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  • Querying a 3rd party website's database from my website

    - by Mong134
    The Goal: To retrieve information from a 3rd party database based off of a user's query on my ASP.NET website The Details: I need to be able to search 3rd-party websites for information relating to pharmaceutical drugs. Basically, here's what I've been tasked with: a user starts entering the name of a drug they're using in their experiments, and while they're typing a 3rd party website (e.g., here or here) is queried and suggestions are made based based off of what they've typed. Once they've made a selection, certain properties (molecular weight, chemical structure, etc) are retrieved from the 3rd party database and stored in our database. PharmaGKB.org's search bar is pretty much what I need to implement, but I need to access a 3rd party db. The site that I'm working on is ASP.NET/C#. The Problem: I don't really know where to start with this. There's a downloadable Perl example at the bottom of the page here, but it didn't really help me all that much. I'm at a loss as to how to implement this, or even find information about how to do it. The AJAX toolkit was suggested, but I'm not sure if that will solve the issue. JavaScript is also being considered, but again, I'm not sure if that will be sufficient, either. Perl Example Connection As a mentioned, here is a snippet from the Perl example given on the Pharmgkb.org site: my $call = SOAP::Lite -> readable (1) -> uri('SearchService') -> proxy('http://www.pharmgkb.org/services/SearchService') -> search ($ARGV[0]); However, I'm not sure how to implement this is C#/ASP.NET/JavaScript. There's a question on Stack Overflow about embedding Perl in C#, but it require a C wrapper as well, and I don't think that three languages is necessary or wise to solve this issue.

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  • PHP, MySQL prepared statements - can you use results of execute more than once by calling data_seek(

    - by Carvell Fenton
    Hello, I have a case where I want to use the results of a prepared statement more than once in a nested loop. The outer loop processes the results of another query, and the inner loop is the results of the prepared statement query. So the code would be something like this (just "pseudoish" to demonstrate the concept): // not showing the outer query, it is just a basic SELECT, not prepared statement // we'll call it $outer_query $obj_array = array(); // going to save objects in this $ids = array(18,19,20); // just example id numbers $query = "SELECT field1, field2 FROM table1 WHERE id=?"; $stmt = $db->prepare($query); foreach ($ids as $id) { $stmt->bind_param("i", $id); $stmt->execute(); $stmt->bind_result($var1, $var2); $stmt->store_result(); // I think I need this for data_seek while ($q1 = $outer_query->fetch_object()) { while ($stmt->fetch()) { if ($q1->field1 == $var1) { // looking for a match $obj = new stdClass(); $obj->var1 = $var1; $obj->var2 = $var2; $obj_array[] = $obj; $stmt->data_seek(0); // reset for outer loop break; // found match, so leave inner } } } } The problem I seem to be experiencing is that the values are not getting bound in the variables as I would expect after the first time I use fetch in the inner loop. Specifically, in one example I ran with 3 ids for the foreach, the first id was processed correctly, the second was processed incorrectly (matches were not found in the inner loop even though they existed), and then the third was processed correctly. Is there something wrong with the prepared statment function calls in the sequence I am doing above, or is this an invalid way to use the results of the prepared statement? Thanks.

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  • SSL over TDS, SQL Server 2005 Express

    - by reuvenab
    I capture packets sent/received by Win Xp machine when connecting to SQL Server 2005 Express using TLS encryption. Server and Client exchange Hello messages Server and Client send ChangeCipherSpec message Then Server and Client server send strange message that is not described in TLS protocol What is the message and if SSL over TDS is standard compliant at all? Server side capture: 16 **SSL Handshake** 03 01 00 4a 02 ServerHello 00 00 46 03 01 4b dd 68 59 GMT 33 13 37 98 10 5d 57 9d ff 71 70 dc d6 6f 9e 2c Random[00..13] cb 96 c0 2e b3 2f 9b 74 67 05 cc 96 Random[14..27] 20 72 26 00 00 0f db 7f d9 b0 51 c2 4f cd 81 4c Session ID 3f e3 d2 d1 da 55 c0 fe 9b 56 b7 6f 70 86 fe bb Session ID 54 Session ID 00 04 Cipher Suite 00 Compression 14 03 01 00 01 01 **ChangeCipherSpec** 16 03 01 ???? Finished ??? 00 20 d0 da cc c4 36 11 43 ff 22 25 8a e1 38 2b ???? ??? 71 ce f3 59 9e 35 b0 be b2 4b 1d c5 21 21 ce 41 ???? ??? 8e 24

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  • Chinese records of sqlite databse are in not accessable in iphone app

    - by Mas
    Hi! I'm creating an iphone app. In which I'm reading data from the sqlite db and presenting it in the tableview control. Problem is that the data is in chinese language. Due to unknown reason, when I read/fetch record from the sqlite table, some records are presented and other are missed by objc. Even objc reads some columns of the missing values, But returns the nil results of the some columns. In reality these columns are not empty. I tried many solutions but didn't find any suitable. Same database is working perfectly in the android version of the app. Any one can help here is the code of reading the chinese records from table Quote *q = [[Quote alloc] init]; q.catId = sqlite3_column_int(statement, 0); q.subCatId = sqlite3_column_int(statement, 1); q.quote = [NSString stringWithUTF8String:(char *)sqlite3_column_text(statement, 2)]; and here is the some records which iphone misses ??????·??? ??????,????????! ??????,??????? Thanks

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  • How can I get the type I want?

    - by Danny Chen
    There are a lot of such classes in my project (very old and stable code, I can't do many changes to them, maybe slight changes are OK) public class MyEntity { public long ID { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } public decimal Salary { get; set; } public static GetMyEntity ( long ID ) { MyEntity e = new MyEntity(); // load data from DB and bind to this instance return e; } } For some reasons, now I need to do this: Type t = Type.GetType("XXX"); // XXX is one of the above classes' name MethodInfo staticM= t.GetMethods(BindingFlags.Public | BindingFlags.Static).FirstOrDefault();// I'm sure I can get the correct one var o = staticM.Invoke(...); //returns a object, but I want the type above! If I pass "MyEntity" at beginning, I hope I can get o as MyEntity! Please NOTE that I know the "name of the class" only. MyEntity e = staticM.Invoke(...) as MyEntity; can't be used here.

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  • most efficient method of turning multiple 1D arrays into columns of a 2D array

    - by Ty W
    As I was writing a for loop earlier today, I thought that there must be a neater way of doing this... so I figured I'd ask. I looked briefly for a duplicate question but didn't see anything obvious. The Problem: Given N arrays of length M, turn them into a M-row by N-column 2D array Example: $id = [1,5,2,8,6] $name = [a,b,c,d,e] $result = [[1,a], [5,b], [2,c], [8,d], [6,e]] My Solution: Pretty straight forward and probably not optimal, but it does work: <?php // $row is returned from a DB query // $row['<var>'] is a comma separated string of values $categories = array(); $ids = explode(",", $row['ids']); $names = explode(",", $row['names']); $titles = explode(",", $row['titles']); for($i = 0; $i < count($ids); $i++) { $categories[] = array("id" => $ids[$i], "name" => $names[$i], "title" => $titles[$i]); } ?> note: I didn't put the name = value bit in the spec, but it'd be awesome if there was some way to keep that as well.

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  • Storing Credit Card Numbers in SESSION - ways around it?

    - by JM4
    I am well aware of PCI Compliance so don't need an earful about storing CC numbers (and especially CVV nums) within our company database during checkout process. However, I want to be safe as possible when handling sensitive consumer information and am curious how to get around passing CC numbers from page to page WITHOUT using SESSION variables if at all possible. My site is built in this way: Step 1) collect Credit Card information from customer - when customer hits submit, the information is first run through JS validation, then run through PHP validation, if all passes he moves to step 2. Step 2) Information is displayed on a review page for customer to make sure the details of their upcoming transaction are shown. Only the first 6 and last 4 of the CC are shown on this page but card type, and exp date are shwon fully. If he clicks proceed, Step 3) The information is sent to another php page which runs one last validation, sends information through secure payment gateway, and string is returned with details. Step 4) If all is good and well, the consumer information (personal, not CC) is stored in DB and redirected to a completion page. If anything is bad, he is informed and told to revisit the CC processing page to try again (max of 3 times). Any suggestions?

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  • How do I tweak columns in a Flat File Destination in SSIS?

    - by theog
    I have an OLE DB Data source and a Flat File Destination in the Data Flow of my SSIS Project. The goal is simply to pump data into a text file, and it does that. Where I'm having problems is with the formatting. I need to be able to rtrim() a couple of columns to remove trailing spaces, and I have a couple more that need their leading zeros preserved. The current process is losing all the leading zeros. The rtrim() can be done by simple truncation and ignoring the truncation errors, but that's very inelegant and error prone. I'd like to find a better way, like actually doing the rtrim() function where needed. Exploring similar SSIS questions & answers on SO, the thing to do seems to be "Use a Script Task", but that's ususally just thrown out there with no details, and it's not at all an intuitive thing to set up. I don't see how to use scripting to do what I need. Do I use a Script Task on the Control Flow, or a Script Component in the Data Flow? Can I do rtrim() and pad strings where needed in a script? Anybody got an example of doing this or similar things? Many thanks in advance.

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  • How should I pass the translated text to my object in my multilingual application?

    - by boatingcow
    Up until now, I have maintained a 'dictionary' table in my database, for example: +-----------+---------------------------------------+-----------------------------------------------+--------+ | phrase | en | fr | etc... | +-----------+---------------------------------------+-----------------------------------------------+--------+ | generated | Generated in %1$01.2f seconds at %2$s | Créée en %1$01.2f secondes à %2$s aujourd'hui | ... | | submit | Submit... | Envoyer... | ... | +-----------+---------------------------------------+-----------------------------------------------+--------+ I'll then select all rows from the database for the column that matches the locale we're interested in (or read the cache from a file to speed db lookup) and dump the dictionary into an array called $lng. Then I'll have HTML helper objects like this in my view: $html->input(array('type' => 'submit', 'value' => $lng['submit'], etc...)); ... $html->div(array('value' => sprintf($lng['generated'], $generated, date('H:i')), etc...)); The translations can appear in PDF, XLS and AJAX responses too. The problem with my approach so far is that I now have loads of global $lng; in every class where there is a function that spits out UI code.. How do other people get the translation into the object? Is it one scenario where globals aren't actually that bad? Would it be madness to create a class with accessors when the dictionary terms are all static?

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  • Two entities with @ManyToOne should join the same table

    - by Ivan Yatskevich
    I have the following entities Student @Entity public class Student implements Serializable { @Id @GeneratedValue(strategy = GenerationType.AUTO) private Long id; //getter and setter for id } Teacher @Entity public class Teacher implements Serializable { @Id @GeneratedValue(strategy = GenerationType.AUTO) private Long id; //getter and setter for id } Task @Entity public class Task implements Serializable { @Id @GeneratedValue(strategy = GenerationType.AUTO) private Long id; @ManyToOne(optional = false) @JoinTable(name = "student_task", inverseJoinColumns = { @JoinColumn(name = "student_id") }) private Student author; @ManyToOne(optional = false) @JoinTable(name = "student_task", inverseJoinColumns = { @JoinColumn(name = "teacher_id") }) private Teacher curator; //getters and setters } Consider that author and curator are already stored in DB and both are in the attached state. I'm trying to persist my Task: Task task = new Task(); task.setAuthor(author); task.setCurator(curator); entityManager.persist(task); Hibernate executes the following SQL: insert into student_task (teacher_id, id) values (?, ?) which, of course, leads to null value in column "student_id" violates not-null constraint Can anyone explain this issue and possible ways to resolve it?

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  • POSTmethod and PHP- login verification

    - by Neethusha
    I wrote a code for login verification..I got output with GET. But i need output with POST since it is more secure.pls let me know if there is any error in my code. javascript code: var xml; function verifyusernamepasswd(pass) { //pass is password that will be passed as parameter xml=new XMLHttpRequest(); var url="http://localhost/loginvalidate.php"; var para="q="+username+"&p="+pass;//username is global xml.setRequestHeader("Content-type", "application/x-www-form-urlencoded"); xml.setRequestHeader("Content-length", para.length); xml.setRequestHeader("Connection", "close"); xml.open("POST",url,true); xml.onreadystatechange=statechanged1; xml.send(para); } function statechanged1() { if(xml.readyState==4) alert(xml.responseText); } php code: <?php $username=$_POST["q"]; $password=$_POST["p"]; $con=mysql_connect("localhost","root","blaze"); if(!$con) { die('Could not connect: '.mysql.error()); } mysql_select_db("BLAZE",$con) or die("No such Db"); $result=mysql_query("SELECT Passwword FROM USERTABLE WHERE Userhandle='$username'"); if($result==null) echo "false"; else if($result!=null) { $row=mysql_fetch_array($result); if((strcmp($row['Passwword'],$password)==0)) echo "true"; else echo "false"; } ?> the verification does not return anything, cos my alert is not displayed at all...pls tell me whats wrong....

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  • Need to add WHERE condition to query

    - by Angel Carlson
    I am trying to modify edit_orders.php in Zen Cart. Hoping someone might be able to help me add a condition to a query. I need the queries below to specify that the items selected from TABLE_PRODUCTS_DESCRIPTION and TABLE_CATEGORIES_DESCRIPTION must have a language_id = 1. Would be so grateful for any help you could provide. // ############################################################################ // Get List of All Products // ############################################################################ //$result = zen_db_query("SELECT products_name, p.products_id, x.categories_name, ptc.categories_id FROM " . TABLE_PRODUCTS . " p LEFT JOIN " . TABLE_PRODUCTS_DESCRIPTION . " pd ON pd.products_id=p.products_id LEFT JOIN " . TABLE_PRODUCTS_TO_CATEGORIES . " ptc ON ptc.products_id=p.products_id LEFT JOIN " . TABLE_CATEGORIES_DESCRIPTION . " cd ON cd.categories_id=ptc.categories_id LEFT JOIN " . TABLE_CATEGORIES_DESCRIPTION . " x ON x.categories_id=ptc.categories_id ORDER BY categories_id"); $result = $db -> Execute("SELECT products_name, p.products_id, categories_name, ptc.categories_id FROM " . TABLE_PRODUCTS . " p LEFT JOIN " . TABLE_PRODUCTS_DESCRIPTION . " pd ON pd.products_id=p.products_id LEFT JOIN " . TABLE_PRODUCTS_TO_CATEGORIES . " ptc ON ptc.products_id=p.products_id LEFT JOIN " . TABLE_CATEGORIES_DESCRIPTION . " cd ON cd.categories_id=ptc.categories_id ORDER BY categories_name");

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  • MySQL SELECT combining 3 SELECTs INTO 1

    - by Martin Tóth
    Consider following tables in MySQL database: entries: creator_id INT entry TEXT is_expired BOOL other: creator_id INT entry TEXT userdata: creator_id INT name VARCHAR etc... In entries and other, there can be multiple entries by 1 creator. userdata table is read only for me (placed in other database). I'd like to achieve a following SELECT result: +------------+---------+---------+-------+ | creator_id | entries | expired | other | +------------+---------+---------+-------+ | 10951 | 59 | 55 | 39 | | 70887 | 41 | 34 | 108 | | 88309 | 38 | 20 | 102 | | 94732 | 0 | 0 | 86 | ... where entries is equal to SELECT COUNT(entry) FROM entries GROUP BY creator_id, expired is equal to SELECT COUNT(entry) FROM entries WHERE is_expired = 0 GROUP BY creator_id and other is equal to SELECT COUNT(entry) FROM other GROUP BY creator_id. I need this structure because after doing this SELECT, I need to look for user data in the "userdata" table, which I planned to do with INNER JOIN and select desired columns. I solved this problem with selecting "NULL" into column which does not apply for given SELECT: SELECT creator_id, COUNT(any_entry) as entries, COUNT(expired_entry) as expired, COUNT(other_entry) as other FROM ( SELECT creator_id, entry AS any_entry, NULL AS expired_entry, NULL AS other_enry FROM entries UNION SELECT creator_id, NULL AS any_entry, entry AS expired_entry, NULL AS other_enry FROM entries WHERE is_expired = 1 UNION SELECT creator_id, NULL AS any_entry, NULL AS expired_entry, entry AS other_enry FROM other ) AS tTemp GROUP BY creator_id ORDER BY entries DESC, expired DESC, other DESC ; I've left out the INNER JOIN and selecting other columns from userdata table on purpose (my question being about combining 3 SELECTs into 1). Is my idea valid? = Am I trying to use the right "construction" for this? Are these kind of SELECTs possible without creating an "empty" column? (some kind of JOIN) Should I do it "outside the DB": make 3 SELECTs, make some order in it (let's say python lists/dicts) and then do the additional SELECTs for userdata? Solution for a similar question does not return rows where entries and expired are 0. Thank you for your time.

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  • Where do objects merge/join data in a 3-tier model?

    - by BerggreenDK
    Its probarbly a simple 3-tier problem. I just want to make sure we use the best practice for this and I am not that familiary with the structures yet. We have the 3 tiers: GUI: ASP.NET for Presentation-layer (first platform) BAL: Business-layer will be handling the logic on a webserver in C#, so we both can use it for webforms/MVC + webservices DAL: LINQ to SQL in the Data-layer, returning BusinessObjects not LINQ. DB: The SQL will be Microsoft SQL-server/Express (havent decided yet). Lets think of setup where we have a database of [Persons]. They can all have multiple [Address]es and we have a complete list of all [PostalCode] and corresponding citynames etc. The deal is that we have joined a lot of details from other tables. {Relations}/[tables] [Person]:1 --- N:{PersonAddress}:M --- 1:[Address] [Address]:N --- 1:[PostalCode] Now we want to build the DAL for Person. How should the PersonBO look and when does the joins occure? Is it a business-layer problem to fetch all citynames and possible addressses pr. Person? or should the DAL complete all this before returning the PersonBO to the BAL ? Class PersonBO { public int ID {get;set;} public string Name {get;set;} public List<AddressBO> {get;set;} // Question #1 } // Q1: do we retrieve the objects before returning the PersonBO and should it be an Array instead? or is this totally wrong for n-tier/3-tier?? Class AddressBO { public int ID {get;set;} public string StreetName {get;set;} public int PostalCode {get;set;} // Question #2 } // Q2: do we make the lookup or just leave the PostalCode for later lookup? Can anyone explain in what order to pull which objects? Constructive criticism is very welcome. :o)

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  • ASP Dot Net : How to repeat HTML parts with minor differences on a page?

    - by tinky05
    It's a really simple problem. I've got HTML code like this : <div> <img src="image1.jpg" alt="test1" /> </div> <div> <img src="image2.jpg" alt="test2" /> </div> <div> <img src="image3.jpg" alt="test3" /> </div> etc... The data is comming from a DB (image name, alt text). In JAVA, I would do something like : save the info in array in the back end. For the presentation I would loop through it with JSTL : <c:foeach items="${data}" var="${item}> <div> <img src="${item.image}" alt="${item.alt}" /> </div> </c:foreach> What's the best practice in ASP.net I just don't want to create a string with HTML code in it in the "code behind", it's ugly IMO.

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  • Namespace constraint with generic class decleration

    - by SomeGuy
    Good afternoon people, I would like to know if (and if so how) it is possible to define a namespace as a constraint parameter in a generic class declaration. What I have is this: namespace MyProject.Models.Entities <-- Contains my classes to be persisted in db namespace MyProject.Tests.BaseTest <-- Obvious i think Now the decleration of my 'BaseTest' class looks like so; public class BaseTest<T> This BaseTest does little more (at the time of writing) than remove all entities that were added to the database during testing. So typically I will have a test class declared as: public class MyEntityRepositoryTest : BaseTest<MyEntity> What i would LIKE to do is something similar to the following: public class BaseTest<T> where T : <is of the MyProject.Models.Entities namespace> Now i am aware that it would be entirely possible to simply declare a 'BaseEntity' class from which all entities created within the MyProject.Models.Entities namespace will inherit from; public class BaseTest<T> where T : MyBaseEntity but...I dont actually need to, or want to. Plus I am using an ORM and mapping entities with inheritance, although possible, adds a layer of complexity that is not required. So, is it possible to constrain a generic class parameter to a namespace and not a specific type ? Thank you for your time.

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  • Use Zip to Pre-Populate City/State Form with jQuery AJAX

    - by Paul
    I'm running into a problem that I can solve fine by just submitting a form and calling a db to retrieve/echo the information, but AJAX seems to be a bit different for doing this (and is what I need). Earlier in a form process I ask for the zip code like so: <input type="text" maxlength="5" size="5" id="zip" /> Then I have a button to continue, but this button just runs a javascript function that shows the rest of the form. When the rest of the form shows, I want to pre-populate the City input with their city, and pre-populate the State dropdown with their state. I figured I would have to find a way to set city/state to variables, and echo the variables into the form. But I can't figure out how to get/set those variables with AJAX as opposed to a form submit. Here's how I did it without ajax: $zip = mysql_real_escape_string($_POST['zip']); $q = " SELECT city FROM citystatezip WHERE zip = $zip"; $r = mysql_query($q); $row = mysql_fetch_assoc($r); $city = $row['city']; Can anybody help me out with using AJAX to set these variables? Thanks!

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  • Django IntegrityError: foreign key violation upon delete

    - by Lukasz Korzybski
    I have Order and Shipment model. Shipment has a foreign key to Order. class Order(...): ... class Shipment() order = m.ForeignKey('Order') ... Now in one of my views I want do delete order object along with all related objects. So I invoke order.delete(). I have Django 1.0.4, PostgreSQL 8.4 and I use transaction middleware, so whole request is enclosed in single transaction. The problem is that upon order.delete() I get: ... File "/usr/local/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/django/db/backends/__init__.py", line 28, in _commit return self.connection.commit() IntegrityError: update or delete on table "main_order" violates foreign key constraint "main_shipment_order_id_fkey" on table "main_shipment" DETAIL: Key (id)=(45) is still referenced from table "main_shipment". I checked in connection.queries that proper queries are executed in proper order. First shipment is deleted, after that django executes delete on order row: {'time': '0.000', 'sql': 'DELETE FROM "main_shipment" WHERE "id" IN (17)'}, {'time': '0.000', 'sql': 'DELETE FROM "main_order" WHERE "id" IN (45)'} Foreign key have ON DELETE NO ACTION (default) and is initially deferred. I don't know why I get foreign key constraint violation. I also tried to register pre_delete signal and manually delete shipment objects before delete on order is called, but it resulted in the same error. I can change ON DELETE behaviour for this key in Postgres but it would be just a hack, I wonder if anyone has a better idea what's going on here. There is also a small detail, my Order model inherits from Cart model, so it actually doesn't have id field but cart_ptr_id and after DELETE on order is executed there is also DELETE on cart, but it seems unrelated? to the shipment-order problem so I simplified it in the example.

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  • MySQL Stored Procedures : Use a variable as the database name in a cursor declaration

    - by Justin
    I need to use a variable to indicate what database to query in the declaration of a cursor. Here is a short snippet of the code : CREATE PROCEDURE `update_cdrs_lnp_data`(IN dbName VARCHAR(25), OUT returnCode SMALLINT) cdr_records:BEGIN DECLARE cdr_record_cursor CURSOR FOR SELECT cdrs_id, called, calling FROM dbName.cdrs WHERE lrn_checked = 'N'; # Setup logging DECLARE EXIT HANDLER FOR SQLEXCEPTION BEGIN #call log_debug('Got exception in update_cdrs_lnp_data'); SET returnCode = -1; END; As you can see, I'm TRYING to use the variable dbName to indicate in which database the query should occur within. However, MySQL will NOT allow that. I also tried things such as : CREATE PROCEDURE `update_cdrs_lnp_data`(IN dbName VARCHAR(25), OUT returnCode SMALLINT) cdr_records:BEGIN DECLARE cdr_record_cursor CURSOR FOR SET @query = CONCAT("SELECT cdrs_id, called, calling FROM " ,dbName, ".cdrs WHERE lrn_checked = 'N' "); PREPARE STMT FROM @query; EXECUTE STMT; # Setup logging DECLARE EXIT HANDLER FOR SQLEXCEPTION BEGIN #call log_debug('Got exception in update_cdrs_lnp_data'); SET returnCode = -1; END; Of course this doesn't work either as MySQL only allows a standard SQL statement in the cursor declaration. Can anyone think of a way to use the same stored procedure in multiple databases by passing in the name of the db that should be affected?

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  • Synchronizing one or more databases with a master database - Foreign keys

    - by Ikke
    I'm using Google Gears to be able to use an application offline (I know Gears is deprecated). The problem I am facing is the synchronization with the database on the server. The specific problem is the primary keys or more exactly, the foreign keys. When sending the information to the server, I could easily ignore the primary keys, and generate new ones. But then how would I know what the relations are. I had one sollution in mind, bet the I would need to save all the pk for every client. What is the best way to synchronize multiple client with one server db. Edit: I've been thinking about it, and I guess seqential primary keys are not the best solution, but what other possibilities are there? Time based doesn't seem right because of collisions which could happen. A GUID comes to mind, is that an option? It looks like generating a GUID in javascript is not that easy. I can do something with natural keys or composite keys. As I'm thinking about it, that looks like the best solution. Can I expect any problems with that?

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  • How to Update with LINQ?

    - by DaveDev
    currently, I'm doing an update similar to as follows, because I can't see a better way of doing it. I've tried suggestions that I've read in blogs but none work, such as http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb425822.aspx and http://weblogs.asp.net/scottgu/archive/2007/05/19/using-linq-to-sql-part-1.aspx Maybe these do work and I'm missing some point. Has anyone else had luck with them? // please note this isn't the actual code. // I've modified it to clarify the point I wanted to make // and also I didn't want to post our code here! public bool UpdateMyStuff(int myId, List<int> funds) { // get MyTypes that correspond to the ID I want to update IQueryable<MyType> myTypes = database.MyTypes.Where(xx => xx.MyType_MyId == myId); // delete them from the database foreach (db.MyType mt in myTypes) { database.MyTypes.DeleteOnSubmit(mt); } database.SubmitChanges(); // create a new row for each item I wanted to update, and insert it foreach (int fund in funds) { database.MyType mt = new database.MyType { MyType_MyId = myId, fund_id = fund }; database.MyTypes.InsertOnSubmit(mt); } // try to commit the insert try { database.SubmitChanges(); return true; } catch (Exception) { return false; throw; } } Unfortunately, there isn't a database.MyTypes.Update() method so I don't know a better way to do it. Can sombody suggest what I could do? Thanks. ..as a side note, why isn't there an Update() method?

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  • What is best practice about having one-many hibernate

    - by Patrick
    Hi all, I believe this is a common scenario. Say I have a one-many mapping in hibernate Category has many Item Category: @OneToMany( cascade = {CascadeType.ALL},fetch = FetchType.LAZY) @JoinColumn(name="category_id") @Cascade( value = org.hibernate.annotations.CascadeType.DELETE_ORPHAN ) private List<Item> items; Item: @ManyToOne(targetEntity=Category.class,fetch=FetchType.EAGER) @JoinColumn(name="category_id",insertable=false,updatable=false) private Category category; All works fine. I use Category to fully control Item's life cycle. But, when I am writing code to update Category, first I get Category out from DB. Then pass it to UI. User fill in altered values for Category and pass back. Here comes the problem. Because I only pass around Category information not Item. Therefore the Item collection will be empty. When I call saveOrUpdate, it will clean out all associations. Any suggestion on what's best to address this? I think the advantage of having Category controls Item is to easily main the order of Item and not to confuse bi-directly. But what about situation that you do want to just update Category it self? Load it first and merge? Thank you.

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  • Dynamically generate client-side HTML form control using JavaScript and server-side Python code in Google App Engine

    - by gisc
    I have the following client-side front-end HTML using Jinja2 template engine: {% for record in result %} <textarea name="remark">{{ record.remark }}</textarea> <input type="submit" name="approve" value="Approve" /> {% endfor %} Thus the HTML may show more than 1 set of textarea and submit button. The back-end Python code retrieves a variable number of records from a gql query using the model, and pass this to the Jinja2 template in result. When a submit button is clicked, it triggers the post method to update the record: def post(self): if self.request.get('approve'): updated_remark = self.request.get('remark') record.remark = db.Text(updated_remark) record.put() However, in some instances, the record updated is NOT the one that correspond to the submit button clicked (eg if a user clicks on record 1 submit, record 2 remark gets updated, but not record 1). I gather that this is due to the duplicate attribute name remark. I can possibly use JavaScript/jQuery to generate different attribute names. The question is, how do I code the back-end Python to get the (variable number of) names generated by the JavaScript? Thanks.

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  • Blackberry Asynchronous HTTP Requests - How?

    - by Kai
    The app I'm working on has a self contained database. The only time I need HTTP request is when the user first loads the app. I do this by calling a class that verifies whether or not a local DB exists and, if not, create one with the following request: HttpRequest data = new HttpRequest("http://www.somedomain.com/xml", "GET", this); data.start(); This xml returns a list of content, all of which have images that I want to fetch AFTER the original request is complete and stored. So something like this won't work: HttpRequest data = new HttpRequest("http://www.somedomain.com/xml", "GET", this); data.start(); HttpRequest images = new HttpRequest("http://www.somedomain.com/xmlImages", "GET", this); images.start(); Since it will not treat this like an asynchronous request. I have not found much information on adding callbacks to httpRequest, or any other method I could use to ensure operation 2 does not execute until operation 1 is complete. Any help would be appreciated. Thanks

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  • Good case for a Null Object Pattern? (Provide some service with a mailservice)

    - by fireeyedboy
    For a website I'm working on, I made an Media Service object that I use in the front end, as well as in the backend (CMS). This Media Service object manipulates media in a local repository (DB); it provides the ability to upload/embed video's and upload images. In other words, website visitors are able to do this in the front end, but administrators of the site are also able to do this in the backend. I'ld like this service to mail the administrators when a visitor has uploaded/embedded a new medium in the frontend, but refrain from mailing them when they upload/embed a medium themself in the backend. So I started wondering whether this is a good case for passing a null object, that mimicks the mail funcionality, to the Media Service in the backend. I thought this might come in handy when they decide the backend needs to have implemented mail functionality as well. In simplified terms I'ld like to do something like this: Frontend: $mediaService = new MediaService( new MediaRepository(), new StandardMailService() ); Backend: $mediaService = new MediaService( new MediaRepository(), new NullMailService() ); How do you feel about this? Does this make sense? Or am I setting myself up for problems down the road?

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