Search Results

Search found 10211 results on 409 pages for 'adf controller'.

Page 362/409 | < Previous Page | 358 359 360 361 362 363 364 365 366 367 368 369  | Next Page >

  • How would the 'Model' in a Rails-type webapp be implemented in a functional programming langauge?

    - by ceptorial
    In MVC web development frameworks such as Ruby on Rails, Django, and CakePHP, HTTP requests are routed to controllers, which fetch objects which are usually persisted to a backend database store. These objects represent things like users, blog posts, etc., and often contain logic within their methods for permissions, fetching and/or mutating other objects, validation, etc. These frameworks are all very much object oriented. I've been reading up recently on functional programming and it seems to tout tremendous benefits such as testability, conciseness, modularity, etc. However most of the examples I've seen for functional programming implement trivial functionality like quicksort or the fibonnacci sequence, not complex webapps. I've looked at a few 'functional' web frameworks, and they all seem to implement the view and controller just fine, but largely skip over the whole 'model' and 'persistence' part. (I'm talking more about frameworks like Compojure which are supposed to be purely functional, versus something Lift which conveniently seems to use the OO part of Scala for the model -- but correct me if I'm wrong here.) I haven't seen a good explanation of how functional programming can be used to provide the metaphor that OO programming provides, i.e. tables map to objects, and objects can have methods which provide powerful, encapsulated logic such as permissioning and validation. Also the whole concept of using SQL queries to persist data seems to violate the whole 'side effects' concept. Could someone provide an explanation of how the 'model' layer would be implemented in a functionally programmed web framework?

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC routing issue with Google Chrome client

    - by synergetic
    My Silverlight 4 app is hosted in ASP.NET MVC 2 web application. It works fine when I browse with Internet Explorer 8. However Google Chrome (version 5) cannot find ASP.NET controllers. Specifically, the following ASP.NET controller works both with Chrome and IE. //[OutputCache(NoStore = true, Duration = 0, VaryByParam = "None")] public ContentResult TestMe() { ContentResult result = new ContentResult(); XElement response = new XElement("SvrResponse", new XElement("Data", "my data")); result.Content = response.ToString(); return result; } If I uncomment [OutputCache] attribute then it works with IE but not with Chrome. Also, I use custom model binding with controllers, so if I write the following: public ContentResult TestMe(UserContext userContext) { ... } it also works with IE, but again not with Chrome which gives me error message saying that resource was not found. Of course, I configured IIS 6 for handling all requests via aspnet_isapi.dll and I have registered custom model binder in my web app's Global.asax inside Application_Start() method. Can someone explain me what might be the cause? Thank you.

    Read the article

  • UIView Animation Inconsistent Result

    - by Josh Kahane
    I am trying to make use of UIView animation to slide my views across the screen. I have a UIScrollView in my view controller, in which I have my UIViews. I alos have this method: -(void)translateView:(UIView *)view toRect:(CGRect)rect withDuration:(CGFloat)duration { [UIView animateWithDuration:duration animations:^ { view.frame = rect; } completion:^(BOOL finished) { //Finished }]; } I call this to move my UIView in an animated fashion to a CGRect of my choice over a certain time. I have a loop which creates and slides out 7 views. This works great, I call it like below, the loop of course calling this 7 times on different views: [self translateView:cell toRect:translationRect withDuration:0.7]; However, I can't then call this again immediately afterwards, just nothing happens. Although, lets say I call this again after a 2 second NSTimer, the animation does run, but then when i scroll my UIScrollView, the view I just animated jumps back to its previous CGRect. Hope you can help, its all feeling very un-explanetory, Ill post more code if it isn't making any sense, thanks.

    Read the article

  • MVC : Checkboxes generated using JavaScript not appearing in FormCollection on postback

    - by Andy Evans
    I took over another project (written by one contractor, modified by another and now it's not working) written using MVC/C# where a view that has a table (see below) is dynamically populated using JSON/Javascript - the first column of which is a checkbox. View (spark view engine) <table id='component_list' name='component_list' cellpadding='0' border='0' cellspacing='0'> <thead> <tr> <th>&nbsp;</th> <th>Component</th> <th>Component Type</th> <th>Evenflo Part #</th> <th>Supplier Part #</th> <th>Supplier</th> <th>Requirement</th> <th>Location</th> <th>Region</th> </tr> </thead> <tbody> </tbody> </table> When the page is rendered, I look at the source for the page and do not see the table data (I wouldn't expect to see this). However, when the form is posted back, controller, the FormCollection is empty. Supposedly this had been working before the last contractor got their hands on it - which is another post all together. My goal right now is having the checkboxes in the FormCollection. Any suggestions would be greatly appreciated. Thanks,

    Read the article

  • backbone.js Model.get() returns undefined, scope using coffeescript + coffee toaster?

    - by benipsen
    I'm writing an app using coffeescript with coffee toaster (an awesome NPM module for stitching) that builds my app.js file. Lots of my application classes and templates require info about the current user so I have an instance of class User (extends Backbone.Model) stored as a property of my main Application class (extends Backbone.Router). As part of the initialization routine I grab the user from the server (which takes care of authentication, roles, account switching etc.). Here's that coffeescript: @user = new models.User @user.fetch() console.log(@user) console.log(@user.get('email')) The first logging statement outputs the correct Backbone.Model attributes object in the console just as it should: User _changing: false _escapedAttributes: Object _pending: Object _previousAttributes: Object _silent: Object attributes: Object account: Object created_on: "1983-12-13 00:00:00" email: "[email protected]" icon: "0" id: "1" last_login: "2012-06-07 02:31:38" name: "Ben Ipsen" roles: Object __proto__: Object changed: Object cid: "c0" id: "1" __proto__: ctor app.js:228 However, the second returns undefined despite the model attributes clearly being there in the console when logged. And just to make things even more interesting, typing "window.app.user.get('email')" into the console manually returns the expected value of "[email protected]"... ? Just for reference, here's how the initialize method compiles into my app.js file: Application.prototype.initialize = function() { var isMobile; isMobile = navigator.userAgent.match(/(iPhone|iPod|iPad|Android|BlackBerry)/); this.helpers = new views.DOMHelpers().initialize().setup_viewport(isMobile); this.user = new models.User(); this.user.fetch(); console.log(this.user); console.log(this.user.get('email')); return this; }; I initialize the Application controller in my static HTML like so: jQuery(document).ready(function(){ window.app = new controllers.Application(); }); Suggestions please and thank you!

    Read the article

  • Passing a URL as a URL parameter

    - by Andrea
    I am implementing OpenId login in a CakePHP application. At a certain point, I need to redirect to another action, while preserving the information about the OpenId identity, which is itself a URL (with GET parameters), for instance https://www.google.com/accounts/o8/id?id=31g2iy321i3y1idh43q7tyYgdsjhd863Es How do I pass this data? The first attempt would be function openid() { ... $this->redirect(array('controller' => 'users', 'action' => 'openid_create', $openid)); } but the obvious problem is that this completely messes up the way CakePHP parses URL parameters. I'd need to do either of the following: 1) encode the URL in a CakePHP friendly manner for passing it, and decoding it after that, or 2) pass the URL as a POST parameter but I don't know how to do this. EDIT: In response to comments, I should be more clear. I am using the OpenId component, and I have a working OpenId implementation. What I need to do is to link OpenId with an existing user system. When a new user logs in via OpenId, I ask for more details, and then create a new user with this data. The problem is that I have to keep the OpenId URL throughout this process.

    Read the article

  • Binding, Prefixes and generated HTML

    - by Vman
    MVC newbie question re binders. Supposing I have two strongly typed partial actions that happen to have a model attributes with the same name, and are rendered in the same containing page i.e.: Class Friend {string Name {get; set ;} DateTime DOB {get; set ;}} Class Foe {string Name {get; set ;} string ReasonForDislike {get; set ;}} Both partials will have a line: <%= Html.TextBoxFor(model => model.Name) %> And associated controller actions: public ActionResult SaveFriend(Friend friend) public ActionResult SaveFoe(Foe foe) My problem is that both will render on my containing page with the same id (of course, bad for lots of reasons). I’m aware of the [Bind] attribute that allows me add a prefix, resulting in code: public ActionResult SaveFriend([Bind(Prefix = “friend”)] Friend friend) <%= Html.TextBox("friend.Name", Model. Name) %> //Boo, no TextBoxFor :( But this still doesn’t cut it. I can just about tolerate the loss of the strongly typed TextBoxFor helpers but I’ve yet to get clientside validation to work with prefixes: I’ve tried: <%= Html.ValidationMessage("friend.Name") %> ...and every other variant I can think of. I seem to need the model to be aware of the prefix in both directions but bind only applies when mapping the inbound request. It seems (to me) a common scenario but I’m struggling to find examples out there. What am I missing! Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Memory leak when returning object

    - by Yakattak
    I have this memory leak that has been very stubborn for the past week or so. I have a class method I use in a class called "ArchiveManager" that will unarchive a specific .dat file for me, and return an array with it's contents. Here is the method: +(NSMutableArray *)unarchiveCustomObject { NSMutableArray *array = [NSMutableArray arrayWithArray:[NSKeyedUnarchiver unarchiveObjectWithFile:/* Archive Path */]]; return array; } I understand I don't have ownership of it at this point, and I return it. CustomObject *myObject = [[ArchiveManager unarchiveCustomObject] objectAtIndex:0]; Then, later when I unarchive it in a view controller to be used (I don't even create an array of it, nor do I make a pointer to it, I just reference it to get something out of the array returned by unarchiveCustomIbject (objectAtIndex). This is where Instruments is calling a memory leak, yet I don't see how this can leak! Any ideas? Thanks in advance. Edit: CustomObject initWithCoder added: -(id)initWithCoder:(NSCoder *)aDecoder { if (self = [super init]) { self.string1 = [aDecoder decodeObjectForKey:kString1]; self.string2 = [aDecoder decodeObjectForKey:kString2]; self.string3 = [aDecoder decodeObjectForKey:kString3]; UIImage *picture = [[UIImage alloc] initWithData:[aDecoder decodeObjectForKey:kPicture]]; self.picture = picture; self.array = [aDecoder decodeObjectForKey:kArray]; [picture release]; } return self; }

    Read the article

  • How do I write a J2EE/EJB Singleton?

    - by Bears will eat you
    A day ago my application was one EAR, containing one WAR, one EJB JAR, and a couple of utility JAR files. I had a POJO singleton class in one of those utility files, it worked, and all was well with the world: EAR |--- WAR |--- EJB JAR |--- Util 1 JAR |--- Util 2 JAR |--- etc. Then I created a second WAR and found out (the hard way) that each WAR has its own ClassLoader, so each WAR sees a different singleton, and things break down from there. This is not so good. EAR |--- WAR 1 |--- WAR 2 |--- EJB JAR |--- Util 1 JAR |--- Util 2 JAR |--- etc. So, I'm looking for a way to create a Java singleton object that will work across WARs (across ClassLoaders?). The @Singleton EJB annotation seemed pretty promising until I found that JBoss 5.1 doesn't seem to support that annotation (which was added as part of EJB 3.1). Did I miss something - can I use @Singleton with JBoss 5.1? Upgrading to JBoss AS 6 is not an option right now. Alternately, I'd be just as happy to not have to use EJB to implement my singleton. What else can I do to solve this problem? Basically, I need a semi-application-wide* hook into a whole bunch of other objects, like various cached data, and app config info. As a last resort, I've already considered merging my two WARs into one, but that would be pretty hellish. *Meaning: available basically anywhere above a certain layer; for now, mostly in my WARs - the View and Controller (in a loose sense).

    Read the article

  • 'Stack level too deep' error in engine-like plugin with globalize

    - by nutsmuggler
    Hello folks. I have built an engine-like plugin thanks to the new features of Rails 2.3. It's a 'Product' module for a CMS, extrapolated from a previously existing (and working) model/controller. The plugin relies on easy_fckeditor and on globalize (description and title field are localised), and I suspect that globalized could be the culprit here... Everything works fine, except for the update action. I get the following error message: (posting just the first lines, all the message is about attribute_methods) stack level too deep /Library/Ruby/Gems/1.8/gems/activerecord-2.3.2/lib/active_record/attribute_methods.rb:64:in `generated_methods?' /Library/Ruby/Gems/1.8/gems/activerecord-2.3.2/lib/active_record/attribute_methods.rb:241:in `method_missing' /Library/Ruby/Gems/1.8/gems/activerecord-2.3.2/lib/active_record/attribute_methods.rb:249:in `method_missing' For referenze, the full error stack is here: http://pastie.org/596546 I've tried to debug eliminating all the input fields, one by one, but I keep getting the error. fckeditor doesn't seem the culprit (error even without fckeditor) This is the action: def update params[:product][:term_ids] ||= [] @product = Product.find(params[:id]) respond_to do |format| if @product.update_attributes(params[:product]) flash[:notice] = t(:Product_was_successfully_updated) format.html { redirect_to products_path } format.xml { head :ok } else format.html { render :action => "edit" } format.xml { render :xml => @product.errors, :status => :unprocessable_entity } end end end As you see it's quite straightforward. Of course I am not hoping someone to solve this question straightaway, I'd just like to have a head up, a suggestion about where to look to solve this issue. Thanks in advance, Davide

    Read the article

  • iPhone slide view passing variables

    - by sebastyuiop
    Right, I'm trying to make an app that has a calculation that involves a stopwatch. When a button on the calculation view is clicked a stopwatch slides in from the bottom. This all works fine, the problem I can't get my head around is how to send the recorded time back to the previous controller to update a textfield. I've simplified the code and stripped out most irrelevant stuff. Many thanks. CalculationViewController.h #import <UIKit/UIKit.h> @interface CalculationViewController : UIViewController <UITableViewDelegate, UITableViewDataSource> { IBOutlet UITextField *inputTxt; } @property (nonatomic, retain) UITextField *inputTxt; - (IBAction)showTimer:(id)sender; @end CalculationViewController.m #import "CalculationViewController.h" #import "TimerViewController.h" @implementation CalculationViewController - (IBAction)showTimer:(id)sender { TimerViewController *timerView = [[TimerViewController alloc] init]; [self.navigationController presentModalViewController:timerView animated:YES]; } TimerViewController.h #import <UIKit/UIKit.h> @interface TimerViewController : UIViewController { IBOutlet UILabel *time; NSTimer *myTicker; } - (IBAction)start; - (IBAction)stop; - (IBAction)reset; - (void)showActivity; @end TimerViewController.m #import "TimerViewController.h" #import "CalculationViewController.h" @implementation TimerViewController - (IBAction)start { myTicker = [NSTimer scheduledTimerWithTimeInterval:1.0 target:self selector:@selector(showActivity) userInfo:nil repeats:YES]; } - (IBAction)stop { [myTicker invalidate]; #Update inputTxt on calculation view here [self dismissModalViewControllerAnimated:YES]; } - (IBAction)reset { time.text = @"0"; } - (void)showActivity { int currentTime = [time.text intValue]; int newTime = currentTime + 1; time.text = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%d", newTime]; } @end

    Read the article

  • MVC 2 - Name Attributes on HTML Input Field when using Parent/Child Entities

    - by Click Ahead
    Hi All, I'm pretty new to MVC 2 using the Entity Framework. I have two tables Company {ID int identity PK,Name nvarchar} and User {ID int identity PK,UserName nvarchar,CompanyID int FK}. A Foreign Key exists between User and Company. I generated my ADO.NET Entity Data Model, a Controller and a view to insert a record. My HTML form has the fields Company and UserName and the idea is when I click save a Company and User is inserted into the database. Sounds straight forward right! My question is as follows: I created a strongly-typed view derived from my 'User' entity. I'm using the the html helper Html.TextBoxFor(model = model.Organisation.Name) but the html name attribute for this input field is 'Organisation.Name'. My problem with this is that the dot throws up all sorts of issues in JQuery, which sees this as a property. If I want to change the name I read that I can use DataAnnotations but because I used the Entity Designer this involves using Buddy Classes. Seems like a bit of overkill just to change the html name attribute on this input field. Am I approaching this the right way or am I missing something here? Thanks for the help !

    Read the article

  • Iphone: Problem with moving back and forth between two UIViewController

    - by Harry Pham
    Let me first describe the context of the problem. I have 2 UIViewController call AdminViewController and ButtonReorderViewController. AdminViewController contain 1 button. ButtonReorderViewController contains 1 button and 1 picture. Button in AdminViewController tie to an event call goToReorderButton. The content of goToReorderButton are below: ButtonReorderViewController *buttonReorder = [[ButtonReorderViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"ButtonReorderViewController" bundle:[NSBundle mainBundle]]; UINavigationController *navController = [[UINavigationController alloc] initWithRootViewController:buttonReorder]; //Add a Navigation Controller to the root view [navController setNavigationBarHidden:TRUE]; buttonReorder = (ButtonReorderViewController *) navController; [[buttonReorder view] setFrame:CGRectMake(0, -20, 320, 470)]; [self.view addSubview:buttonReorder.view]; I use UINavigationController to allow me to swipe left and right.So I am in AdminViewController, and I click on goToReorderButton, it load ButtonReorderViewController. I am able to swipe left and right (awesome !!!) So I click the button in ButtonReorderViewController call goToAdmin, simply to go back to the AdminViewController -(void) goToAdmin{ [self.view removeFromSuperview]; } However, as soon as I go back to AdminViewController, I cant click anything at all. The program does not seg fault, it just that I cant click the button at all. if I remove the line buttonReorder = (ButtonReorderViewController *) navController; inside goToReorderButton, then everything work fine. Any idea how to fix this?

    Read the article

  • How to create custom omniauth provider (how to return data)

    - by user2803917
    I searched all around the net, how to create a custom provider for omniauth.. and i succedded partly.. I created a gem, and it worked perfectly, except the part, that i cant understand how to return the gathered data to sessions controller, like other providers do.. here is the code in auth gem: require 'multi_json' require 'digest/md5' require 'rest-client' module OmniAuth module Strategies class Providername < OmniAuth::Strategies::OAuth attr_accessor :app_id, :api_key, :auth def initialize(app, app_id = nil, api_key = nil, options = {}) super(app, :providername) @app_id = app_id @api_key = api_key end protected def request_phase redirect "http://valid_url" end def callback_phase if request.params['code'] && request.params['status'] == 'ok' response = RestClient.get("http://valid_url2/?code=#{request.params['auth_code']}") auth = MultiJson.decode(response.to_s) unless auth['error'] @auth_data = auth if @auth_data @return_data = OmniAuth::Utils.deep_merge(super, { 'uid' => @auth_data['uid'], 'nickname' => @auth_data['nick'], 'user_info' => { 'first_name' => @auth_data['name'], 'last_name' => @auth_data['surname'], 'location' => @auth_data['place'], }, 'credentials' => { 'apikey' => @auth_data['apikey'] }, 'extra' => {'user_hash' => @auth_data} }) end end else fail!(:invalid_request) end rescue Exception => e fail!(:invalid_response, e) end end end end and here i call it in my initializers: Rails.application.config.middleware.use OmniAuth::Builder do provider "providername", Settings.providers.providername.app_id, Settings.providers.providername.app_secret end in this code, everything works fine so far, the provider gets called, i get the info from provider, i create a hash (@auth_data) with info, but how do i return it

    Read the article

  • Aspect-Oriented Programming in OOP world - breaking rules ?

    - by Maksim Kondratyuk
    Hi 2 all! When I worked on asp.net mvc web site project, I investigated different approaches for validation. Some of them were DataAnotation validation and Validation Block. They use attributes for setting up rules for validation. Like this: [Required] public string Name {get;set;} I was confused how this approach combines with SRP (single responsibilty principle) from OOP world. Also I don't like any business logic in business objects, I prefer "poor business objects" model, but when I decorate my business objects with validation attributes for real requirements, they become ugly (Has a lot of attributes / with localization logic and so on). Idea with attributes realy simple, but in my opinion the validation decoration should be separated from object. I'm not sure is the approach to separate validation rules to xml files or to another objects, maybe it is a solution. Another bad side of AOP - problems with unit testin such code. When I decorated some controller actions with custom attributes for example to import/export TempData between actions or initialize some required services I can't to write proper unit test for testing this actions. Do you think that attributes don't break srp or you just disregard this and think that it's simplest , is not worst way ? P.S. I read some likes articles and discussions and I just want to put things in proper order. P.P.S. sorry for my "fluent" english :=)

    Read the article

  • Routing problem with calling a new method without an ID

    - by alkaloids
    I'm trying to put together a form_tag that edits several Shift objects. I have the form built properly, and it's passing on the correct parameters. I have verified that the parameters work with updating the objects correctly in the console. However, when I click the submit button, I get the error: ActiveRecord::RecordNotFound in ShiftsController#update_individual Couldn't find Shift without an ID My route for the controller it is calling looks like this looks like this: map.resources :shifts, :collection => { :update_individual => :put } The method in ShiftsController is this: def update_individual Shift.update(params[:shifts].keys, params[:shifts].values) flash[:notice] = "Schedule saved" end The relevant form parts are these: <% form_tag( update_individual_shifts_path ) do %> ... (fields for...) <%= submit_tag "Save" %> <% end %> Why is this not working? If I browse to the url: "http://localhost:3000/shifts/update_individual/5" (or any number that corresponds to an existing shift), I get the proper error about having no parameters set, but when I pass parameters without an ID of some sort, it errors out. How do I make it stop looking for an ID at the end of the URL?

    Read the article

  • Using JSF, PrimeFaces and JPA: Create Basic WebApp without using Generated CRUD Classes, Forms, etc

    - by user2774489
    I am trying to build a basic CRUD application with NetBeans 7.4, JSF, PrimeFaces and JPA using MySQL. I have successfully done this by using the NetBeans wizards. I want to do this from scratch, no wizards. There seems to be a lack of support for the combo of JSF, PrimeFaces and JPA. When I say "lack", I mean a full example (I might be asking too much), without using the CRUD auto-gen templates/classes AND shows actual queries coded and passed to the datatables(primefaces). YouTube is full of non-English speaking examples using Hibernate (not JPA) and other examples that show flashy GUI's with no code. So far I understand you need an @Entity class (provides the physical build of the tables), a Controller (serializable) and the .xhtml web page to show the datatable.. what else? Also, I'm not seeing any posts or examples where queries are using with JPA/JSF and how they are tied together (in one place). I need to connect the dots here so that I can leverage JSF/JPA to create simple queries to populate my PF DataTables. I've read the blogs and I've googled the intranets until I'm blue in the face. Sending me a list of URL's to read to learn about each product is something I've already done. I get what they do independently, but am looking for the "How do they all connect" answer with maybe some basic code examples!! :)

    Read the article

  • Update "Properties" model when adding a new record in CakePHP

    - by Paul Willy
    Hi, I'm writing an application in CakePHP that, for now, is to be used to make quotes for customers. So Quote is a model. I want to have a separate model/table for something like "Property," which may be used by other models. Each time a user gets to the "Add Quote" action, I basically want to pull a Property called "nextQuoteNumber" or something along those lines, and then automatically increment that property, even if the new Quote isn't saved. So I don't think just using an autoincrement for Quote's id is appropriate here - also, the "quote number" could be different from the row's id. I know this is simple enough to do, but I'm trying to figure out the "proper" CakePHP way of doing it! I'm thinking that I should have a method inside the Property model, say "getProperty($property_name)", which would pull the value to return, and also increment the value... but I'm not sure what the best way of doing that is, or how to invoke this method from the Quotes controller. What should I do? Thanks in advance!

    Read the article

  • java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: org.springframework.ui.ModelMap

    - by aelshereay
    I create a simple webapp using tomcat 6, spring 2.5.6 and maven. The problem is when I boot up tomcat, I am getting the following errors: SEVERE: StandardWrapper.Throwable java.lang.NoClassDefFoundError: org/springframework/ui/ModelMap ... Caused by: java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: org.springframework.ui.ModelMap The ModelMap class does exist in spring-2.5.6.jar and spring-context-2.5.6.jar, I also have some other spring jars. All of them are being deployed to tomcat correctly, when I check the application WEB-INF (deployed to tomcat) I found all those jars there! I have only one @Controller that has a @RequestMapping("/home.htm") showForm(ModelMap model) method. My applicationContext is quite simple: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <beans xmlns="http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:aop="http://www.springframework.org/schema/aop" xmlns:context="http://www.springframework.org/schema/context" xmlns:dwr="http://www.directwebremoting.org/schema/spring-dwr" xsi:schemaLocation="http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans/spring-beans-2.5.xsd http://www.springframework.org/schema/aop http://www.springframework.org/schema/aop/spring-aop-2.5.xsd http://www.springframework.org/schema/context http://www.springframework.org/schema/context/spring-context-2.5.xsd http://www.directwebremoting.org/schema/spring-dwr http://www.directwebremoting.org/schema/spring-dwr-3.0.xsd" default-autowire="byName"> <context:component-scan base-package="org.myapp"/> <bean class="org.springframework.web.servlet.mvc.annotation.DefaultAnnotationHandlerMapping"/> <bean class="org.springframework.web.servlet.mvc.annotation.AnnotationMethodHandlerAdapter"/> <bean id="viewResolver" class="org.springframework.web.servlet.view.InternalResourceViewResolver"> <property name="viewClass" value="org.springframework.web.servlet.view.JstlView"></property> <property name="prefix" value="/WEB-INF/view/"></property> <property name="suffix" value=".jsp"></property> </bean> </beans>

    Read the article

  • Simplest PHP Routing framework .. ?

    - by David
    I'm looking for the simplest implementation of a routing framework in PHP, in a typical PHP environment (Running on Apache, or maybe nginx) .. It's the implementation itself I'm mostly interested in, and how you'd accomplish it. I'm thinking it should handle URL's, with the minimal rewriting possible, (is it really a good idea, to have the same entrypoint for all dynamic requests?!), and it should not mess with the querystring, so I should still be able to fetch GET params with $_GET['var'] as you'd usually do.. So far I have only come across .htaccess solutions that puts everything through an index.php, which is sort of okay. Not sure if there are other ways of doing it. How would you "attach" what URL's fit to what controllers, and the relation between them? I've seen different styles. One huge array, with regular expressions and other stuff to contain the mapping. The one I think I like the best is where each controller declares what map it has, and thereby, you won't have one huge "global" map, but a lot of small ones, each neatly separated. So you'd have something like: class Root { public $map = array( 'startpage' => 'ControllerStartPage' ); } class ControllerStartPage { public $map = array( 'welcome' => 'WelcomeControllerPage' ); } // Etc ... Where: 'http://myapp/' // maps to the Root class 'http://myapp/startpage' // maps to the ControllerStartPage class 'http://myapp/startpage/welcome' // maps to the WelcomeControllerPage class 'http://myapp/startpage/?hello=world' // Should of course have $_GET['hello'] == 'world' What do you think? Do you use anything yourself, or have any ideas? I'm not interested in huge frameworks already solving this problem, but the smallest possible implementation you could think of. I'm having a hard time coming up with a solution satisfying enough, for my own taste. There must be something pleasing out there that handles a sane bootstrapping process of a PHP application without trying to pull a big magic hat over your head, and force you to use "their way", or the highway! ;)

    Read the article

  • ASP.Net MVC 2 - How to set up a Cancel button with client side navigation

    - by arame3333
    Thanks to a previous question I found a useful link on multiple buttons. http://weblogs.asp.net/dfindley/archive/2009/05/31/asp-net-mvc-multiple-buttons-in-the-same-form.aspx What I want to do is have a cancel button on my page, similar to this; <button name="button" type="button" onclick="document.location.href=$('#cancelUrl').attr('href')">Cancel</button> <a id="cancelUrl" href="<%: Url.Action("Index", "Home") %>" style="display:none;"></a> However although this code works, I really want to go back to the previous page. For Web Forms I could use the javascript Back() or Go(-1) functions, but they relied on postbacks. I could of course hard code the previous page and controller as I have done above. However I am struggling to find links that explain to me how Url.Action works. Because if I do this, I also need to include an index parameter, and I am not clear how the syntax works for that. It seems odd the amount of coding to do this. Out of curiosity, I am also wondering how you TDD client side code like this.

    Read the article

  • Cannot convert object, recieved from ajax call, into a long

    - by Matt
    I'm using Asp.Net-Mvc, I have this method in my controller: [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult LinkAccount(string site, object id) { return this.Json(id); } Here's the ajax method that calls it: $.post("/Account/LinkAccount", { site: "Facebook", id: FB.Facebook.apiClient.get_session().uid }, function(result) { alert(result); }, "json" ); returning this.Json(id); makes the alert work... it alerts 7128383 (something similar to that). but if I change this.Json(id) to this.Json(Conver.ToInt64(id)); the alert does not fire... Any idea of why I can't convert an object received from an object to a long? I already know changing the LinkAccount method to accept a long instead works just fine. It's just I need it as an object because some other sites I'm linking up have strings for id's rather than longs. UPDATE: I tried running the code on localhost so I could set a breakpoint. First I changed the line return this.Json(Convert.ToInt64(id)); to long idAsLong = Convert.ToInt64(id));. Here's what the debugger is telling me: When I hover over id it says: "id | {string[1]}" and when I press the plus button is shows: "[0] | '7128383'" When I hover over idAsLong, it says: "idAsLong | 0" Why isn't it converting it properly?

    Read the article

  • Stubbing an ActsAs Rails Plugin

    - by Rabbott
    I need to create a plugin much like Authlogic (or even just add on to Authlogic), but due to requirements beyond my control I need my plugin to authenticate using SOAP. Basically the plugin would require that anyone accessing the controller (before_filter would be fine) would have to authenticate first. I have ZERO control over the login page, or the SOAP server, I am simply a client attempting to authenticate to the providers SOAP Web Service. Here is what happens.. before_filter realizes that no session[:credential] is set, and forwards the user to the url on the providers servers. The user enters their credentials, and once authenticated, the web service forwards the user to a URL that has been entered by their sysadmins, attaching a token to the url on its way back. I need to take that token, append it to some parameters stored in a local YAML file, and make the SOAP call to the providers server. If all goes as planned, I need to set session[:credential] to the result of the SOAP call, and forward the user to the root page. Subsequent calls to the before_filter will not make the SOAP call, because session[:credential] is set. Ideally I think this would be awesome to slap on top of Authlogic, but I'm not sure how to do this, So I started to create my own acts_as_soap_authentic plugin, which isn't causing errors, but doesn't do anything.. Anyone have any pointers, or tips as to how I can get the ball rolling here? It seems simple, but is proving not to be..

    Read the article

  • Using Doctrine to abstract CRUD operations

    - by TomWilsonFL
    This has bothered me for quite a while, but now it is necessity that I find the answer. We are working on quite a large project using CodeIgniter plus Doctrine. Our application has a front end and also an admin area for the company to check/change/delete data. When we designed the front end, we simply consumed most of the Doctrine code right in the controller: //In semi-pseudocode function register() { $data = get_post_data(); if (count($data) && isValid($data)) { $U = new User(); $U->fromArray($data); $U->save(); $C = new Customer(); $C->fromArray($data); $C->user_id = $U->id; $C->save(); redirect_to_next_step(); } } Obviously when we went to do the admin views code duplication began and considering we were in a "get it DONE" mode so it now stinks with code bloat. I have moved a lot of functionality (business logic) into the model using model methods, but the basic CRUD does not fit there. I was going to attempt to place the CRUD into static methods, i.e. Customer::save($array) [would perform both insert and update depending on if prikey is present in array], Customer::delete($id), Customer::getObj($id = false) [if false, get all data]. This is going to become painful though for 32 model objects (and growing). Also, at times models need to interact (as the interaction above between user data and customer data), which can't be done in a static method without breaking encapsulation. I envision adding another layer to this (exposing web services), so knowing there are going to be 3 "controllers" at some point I need to encapsulate this CRUD somewhere (obviously), but are static methods the way to go, or is there another road? Your input is much appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Cascading DropDown List in MVC 4

    - by Misi
    I have a ASP.NET MVC 4 project with EF I have a table with Parteners. This table has 2 types of parteners : agents(part_type=1) and clients(part_type=2). In an Create view I have the first DropDownList that shows all my agents, a button and the second DDL that shows all my clients that correspond to the selected agent. Q1 : What button shoud I use ? , , @Html.ActionLink() ? Create.cshtml <div class="editor-field"> @Html.DropDownList("idagenti", ViewData["idagenti"] as List<SelectListItem>, String.Empty) </div> @*a button*@ <div class="editor-label"> @Html.LabelFor(model => model.id_parten, "Client") </div> <div class="editor-field"> @Html.DropDownList("id_parten", String.Empty) @Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => model.id_parten) </div> OrdersController.cs public ActionResult Create(int? id) // id is the selected agent { var agqry = db.partener.Where(p => p.part_type == 1).Where(p => p.activ == true); var cltqry = db.partener.Where(p => p.part_type == 2).Where(p => p.activ == true); List<SelectListItem> idagenti = new List<SelectListItem>(); foreach (partener ag in agqry) { idagenti.Add(new SelectListItem { Text = ag.den_parten, Value = ag.id_parten.ToString() }); } if (id != null) { cltqry = cltqry.Where(p => p.par_parten == id); } ViewData["idagenti"] = idagenti; ViewBag.id_parten = new SelectList(cltqry, "id_parten", "den_parten");// } Q: How can I pass the selected agent id from the first DDL to my controller ?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 358 359 360 361 362 363 364 365 366 367 368 369  | Next Page >