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• Google Radar Chart: Not plotting data

  - by Hallik

  Hi. I have different types of data that I have normalized just with base10, so everything is on a 10 point scale. There are two data points, and the legend for them show up fine. All the points around the radar show up fine and so do the labels for them, but I don't see any filled in data. Outside of the labels and axis, the chart is blank. Below is the actual image tag I render, then I split up the variables on each line for easy readability. Anyone mind telling me why it isn't working? <img src="http://chart.apis.google.com/chart?cht=rs&amp;chm=B,3366CC60,0,1.0,5.0|B,CC4D3360,1,1.0,5.0&chs=600x500&chd=t:4.6756775443385,4.7031365524912,1.8646655408171,1.8358167047079,4.2483837215455,4.1367786166752,|5.0319252700625,5.0370797208146,1.8415340693163,1.8591105937857,4.3392150450337,4.1434876641017&chco=3366CC,CC4D33&chls=2.0,4.0,0.0|2.0,4.0,0.0&chxt=x&chxl=0:|Label1|Label2|label3|Label4|Label5|Label6&chxr=0,0.0,10.0&chdl=Data Object 1|Data Object 2&"/> cht=rs& chm=B,3366CC60,0,1.0,5.0|B,CC4D3360,1,1.0,5.0& chs=600x500& chd=t:4.6756775443385,4.7031365524912,1.8646655408171,1.8358167047079,4.2483837215455,4.1367786166752,|5.0319252700625,5.0370797208146,1.8415340693163,1.8591105937857,4.3392150450337,4.1434876641017& chco=3366CC,CC4D33& chls=2.0,4.0,0.0|2.0,4.0,0.0& chxt=x& chxl=0:|Label1|Label2|label3|Label4|Label5|Label6& chxr=0,0.0,10.0& chdl=Data Object 1|Data Object 2& This is the radar chart page, I can't tell what I am doing wrong. http://code.google.com/apis/chart/docs/gallery/radar_charts.html

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• IRequest / IResponse Pattern

  - by traderde

  I am trying to create an Interface-based Request/Response pattern for Web API requests to allow for asynchronous consumer/producer processing, but not sure how I would know what the underlying IResponse class is. public void Run() { List<IRequest> requests = new List<IRequest>(); List<IResponse> responses = new List<IResponse(); requests.Add(AmazonWebRequest); //should be object, trying to keep it simple requests.Add(EBayWebRequest); //should be object, trying to keep it simple foreach (IRequest req in requests) { responses.Add(req.GetResponse()); } foreach (IResponse resp in response) { typeof resp???? } } interface IRequest { IResponse GetResponse(); } interface IResponse { } public class AmazonWebServiceRequest : IRequest { public AmazonWebServiceRequest() { //get data; } public IResponse GetResponse() { AmazonWebServiceRequest request = new AmazonWebServiceRequest(); return (IResponse)request; } } public class AmazonWebServiceResponse : IResponse { XmlDocument _xml; public AmazonWebServiceResponse(XmlDocument xml) { _xml = xml; _parseXml(); } private void _parseXml() { //parse Xml into object; } } public class EBayWebRequest : IRequest { public EBayWebRequest () { //get data; } public IResponse GetResponse() { EBayWebRequest request = new EBayWebRequest(); return (IResponse)request; } } public class EBayWebResponse : IResponse { XmlDocument _xml; public EBayWebResponse(XmlDocument xml) { _xml = xml; _parseXml(); } private void _parseXml() { //parse Xml into object; } }

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• How to transfer objects through the header in WCF

  - by Michael

  I'm trying to transfer some user information in the header of the message through message inspectors. I have created a behavior which adds the inspector to the service (both client and server). But when I try to communicate with the service I get the following error: XmlException: Name cannot begin with the '<' character, hexadecimal value 0x3C. I have also get exception telling me that DataContracts where unexpected. Type 'System.DelegateSerializationHolder+DelegateEntry' with data contract name 'DelegateSerializationHolder.DelegateEntry:http://schemas.datacontract.org/2004/07/System' is not expected. Consider using a DataContractResolver or add any types not known statically to the list of known types - for example, by using the KnownTypeAttribute attribute or by adding them to the list of known types passed to DataContractSerializer. The thing is that my object contains other objects which are marked as DataContract and I'm not interested adding the KnownType attribute for those types. Another problem might be that my object to serialize is very restricted in form of internal class and internal properties etc. Can anyone guide me in the right direction. What I'm I doing wrong? Some code: public virtual object BeforeSendRequest(ref Message request, IClientChannel channel) { var header = MessageHeader.CreateHeader("<name>", "<namespace>", object); request.Headers.Add(header); return Guid.NewGuid(); }

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• Django Forms - change the render multiple select widget

  - by John

  Hi, In my model I have a manytomany field mentors = models.ManyToManyField(MentorArea, verbose_name='Areas', blank=True) In my form I want to render this as: drop down box with list of all MentorArea objects which has not been associated with the object. Next to that an add button which will call a javascript function which will add it to the object. Then under that a ul list which has each selected MentorArea object with a x next to it which again calls a javascript function which will remove the MentorArea from the object. I know that to change how an field element is rendered you create a custom widget and override the render function and I have done that to create the add button. class AreaWidget(widgets.Select): def render(self, name, value, attrs=None, choices=()): jquery = u''' <input class="button def" type="button" value="Add" id="Add Area" />''' output = super(AreaWidget, self).render(name, value, attrs, choices) return output + mark_safe(jquery) However I don't know how to list the currently selected ones underneath as a list. Can anyone help me? Also what is the best way to filter down the list so that it only shows MentorArea objects which have not been added? I currently have the field as mentors = forms.ModelMultipleChoiceField(queryset=MentorArea.objects.all(), widget = AreaWidget, required=False) but this shows all mentors no matter if they have been added or not. Thanks

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• How do I 'addChild' an DisplayObject3d from another class? (Papervision3d)

  - by Sandor

  Hi All Im kind of new in the whole papervision scene. For a school assignment I'm making a panorama version of my own room using a cube with 6 pictures in it. It created the panorama, it works great. But now I want to add clickable objects in it. One of the requirements is that my code is OOP focused. So that's what I am trying right now. Currently I got two classes - Main.as (Here i make the panorama cube as the room) - photoWall.as (Here I want to create my first clickable object) Now my problem is: I want to addChild a clickable object from photoWall.as to my panorama room. But he doesn't show it? I think it has something to do with the scenes. I use a new scene in Main.as and in photoWall.as. No errors or warnings are reported This is the piece in photoWall.as were I want to addChild my object (photoList): private function portret():void { //defining my material for the clickable portret var material : BitmapFileMaterial = new BitmapFileMaterial('images/room.jpg'); var material_list : MaterialsList = new MaterialsList( { front: material, back: material } ); // I don't know if this is nessecary? that's my problem scene = new Scene3D(); material.interactive = true; // make the clickable object as a cube var photoList : DisplayObject3D = new Cube(material_list, 1400, 1400, 1750, 1, 4, 4, 4); // positioning photoList.x = -1400; photoList.y = -280; photoList.z = 5000; //mouse event photoList.addEventListener( InteractiveScene3DEvent.OBJECT_CLICK, onPress); // this is my problem! I cannot see 'photoList' within my scene!!! scene.addChild(photoList); // trace works, so the function must be loaded. trace('function loaded'); } Hope you guys can help me out here. Would really be great! Thanks, Sandor

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• Linking session state between servlets and EJBs?

  - by wilth

  Hello, I have servlets (in a web module) that access stateless EJB beans (in an EJB module). The EJB module is built using SEAM. Users can have different roles and the EJB services check this using Seam's Identity. I also use a customized Authenticator (although this might not be relevant here). I noticed problems with this approach and I'm suspecting that the session context in the servlets is not "linked" with the session context in the EJB beans. What I think happens is something like: User Joe access servlet A and is assigned Session W1. Servlet A calls a login function on an EJB, using the EJB session E1. Later, user Mary accesses servlet A and is assigned Session W2. When calling the EJBs, however, the EJB session E1 is used and therefore Mary is authenticated as Joe. What also happens is that when Joe is calling the servlet twice in rapid succession, the same session W1 is used, but two different sessions E1 and E2 in the business layer, causing errors. I might be wrong in my suspicion, but maybe I'm actually expecting these "sessions" to be linked together while they in fact are not. If this is true, is there any way of achieving this? I could - of course - use stateful beans and save the authentication information in the beans, but this would break the "Identity" concept of Seam (and in general, it would be preferable to be able to use the Session context in my EJB beans). Any help and pointers are very welcome - thanks! Technology: EJB3, Seam 2.1.2. The servlets are actually the server-side of a GWT app, although I don't think this matters much. I'm using JBoss 5.

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• error : java.lang.String cannot be cast to coldfusion.cfc.CFCBeanProxy anyone know about this ?

  - by faheem

  Hi does anyone know about this error I get when I try to insert a foreign key value in my entry entity using cf9 Hibernate ? java.lang.ClassCastException: java.lang.String cannot be cast to coldfusion.cfc.CFCBeanProxy Root cause :org.hibernate.HibernateException: java.lang.ClassCastException: java.lang.String cannot be cast to coldfusion.cfc.CFCBeanProxy Below is the code for my entity object and then for my user object.. Is there anything wrong with this ? entry.cfc /** * Entries Object */ component output="false" persistent="true"{ property name="entry_id" fieldType="id" generator="uuid"; property name="entryBody" ormType="text"; property name="title" notnull="true" type="string"; property name="time" fieldtype="timestamp"; property name="isCompleted" ormType="boolean" dbdefault="0" default="false"; property name="userID" fieldtype="many-to-one" fkcolumn="userID" cfc="user"; Entry function init() output=false{ return this; } } user.cfc /** * Users Object */ component output="false" persistent="true"{ property name="userID" fieldType="id" generator="uuid"; property name="firstName" notnull="true" type="string"; property name="lastName" notnull="true" type="string"; property name="password" notnull="true" type="string"; property name="userType" notnull="true" type="string"; //property name="entry" fieldtype="one-to-many" type="array" fkcolumn="userID" cfc="entry"; User function init() output=false{ return this; } }

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• Overriding windows authentication for a .NET application

  - by JoshReedSchramm

  I have a .NET application where the homepage (default.aspx) should be accessible by anyone. There is also a reporting page (reporting.aspx) that I want to secure via windows authentication and only allow access to a particular set of AD groups. Right now the way my web.config is setup it is securing the reporting page but on the home page it prompts the user for login credentials. If they hit esc they can continue to the page though so it isnt actually securing it. I need to prevent it from prompting the user. How do i need to setup my config. Here is what i have now - <system.web> <authentication mode="Windows" /> <identity impersonate="true" /> <authorization> <allow roles="BUILTIN\Administrators, DomainName\Manager" /> <deny users="?" /> </authorization> ...MORE STUFF... </system.web> <location path="default.aspx"> <system.web> <identity impersonate="false" /> <authorization> <allow users="*"/> </authorization> </system.web> </location>

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• @OneToMany and composite primary keys?

  - by Kris Pruden

  Hi, I'm using Hibernate with annotations (in spring), and I have an object which has an ordered, many-to-one relationship which a child object which has a composite primary key, one component of which is a foreign key back to the id of the parent object. The structure looks something like this: +=============+ +================+ | ParentObj | | ObjectChild | +-------------+ 1 0..* +----------------+ | id (pk) |-----------------| parentId | | ... | | name | +=============+ | pos | | ... | +================+ I've tried a variety of combinations of annotations, none of which seem to work. This is the closest I've been able to come up with: @Entity public class ParentObject { @Column(nullable=false, updatable=false) private String id; @OneToMany(mappedBy="object", fetch=FetchType.EAGER) @IndexColumn(name = "pos", base=0) private List<ObjectChild> attrs; ... } @Entity public class ChildObject { @Embeddable public static class Pk implements Serializable { @Column(nullable=false, updatable=false) private String objectId; @Column(nullable=false, updatable=false) private String name; @Column(nullable=false, updatable=false) private int pos; ... } @EmbeddedId private Pk pk; @ManyToOne @JoinColumn(name="parentId") private ParentObject parent; ... } I arrived at this after a long bout of experimentation in which most of my other attempts yielded entities which hibernate couldn't even load for various reasons. The error I get when I try to read one of these objects (they seem to save OK), I get an error of this form: org.hibernate.exception.SQLGrammarException: could not initialize a collection: ... And the root cause is this: com.mysql.jdbc.exceptions.jdbc4.MySQLSyntaxErrorException: Unknown column 'attrs0_.id' in 'field list' I'm sure I'm missing something simple, but the documentation is not clear on this matter, and I haven't been able to find any examples of this anywhere else. Thanks!

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• Making .NET assembly COM-visible and working for VB5

  - by Cyberherbalist

  I have an assembly which I have managed to make visible to VB6 and it works, but having a problem accomplishing the same thing with VB5. For VB6, I have built the assembly, made it COM-visible, registered it as a COM object etc., and the assembly shows in VB6's References list, and allows me to use it successfully. The Object Browser also shows the method in the assy. I copied the assembly and its TLB to a virtual workstation used for VB5 development, and ran Regasm, apparently successfully: C:\>C:\WINDOWS\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v2.0.50727 \regasm arserviceinterface.dll /tlb:arserviceinterface.tlb Microsoft (R) .NET Framework Assembly Registration Utility 2.0.50727.3053 Copyright (C) Microsoft Corporation 1998-2004. All rights reserved. Assembly exported to 'C:\Projects\AR\3rd Party\ARService\arserviceinterface.tlb' , and the type library was registered successfully Note that the virtual W/S is Win2k and does not have .NET Fx 3.5 on it, just 2.0. The assembly shows up in the References that can be selected in VB5, but the method of the assembly doesn't show up in the Object Browser, and it is generally unusable. Either there is a step to do that I haven't done, or VB5 doesn't know how to use such a COM object. Note that the VB5 setup is on a virtual workstation, not the same workstation that VB6 is installed on. Any ideas? One thing that occurred to me is that I might need to generate and use a strong name on the workstation in question, but...

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• PHP: Array of objects is empty when I come to retrieve one from the array

  - by Tom

  Good morning, I am trying to load rows from a database and then create objects from them and add these objects to a private array. Here are my classes: <?php include("databaseconnect.php"); class stationItem { private $code = ''; private $description = ''; public function setCode($code ){ $this->code = $code; } public function getCode(){ return $this->code; } public function setDescription($description){ $this->description = $description; } public function getDescription(){ return $this->description; } } class stationList { private $stationListing; function __construct() { connect(); $stationListing = array(); $result = mysql_query('SELECT * FROM stations'); while ($row = mysql_fetch_assoc($result)) { $station = new stationItem(); $station->setCode($row['code']); $station->setDescription($row['description']); array_push($stationListing, $station); } mysql_free_result($result); } public function getStation($index){ return $stationListing[$index]; } } ?> As you can see I am creating a stationItem object per database row (which for now has a code and description) and I then push these on to the end of my array which is held as a private variable in stationList. This is code which creates this classes and attempts to access the properties on them: $stations = new stationList(); $station = $stations->getStation(0); echo $station->getCode(); I am finding that the sizeof($stationList) at the end of the constructor is 1 but then it is zero when we come to try to get an object from the array using the index. Therefore the error that I get is: Fatal error: Call to a member function getCode() on a non-object Please can someone explain to me why this is happening? I guess I am misunderstanding how object references work in PHP5.

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• Hibernate: Dirty Checking and Only Update of Dirty Attributes?

  - by jens

  Hello Experts, in "good old JDBC days" I wrote a lot of SQL Queries that did very targeted updates of only the "attributes/members" that were actually changed: For Example having an object with the following members: public String name; public String address; public Date date; If only date was changed in some Business Method I would only issue an SQL UPDATE for the date member. ==It seems however (thats my "impression" of hibernate) that when working with a standard Hibernate mapping (mapping the full class), even updates of only one single member lead to a full update of the object in SQL Statements generated by Hibernate. My Questions are: 1.) Is this observation correct, that hibernate DOES NOT intelligently check (in a fully mapped class), what member(s) where changed and then only issue updates for the specific changed members, but rather always will update (in the generated SQL Update Statement) all mapped members (of a class), even if they were not changed (in case the object is dirty due to one member being dirty...) 2.) What can I do to make Hibernate only update those members, that have been changed? I am searching for a solution to have hibernate only update the member that actually changed. (I know hibernate does some big work on doing dirty-checking, but as far as I know this dirtychecking is only relevant to identify if the object as whole is dirty, not what single member is dirty.) Thank you very much! Jens

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• Generating equals / hashcode / toString using annotation

  - by Bruno Bieth

  I believe I read somewhere people generating equals / hashcode / toString methods during compile time (using APT) by identifying which fields should be part of the hash / equality test. I couldn't find anything like that on the web (I might have dreamed it ?) ... That could be done like that : public class Person { @Id @GeneratedValue private Integer id; @Identity private String firstName, lastName; @Identity private Date dateOfBirth; //... } For an entity (so we want to exlude some fields, like the id). Or like a scala case class i.e a value object : @ValueObject public class Color { private int red, green, blue; } Not only the file becomes more readable and easier to write, but it also helps ensuring that all the attributes are part of the equals / hashcode (in case you add another attribute later on, without updating the methods accordingly). I heard APT isn't very well supported in IDE but I wouldn't see that as a major issue. After all, tests are mainly run by continuous integration servers. Any idea if this has been done already and if not why ? Thanks

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• NSOutlineview - strange behavior after reloading data

  - by matei

  I have a NSOutlineView which loads data from a data source. The table is displayed in a panel. The items shown in the table are items which belong to an object (the relation is one-to many between the object and the items). I have a list of objects in a combo box (in fact a NSPopupButton), and when I select another object in the combo box, I want it's items to be shown in the table (the NSOutlineView). I managed to do all this , however when I select another object from the combo box, not all of it's items are displayed. I have put some logging messages in the data source and it seems that there are some items that are being returned from the data source , but are not shown in the table (and are not queried for children). Now the strange part is that when I click the main window (as I said, all that I described here is in a NSPanel loaded on top of the window) , all the data is displayed correctly. It seems as if clicking the main window triggers something in the NSOutlineView that makes it display the missing items, but I can't tell what it is.

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• EJB3Unit testing no-tx-datasource

  - by justastefan

  Hello, I am doing tests on an ejb3-project using ejb3unit http://ejb3unit.sourceforge.net/Session-Bean.html for testing. All my Services long for @PersistenceContext (UnitName=bla). I set up the ejb3unit.properties like this: ejb3unit_jndi.1.isSessionBean=true ejb3unit_jndi.1.jndiName=ejb/MyServiceBean ejb3unit_jndi.1.className=com.company.project.MyServiceBean everything works with the in-memory-database. So now i want additionally test another servicebean with @PersistenceContext (UnitName=noTxDatasource) that goes for a defined in my datasources.xml: <datasources> <local-tx-datasource> ... </local-tx-datasource> <no-tx-datasource> <jndi-name>noTxDatasource</jndi-name> <connection-url>...</connection-url> <driver-class>oracle.jdbc.OracleDriver</driver-class> <user-name>bla</user-name> <password>bla</password> </no-tx-datasource> </datasources> How do I tell ejb3unit to make this work: Object object = InitialContext.doLookup("java:/noTxDatasource"); if (object instanceof DataSource) { return ((DataSource) object).getConnection(); } else { return null; } Currently it fails saying: javax.NamingException: Cannot find the name (noTxDataSource) in the JNDI tree Current bindings: (ejb/MyServiceBean=com.company.project.MyServiceBean) How can I add this no-tx-datasource to the jndi bindings?

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• COM: How to handle a specific exception?

  - by Ian Boyd

  i'm talking to a COM object (Microsoft ADO Recordset object). In a certain case the recordset will return a failed (i.e. negative) HRESULT, with the message: Item cannot be found in the collection corresponding to the requested name or ordinal i know what this error message means, know why it happened, and i how to fix it. But i know these things because i read the message, which fortunately was in a language i understand. Now i would like to handle this exception specially. The COM object threw an HRESULT of 0x800A0CC1 In an ideal world Microsoft would have documented what errors can be returned when i try to access: records.Fields.Items( index ) with an invalid index. But they do not; they most they say is that an error can occur, i.e.: If Item cannot find an object in the collection corresponding to the Index argument, an error occurs. Given that the returned error code is not documented, is it correct to handle a specific return code of `0x800A0CC1' when i'm trying to trap the exception: Item cannot be found in the collection corresponding to the requested name or ordinal ? Since Microsoft didn't document the error code, they technically change it in the future.

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• Can't log in a user in MVC!

  - by devlife

  I have been scratching my head on this for a while now but still can't get it. I'm trying to simply log in a user in an MVC2 application. I have tried everything that I know to try but still can't figure out what I'm doing wrong. Here are a few things that I have tried: FormsAuthentication.SetAuthCookie( emailAddress, rememberMe ); var cookie = FormsAuthentication.GetAuthCookie( emailAddress, rememberMe ); HttpContext.Response.Cookies.Add( cookie ); FormsAuthenticationTicket ticket = new FormsAuthenticationTicket( emailAddress, rememberMe, 15 ); FormsIdentity identity = new FormsIdentity( ticket ); GenericPrincipal principal = new GenericPrincipal(identity, new string[0]); HttpContext.User = principal; I'm not sure if any of this is the right thing to do (as it's not working). After setting HttpContext.User = principal then Request.IsAuthenticated == true. However, in Global.asax I have this: HttpCookie authenCookie = Context.Request.Cookies.Get( FormsAuthentication.FormsCookieName ); The only cookie that ever is available is the aspnet session cookie. Any ideas at all would be much appreciated!

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• System.Dynamic bug?

  - by ControlFlow

  While I playing with the C# 4.0 dynamic, I found strange things happening with the code like this: using System.Dynamic; sealed class Foo : DynamicObject { public override bool TryInvoke( InvokeBinder binder, object[] args, out object result) { result = new object(); return true; } static void Main() { dynamic foo = new Foo(); var t1 = foo(0); var t2 = foo(0); var t3 = foo(0); var t4 = foo(0); var t5 = foo(0); } } Ok, it works but... take a look at IntelliTrace window: So every invokation (and other operations too on dynamic object) causes throwing and catching strange exceptions twice! I understand, that sometimes exceptions mechanism may be used for optimizations, for example first call to dynamic may be performed to some stub delegate, that simply throws exception - this may be like a signal to dynamic binder to resolve an correct member and re-point delegate. Next call to the same delegate will be performed without any checks. But... behavior of the code above looks very strange. Maybe throwing and catching exceptions twice per any operation on DynamicObject - is a bug?

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• How can I stop an auto-generated Linq to SQL class from loading ALL data?

  - by Gary McGill

  DUPLICATE of http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2433422/how-can-i-stop-an-auto-generated-linq-to-sql-class-from-loading-all-data post answers there! I have an ASP.NET MVC project, much like the NerdDinner tutorial example. (I'm using MVC 2, but followed the NerdDinner tutorial in order to create it). As per the instructions in part 3 of the tutorial, I've created a Linq-to-SQL model of my database by creating a "Linq to SQL Classes" (.dbml) surface, and dropping my database tables onto it. The designer has automatically added relationships between the generated classes based on my database tables. Let's say that my classes are as per the NerdDinner example, so I have Dinner and RSVP tables, where each Dinner record is associated with many RSVP records - hence in the generated classes, the Dinner object has a RSVPs property which is a list of RSVP objects. My problem is this: it appears (and I'd be gladly proved wrong on this) that as soon as I access a Dinner object, it's loading all of the corresponding RSVP objects, even if I don't use the RSVPs member. First question: is this really the default behavior for the generated classes? In my particular situation, the object graph contains many more tables (which have an order of magnitude more records), and so this is disastrous behaviour - I'd be loading tons of data when all I want to do is show the details of a single parent record. Second question: are there any properties exposed through the designer UI that would let me modify this behavior? (I can't find any). Third question: I've seen a description of how to control the loading of related records in a DataContext by using a DataShape object associated with the DataContext. Is that what I'm meant to do, and if so are there any tutorials like the NerdDinner one that would show not only how to do it, but also suggest a 'pattern' for normal use?

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• How can I stop an auto-generated Linq to SQL class from loading ALL data?

  - by Gary McGill

  I have an ASP.NET MVC project, much like the NerdDinner tutorial example. (I'm using MVC 2, but followed the NerdDinner tutorial in order to create it). As per the instructions in part 3 of the tutorial, I've created a Linq-to-SQL model of my database by creating a "Linq to SQL Classes" (.dbml) surface, and dropping my database tables onto it. The designer has automatically added relationships between the generated classes based on my database tables. Let's say that my classes are as per the NerdDinner example, so I have Dinner and RSVP tables, where each Dinner record is associated with many RSVP records - hence in the generated classes, the Dinner object has a RSVPs property which is a list of RSVP objects. My problem is this: it appears (and I'd be gladly proved wrong on this) that as soon as I access a Dinner object, it's loading all of the corresponding RSVP objects, even if I don't use the RSVPs member. First question: is this really the default behavior for the generated classes? In my particular situation, the object graph contains many more tables (which have an order of magnitude more records), and so this is disastrous behaviour - I'd be loading tons of data when all I want to do is show the details of a single parent record. Second question: are there any properties exposed through the designer UI that would let me modify this behavior? (I can't find any). Third question: I've seen a description of how to control the loading of related records in a DataContext by using a DataShape object associated with the DataContext. Is that what I'm meant to do, and if so are there any tutorials like the NerdDinner one that would show not only how to do it, but also suggest a 'pattern' for normal use?

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• display sqlite datatable in a jtable

  - by tuxou

  Hi I'm trying to display an sqlite data table in a jtable but i have an error " sqlite is type forward only" how could I display it in a jtable try { long start = System.currentTimeMillis(); Statement state = ConnectionBd.getInstance().createStatement( ResultSet.TYPE_SCROLL_INSENSITIVE, ResultSet.CONCUR_READ_ONLY ); ResultSet res = state.executeQuery("SELECT * FROM data"); ResultSetMetaData meta = res.getMetaData(); Object[] column = new Object[meta.getColumnCount()]; for(int i = 1 ; i <= meta.getColumnCount(); i++){ column[i-1] = meta.getColumnName(i); } res.last(); int rowCount = res.getRow(); Object[][] data = new Object[res.getRow()][meta.getColumnCount()]; res.beforeFirst(); int j = 1; while(res.next()){ for(int i = 1 ; i <= meta.getColumnCount(); i++) data[j-1][i-1] = res.getObject(i); j++; } res.close(); state.close(); long totalTime = System.currentTimeMillis() - start; result.removeAll(); result.add(new JScrollPane(new JTable(data, column)), BorderLayout.CENTER); result.add(new JLabel("execute in " + totalTime + " ms and has " + rowCount + " ligne(s)"), BorderLayout.SOUTH); result.revalidate(); } catch (SQLException e) { result.removeAll(); result.add(new JScrollPane(new JTable()), BorderLayout.CENTER); result.revalidate(); JOptionPane.showMessageDialog(null, e.getMessage(), "ERREUR ! ", JOptionPane.ERROR_MESSAGE); } thank you

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• "select * from table" vs "select colA,colB,etc from table" interesting behaviour in SqlServer2005

  - by kristof

  Apology for a lengthy post but I needed to post some code to illustrate the problem. Inspired by the question What is the reason not to use select * ? posted a few minutes ago, I decided to point out some observations of the select * behaviour that I noticed some time ago. So let's the code speak for itself: IF EXISTS (SELECT * FROM sys.objects WHERE object_id = OBJECT_ID(N'[dbo].[starTest]') AND type in (N'U')) DROP TABLE [dbo].[starTest] CREATE TABLE [dbo].[starTest]( [id] [int] IDENTITY(1,1) NOT NULL, [A] [varchar](50) NULL, [B] [varchar](50) NULL, [C] [varchar](50) NULL ) ON [PRIMARY] GO insert into dbo.starTest(a,b,c) select 'a1','b1','c1' union all select 'a2','b2','c2' union all select 'a3','b3','c3' go IF EXISTS (SELECT * FROM sys.views WHERE object_id = OBJECT_ID(N'[dbo].[vStartest]')) DROP VIEW [dbo].[vStartest] go create view dbo.vStartest as select * from dbo.starTest go go IF EXISTS (SELECT * FROM sys.views WHERE object_id = OBJECT_ID(N'[dbo].[vExplicittest]')) DROP VIEW [dbo].[vExplicittest] go create view dbo.[vExplicittest] as select a,b,c from dbo.starTest go select a,b,c from dbo.vStartest select a,b,c from dbo.vExplicitTest IF EXISTS (SELECT * FROM sys.objects WHERE object_id = OBJECT_ID(N'[dbo].[starTest]') AND type in (N'U')) DROP TABLE [dbo].[starTest] CREATE TABLE [dbo].[starTest]( [id] [int] IDENTITY(1,1) NOT NULL, [A] [varchar](50) NULL, [B] [varchar](50) NULL, [D] [varchar](50) NULL, [C] [varchar](50) NULL ) ON [PRIMARY] GO insert into dbo.starTest(a,b,d,c) select 'a1','b1','d1','c1' union all select 'a2','b2','d2','c2' union all select 'a3','b3','d3','c3' select a,b,c from dbo.vExplicittest select a,b,c from dbo.vStartest If you execute the following query and look at the results of last 2 select statements, the results that you will see will be as follows: select a,b,c from dbo.vExplicittest a1 b1 c1 a2 b2 c2 a3 b3 c3 select a,b,c from dbo.vStartest a1 b1 d1 a2 b2 d2 a3 b3 d3 As you can see in the results of select a,b,c from dbo.vStartest the data of column c has been replaced with the data from colum d. I believe that is related to the way the views are compiled, my understanding is that the columns are mapped by column indexes (1,2,3,4) as apposed to names. I though I would post it as a warning for people using select * in their sql and experiencing unexpected behaviour. Note: If you rebuild the view that uses select * each time after you modify the table it will work as expected

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• HttpModule to Write Out JavaScript Script References to the Response

  - by Chris

  On my page in the Page_Load event I add a collection of strings to the Context object. I have an HttpModule that will fire EndRequest and retrieve the collection of strings. What I then do is write out a script reference tag (based on the collection of strings) to the response. The problem is that the page reads the script reference but doesn't retrieve the contents of the file (I imagine because this is occurring in the EndRequest event). I can't fire the BeginRequest event because I won't have access to the Context Items collection. I tried to also registering an HttpHandler which Processes the request of the script reference but I can't access the collection of strings in the Context.Items from there. Any suggestions? Page_Load: protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { Context.Items.Add("ScriptFile", "/UserControls.js"); } HttpModule: public void OnEndRequest(Object s, EventArgs e) { HttpApplication app = s as HttpApplication; object script = app.Context.Items["ScriptFile"]; app.Response.Write("<script type='text/javascript' src='" + script + "'></script>"); }

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• Dashcode code translation

  - by Alex Mcp

  Hi, a quick, probably easy question whose answer is probably "best practice" I'm following a tutorial for a custom-template mobile Safari webapp, and to change views around this code is used: function btnSave_ClickHandler(event) { var views = document.getElementById('stackLayout'); var front = document.getElementById('mainScreen'); if (views && views.object && front) { views.object.setCurrentView(front, true); } } My question is just about the if conditional statement. What is this triplet saying, and why do each of those things need to be verified before the view can be changed? Does views.object just test to see if the views variable responds to the object method? Why is this important? EDIT - This is/was the main point of this question, and it regards not Javascript as a language and how if loops work, but rather WHY these 3 things specifically need to be checked: Under what scenarios might views and front not exist? I don't typically write my code so redundantly. If the name of my MySQL table isn't changing, I'll just say UPDATE 'mytable' WHERE... instead of the much more verbose (and in my view, redundant) $mytable = "TheSQLTableName"; if ($mytable == an actual table && $mytable exists && entries can be updated){ UPDATE $mytable; } Whereas if the table's name (or in the JS example, the view's names) ARE NOT "hard coded" but are instead a user input or otherwise mutable, I might right my code as the DashCode example has it. So tell me, can these values "go wrong" anyhow? Thanks!

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• Eclipse says I don't implement Enumeration, but I do

  - by Harm De Weirdt

  Goodmorning everybody, I'm having a little problem with a project for school. We are told to make an Iterator that implements Enumeration over a Hashmap. So i made this Enumeration: public Enumeration<Object> getEnumeration() { return new Enumeration<Object>() { private int itemsDone = 0; Collection<Long> keysCollection = getContent().keySet(); Long [] keys = keysCollection.toArray(new Long[keysCollection.size()]); @Override public boolean hasMoreElements() { if(itemsDone < getContent().size() +1 ) { return true; }else { return false; } } @Override public Object nextElement() { return getContent().get(keys[itemsDone++]); } }; } This goes in my Backpack class public class Backpack extends Item implements Carrier, Enumeration<Object>{ The hashmap is returned by getContent(). The problem now is that eclipse keeps telling me I havent implemented the methods from Enumeration. If I use the quick fix it just adds the hasMoreElements() and nextElement() dummy methods in my class. Somehow it doesn't see these methods in the inner class.. Can anyone help me please? Any help is appreciated.

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