accounts ex: deb.myapp.com Whenever an user wanted to have a domain name associated with their site, they would change their NS records to point to slicehost where the application is hosted and I would manage the DNS records myself. However, as more people are using the application this is not an option for me anymore. I prefer users to keep their nameservers at goddady, register.com, etc, so they can log in and manage their own MX records or whatever else they need to change. My question is, should I have them change the A records to point to my server's ip, or should I have them create a CNAME record? Do they need to delete the default A records to allow the CNAME record to work? Will the A record take precedence and overrule the CNAME record? Thanks in advance. Sorry if this is a very basic question. I've read other posts and I can't find a definite answer.

    Read the article

  • "Permission denied" & 500 Internal Server error serving PHP in Mac OS X

    - by Abhic
    I just set up Web Sharing in Mac OS X 10.6.2 Snow Leopard. My httpd.conf allows for ExecCGI and all the folders and files are readable by everybody and even writable by me. I put a simple Hello World in index.php in my base site and yet my apache error log shows this: [Thu Mar 18 00:17:18 2010] [error] [client 192.168.11.135] (13)Permission denied: exec of '/Users/abhic/Sites/index.php' failed [Thu Mar 18 00:17:18 2010] [error] [client 192.168.11.135] Premature end of script headers: index.php <html> <head> <title> Hello </title> </head> <body> <?php echo "Hello"; ?> </body> </html> is what my index.php looks like placed in /Users/abhic/Sites My browser shows a 500 Internal Server Error Any help would do me good in the middle of the night. I have been trying to solve this for way too long. Thank you.

    Read the article

  • Accessing CIFS shares from an OS X machine incredibly slow

    - by Aron Rotteveel
    This is a longshot, because this issue seems over-reported and unanswered on the internet (see references below), but it is about time this issue is permanently solved. The facts: Server: Windows Server 2008, acting as a file server Client: OS X Lion 10.7.3. Method of connecting: directly via IP through Finder: smb://192.168.1.100/share The problem: The initial connection attempt takes about a minute. After the connection is made, it takes one more minute to show the directories in Finder. After navigating to any other directory, it takes several seconds/minutes to parse the directory, seemingly based on the size of the contents. Actually, my entire Finder has this problem after connecting. When using Finder to show my desktop, it can literally take up to a minute to load. Obviously, this is not right. I have no clue how to fix this and would appreciate any help I can get. I am unsure about other relevant information I can provide, but if there is any, please let me know so I can update the post. I seem to be not the only one having this problem: Most importantly, an apple.stackexchange.com entry. Unsolved and unanswered. Several users on the Apple support forums. Users on EduGeek.

    Read the article

  • .htaccess redirect working on localhost but not on server

    - by Thread7
    I want users who hit my web site's root directory to be sent to a subdirectory. So anyone going to: http://MyDomain.com or /index.php would be sent to http://MyDomain.com/subdir I used the .htaccess file to successfully do this on my local machine (with Apache 2). But it doesn't work on the server? Users still see the default index.php in the root directory. Here is my simple .htaccess file. Any ideas? RewriteEngine On Redirect /index.php http://MyDomain.com/subdir/ Now my httpd.conf file AccessFileName .htaccess <Directory /> Options FollowSymLinks AllowOverride All </Directory> <Directory "/var/www/icons"> Options Indexes MultiViews FollowSymLinks AllowOverride None Order allow,deny Allow from all </Directory> <Directory "/var/www/cgi-bin"> AllowOverride None Options None Order allow,deny Allow from all </Directory> <IfModule mod_negotiation.c> <IfModule mod_include.c> <Directory "/var/www/error"> AllowOverride None Options IncludesNoExec AddOutputFilter Includes html AddHandler type-map var Order allow,deny Allow from all LanguagePriority en es de fr ForceLanguagePriority Prefer Fallback </Directory> </IfModule> </IfModule>

    Read the article

  • VLAN across a router to give wireless access to remote sites?

    - by Don
    I've been looking online for this answer, but getting conflicting information. I was under the impression that you couldn't use a VLAN across a router, but maybe it's possible (according to some documentation I see online)? I was hoping someone could clear it up for me. Here's what I'm working with: We have a remote site with a handful of users. We recently gave them an access point (Cisco 1142n) for internal wireless. It's plugged into a switch and working fine (getting IPs from the same DHCP scope as the wired users are getting). Private wireless is set on VL50. At the home office we have private wireless for our internal network working and on VL50, with a test VLAN setup for VL60, which points to our DSL line for the time being. Both private and public wireless works fine internally (not crossing a router). VL50 is named the same at both sites for consistency in naming. If we wanted to give the remote site access to the public wireless (VL60), would that be possible across the routers? For more information, currently the site is connected to the home office via a T1 connection, Cisco routers on both ends. I didn't think it was possible due to the nature of VLANS being layer 2. But, I am from from an expert on this and would appreciate any instruction as to the actual truth of the matter. The end result I'm going for is, how to get our remote sites access to a public (outside) connection along with their private connection, without actually having a DSL (or similar type line) dropped at their location? Thanks in advance for your thoughts.

    Read the article

  • Adding SSD as boot drive to existing system

    - by thegrinner
    I recently bought two 128GB SSDs that I'm planning on adding (RAID 0) to a system I currently have on a 1TB HDD. I'm hoping to redo the disk space such that the SSDs act as the boot drive (only other items would be things I install there explicitly) while the majority of my system is on the HDD - documents, media, program files. Something like this: SSD = [ OS | Explicitly placed programs] HDD = [ Program Files | Media | Documents | etc] I have an external drive capable of holding all the data I want to save, so the backup isn't too much of a concern. What I'm worried about is how I should go about doing this - do I need to do a clean install on the SSDs, reformat the HDD, move things like Program Files/Users to the HDD, and then restore data (not full programs but things like saves)? Should I be using one of the regedit hacks I've seen around to change the default install directories instead of moving program files and users? Should I have the actual folders on the HDD and symlinks on the SSD? Or is there a better solution? Do I need to disconnect my HDD while doing the clean Windows install?

    Read the article

  • Provide a user with service start/stop permissions

    - by slakr007
    I have a very basic domain that I use for development. I want to create a GPO that provides users in the Backup Operators group with start/stop permissions for two specific services on a specific server. I have read several articles about this, and they all indicate that this is very easy. Create a GPO, give the user start/stop permissions to the services under Computer Configuration Policies Windows Settings Security Settings System Services, and voila. Done. Not so much, but I have to be doing something wrong. My install is pretty much the default. The domain controller is in the Domain Controllers OU, the Backup Operators group is under Builtin, and I created a user called Backup under Users. I created a GPO and linked it to the Domain Controllers OU. In the GPO I give the Backup user permission to start/stop two specific services on the server. I forced an update with gpupdate. I used Group Policy Results to verify that my GPO is the winning GPO giving the user the permission to start/stop the two services. However, the user is still unable to start/stop the services. I attempted different loopback settings on the GPO to no avail. I'm sort of at a loss here.

    Read the article

  • Do email providers have to tell me which (inter)national agencies/institutes are requesting legal access to my account data?

    - by Juve
    I know this question is not technical, but i did not find the "stackoverflow for legal issues" and I guess all you super users out there might know the answer. Here is my (potential) problem: I have a free email account at a (inter)national email provider. I used the words "wikileaks" and "twitter" lately in my email. Some over-ambitious national security organization legally requests access to all accounts that behaved similarly. Q1: Can I request the who-, when-, and why-information related to this legal request from my provider? Does he have to tell me which (inter)national organizations (legally) requested my account data? Q2: Does the situation change if I live in Germany (and have a German provider)? I guess here are some German users. And I know that such a legal policy exists for our national credit rating agency. I can request who got access to my data, they have to tell me. Please answer only if you know a good answer, I don't want to start a long discussion on this none-technical question. Best regards, Juve

    Read the article

  • Linq to Datarow, Select multiple columns as distinct?

    - by Beta033
    basically i'm trying to reproduce the following mssql query as LINQ SELECT DISTINCT [TABLENAME], [COLUMNNAME] FROM [DATATABLE] the closest i've got is Dim query = (From row As DataRow In ds.Tables("DATATABLE").Rows _ Select row("COLUMNNAME") ,row("TABLENAME").Distinct when i do the above i get the error Range variable name can be inferred only from a simple or qualified name with no arguments. i was sort of expecting it to return a collection that i could then iterate through and perform actions for each entry. maybe a datarow collection? As a complete LINQ newb, i'm not sure what i'm missing. i've tried variations on Select new with { row("COLUMNNAME") ,row("TABLENAME")} and get: Anonymous type member name can be inferred only from a simple or qualified name with no arguments. Also, does anyone know of any good books/resources to get fluent?

    Read the article

  • How to migrate deploy RESTful WCF Web Service from IIS 6.0 to IIS 7.0

    - by Chris Lee
    Hi all, I have a WCF Restful Web Service. It works find under VS and IIS 6.0. Now I want to move it to another work station with IIS 7.0 on it. I tried to copy all the deploy file from IIS 6 to IIS 7, but it cannot be accessed by other client, except for the request from it's own machine. I don't know what's wrong and I tried to enable the anonymous access. Please help me. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • How to set disabled in MVC htmlAttribute

    - by Ollie
    When using an HTML Helper, what is the best method to set an attribute based on a condition. For example <%if (Page.User.IsInRole("administrator")) {%> <%=Html.TextBoxFor(m => m.FirstName, new {@class='contactDetails'}%> <%} else {%> <%=Html.TextBoxFor(m => m.FirstName, new {@class='contactDetails', disabled = true}%> <%}%> There must be a better way to programmatically add just one additional KeyPair to the anonymous type? Can't use new { .... disabled = Page.User.IsInRole("administrator") ... } as the browser takes any disabled attribute value as making the input disabled

    Read the article

  • windows authentication vs sql server authentication for asp.net forms authentication site

    - by Brij
    I have a database and a site having forms authentication. It is working fine with VS2008. This time, I am using "Trusted_connection =True". But when it is opened from outside or directly from browser then I am getting error "Login failed for user 'NT AUTHORITY\ANONYMOUS LOGON'." I know this is due to permission. SQL server is based on windows authentication. What is the best approach to manage user to connect sql server? Should I enable sql server authentication? Let me know what to do so that it makes the production feel and there wouldn't be any problem during deployment. Note: Sql server is installed on domain server.

    Read the article

  • How add service reference in visual studio 2008 authenticating against password-protected web servic

    - by user312305
    Hello, first time here... great site Well, I want to reference a web service, and it requires user/pass authentication. In VS 2008, if I try to "add reference", or "add service reference", all I can type is the URL, there's no way to input my credentials. Obviously, if I try to load the ws, it shows me a nice message: "The request failed with HTTP status 403: Forbidden. Metadata contains a reference that cannot be resolved: The HTTP request is unauthorized with client authentication scheme 'Anonymous'. The authentication header received from the server was 'Basic realm="weblogic"'. The remote server returned an error: (401) Unauthorized." So my question is: Is it possible (using VS 2008) to add a reference to a web service that is protected? How? Any help is kindly appreciated. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • LINQ, "Argument types do not match" error, what does it mean, how do I address it?

    - by Biff MaGriff
    Hello, I'm new to linq and I'm trying to databind to an anonymous type. I'm using SubSonic 3.0 as my DAL. I'm doing a select from 2 tables like so var myDeal = (from u in db.Users select new { UserID = u.UserID, UserRoleID = (from ur in u.UserRoles where u.UserRoleID == ur.UserRoleID select ur).FirstOrDefault().UserRoleID }); foreach (var v in myDeal) //dies first time here { } Then when I databind or try to iterate through the collection I get the "Argument types do not match" error during run time. I'm not sure what is going on here.

    Read the article

  • Cannot import resource > "app/config/security.yml" from "/app/config/config.yml"

    - by tirengarfio
    Im getting this error: FileLoaderLoadException: Cannot import resource "app/config/security.yml" from "/app/config/config.yml". The file security.yml is on the right path. This is my security.yml file: jms_sapp/confiapp/config/security.yml secure_all_services: false exprapp/confiapp/config/security.yml security: encoders: Symfony\Component\Security\Core\User\User: plaintext role_hierarchy: ROLE_ADMIN: ROLE_USER ROLE_SUPER_ADMIN: [ROLE_USER, ROLE_ADMIN, ROLE_ALLOWED_TO_SWITCH] providers: in_memory: memory: users: user: { password: userpass, roles: [ 'ROLE_USER' ] } admin: { password: adminpass, roles: [ 'ROLE_ADMIN' ] } firewalls: dev: pattern: ^/(_(profiler|wdt)|css|images|js)/ security: false login: pattern: ^/demo/secured/login$ security: false secured_area: pattern: ^/demo/secured/ form_login: check_path: /demo/secured/login_check login_path: /demo/secured/login logout: path: /demo/secured/logout target: /demo/ #anonymous: ~ #http_basic: # realm: "Secured Demo Area" access_control: #- { path: ^/login, roles: IS_AUTHENTICATED_ANONYMOUSLY, requires_channel: https } #- { path: ^/_internal/secure, roles: IS_AUTHENTICATED_ANONYMOUSLY, ip: 127.0.0.1 }

    Read the article

  • asp.net MVC RC1 RenderPartial ViewDataDictionary

    - by Mark79
    I'm trying to pass a ViewData object from a master page to a view user control using the ViewDataDictionary. The problem is the ViewDataDictionary is not returning any values in the view user control whichever way i try it. The sample code below is using an anonymous object just for demonstration although neither this method or passing a ViewData object works. Following is the RenderPartial helper method i'm trying to use: <% Html.RenderPartial("/Views/Project/Projects.ascx", ViewData.Eval("Projects"), new ViewDataDictionary(new { Test = "Mark" })); %> and in my view user control i do the following: <%= Html.Encode(ViewData["Test"]) %> Why does this not return anything? Thanks for your help. EDIT: I'm able to pass and access the stronlgy typed model without any problems. it's the ViewDataDictionary which i'm trying to use to pass say just a single value outside of the model..

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 354 355 356 357 358 359 360 361 362 363 364 365  | Next Page >