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• "rsAccessDenied" error for SSRS 2008

  - by JackLocke

  Hi All, I have been trying to access SSRS Web Service URL hxxp://myServer:80/ReportServer (from Reporting Service Configuration Manager), but my IE always shows "rsAccessDenied" message saying that my account doesn't have privilage required to view. Here are my system specs. Its my laptop with Windows 7 x64, and SQL Server 2008 with SP1 and I am using Mixed Mode Authentication with My account as SysAdmin privilages and this is what I have been trying / tried ... (ofcourse with restarting the service everytime I make any change in configuration), I changed service account from Reporting Service Configuration Manager to make it use My account but nothing happend. I tried running my IE as admin, by RUN AS ADMIN but still same message. Then I read somewhere I have to delete/recreate my encryption keys as well, so I tried again with that, then it was asking me to enter ID/PWD to access server here I am totally blank because it was not accepting my account credentials !!!. Weird thing is I can see my existing reports if I follow this URL hxxp://myServer:80/Reports , for which My guess is solely used to view reports. I have read post here about kind of same problem, but it seems that OP just left forum after asking question... Also, MSDN does have these helps hxxp://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms156034.aspx hxxp://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb630430.aspx but both of this didn't workout for me. I will really appriciate it if any one can help me out. Jack p.s. I was not allowed to post more than 1 URL because of my "reputation" so I had to change the string a bit. Please replace hxxp wih http in URLs.

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• How to specify MQ channel table location for .net web application using web.config

  - by Matt

  I've been going around in circles for a while on this one now. I'm trying to connect to a distributed queue manager using a supplied channel table file. I can get this to work if I specify the environmental variable MQCHLLIB and MQCHLTAB on my server. However the IBM documentation states that the .net config file can override these variables. Here is what I have placed in my web.config file: ... <configSections> <section name="CHANNELS" type="System.Configuration.NameValueSectionHandler" /> </configSections> <CHANNELS> <add key="ChannelDefinitionDirectory" value="C:\temp"></add> <add key="ChannelDefinitionFile" value="DSM_MOM_TEST.tab"></add> </CHANNELS> ... And here is the code that is executing: Hashtable properties = new Hashtable(); //Add managed connection type to parameters. const String connectionType = MQC.TRANSPORT_MQSERIES_CLIENT; properties.Add(MQC.TRANSPORT_PROPERTY, connectionType); return new MQQueueManager(queueManagerName, properties); queueManagerName is set to the generic queue manager "*Q101T". However this isn't working and I get an error returned: 2058 MQRC_Q_MGR_NAME_ERROR I've been unable to find any more documentation on how to get this to work other than the environmental variables and the standard mqclient.ini should be overriden by the channels stanza in the web.config. Is there something that I've missed in the code? Any tips would be greatly appreciated.

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• Vim: Making Auto-Completion Smarter

  - by Rafid K. Abdullah

  I use ctags, taglist, etc., to have auto completion in Vim. However, it is very limited compared to Visual Studio intellisense or Eclipse auto-completion. I am wondering whether it is possible to tune Vim to: Show auto-completion whenever . or - are typed. But only after some text that might be a variable (e.g. avoid showing auto completion after a number). Show function parameters when ( is typed. Stop removing the auto completion list when some delete all characters after . or -: When I enter a variable name, then press . or - to search for a certain member, I frequently have to delete all the characters I type after the . or -, but this makes Vim hide the auto completion list. I would like to keep it visible unless I press Esc. Showing related auto completion: When I type a variable and press ^X ^O, it usually shows me all the tags in the ctags file. I would like to have it showing only the tags related to the variable. Thanks for the help. EDIT: Some people are voting for this question, but no body seems to know the answer. So just wanted to mention that you don't have to provide a complete answer; partial answers to any of the mentioned points would be good also.

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• Cross-platform iteration of Unicode string

  - by kizzx2

  I want to iterate each character of a Unicode string, treating each surrogate pair and combining character sequence as a single unit (one grapheme). Example The text "??????" is comprised of the code points: U+0928, U+092E, U+0938, U+094D, U+0924, U+0947, of which, U+0938 and U+0947 are combining marks. static void Main(string[] args) { const string s = "??????"; Console.WriteLine(s.Length); // Ouptuts "6" var l = 0; var e = System.Globalization.StringInfo.GetTextElementEnumerator(s); while(e.MoveNext()) l++; Console.WriteLine(l); // Outputs "4" } So there we have it in .NET. We also have Win32's CharNextW() #include <Windows.h> #include <iostream> #include <string> int main() { const wchar_t * s = L"??????"; std::cout << std::wstring(s).length() << std::endl; // Gives "6" int l = 0; while(CharNextW(s) != s) { s = CharNextW(s); ++l; } std::cout << l << std::endl; // Gives "4" return 0; } Question Both ways I know of are specific to Microsoft. Are there portable ways to do it? I heard about ICU but I couldn't find something related quickly (UnicodeString(s).length() still gives 6). Would be an acceptable answer to point to the related function/module in ICU. C++ doesn't have a notion of Unicode, so a lightweight cross-platform library for dealing with these issues would make an acceptable answer.

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• question about jQuery droppable/draggable.

  - by FALCONSEYE

  I modified a sample photo manager application. photo manager application Instead of photos, I have employee records coming from a query. My version will let managers mark employees as on vacation, or at work. One of the things I did is to include employee ids like <a href="123">. I get the ids from event.target. This works for the click function but not for the "droppable" function. This is what I have for the click function: $('ul.gallery > li').click(function(ev) { var $item = $(this); var $unid = ev.target; var $target = $(ev.target); if ($target.is('a.ui-icon-suitcase')) { deleteImage($item,$unid); } else if ($target.is('a.ui-icon-arrowreturnthick-1-w')) { recycleImage($item,$unid); } return false; }); ev.target correctly gives the employee id. when i try the same in one of the droppable functions: $gallery.droppable({ accept: '#suitcase li', activeClass: 'custom-state-active', drop: function(ev, ui) { var $unid = ev.target; alert($unid); recycleImage(ui.draggable,$unid); } }); the alert(ui) gives me [object]. What's in this object? How do i get the href out of this? thanks

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• CakePHP Routes: Messing With The MVC

  - by thesunneversets

  So we have a real-estate-related site that has controller/action pairs like "homes/view", "realtors/edit", and so forth. From on high it has been deemed a good idea to refactor the site so that URLS are now in the format "/realtorname/homes/view/id", and perhaps also "/admin/homes/view/id" and/or "/region/..." As a mere CakePHP novice I'm finding it difficult to achieve this in routes.php. I can do the likes of: Router::connect('/:filter/h/:id', array('controller'=>'homes','action'=>'view')); Router::connect('/admin/:controller/:action/:id'); But I'm finding that the id is no longer being passed simply and elegantly to the actions, now that controller and action do not directly follow the domain. Therefore, questions: Is it a stupid idea to play fast and loose with the /controller/action format in this way? Is there a better way of stating these routes so that things don't break egregiously? Would we be better off going back to subdomains (the initial method of achieving this type of functionality, shot down on potentially spurious SEO-related grounds)? Many thanks for any advice! I'm sorry that I'm such a newbie that I don't know whether I'm asking stupid questions or not....

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• How to exclude rows where matching join is in an SQL tree

  - by Greg K

  Sorry for the poor title, I couldn't think how to concisely describe this problem. I have a set of items that should have a 1-to-1 relationship with an attribute. I have a query to return those rows where the data is wrong and this relationship has been broken (1-to-many). I'm gathering these rows to fix them and restore this 1-to-1 relationship. This is a theoretical simplification of my actual problem but I'll post example table schema here as it was requested. item table: +------------+------------+-----------+ | item_id | name | attr_id | +------------+------------+-----------+ | 1 | BMW 320d | 20 | | 1 | BMW 320d | 21 | | 2 | BMW 335i | 23 | | 2 | BMW 335i | 34 | +------------+------------+-----------+ attribute table: +---------+-----------------+------------+ | attr_id | value | parent_id | +---------+-----------------+------------+ | 20 | SE | 21 | | 21 | M Sport | 0 | | 23 | AC | 24 | | 24 | Climate control | 0 | .... | 34 | Leather seats | 0 | +---------+-----------------+------------+ A simple query to return items with more than one attribute. SELECT item_id, COUNT(DISTINCT(attr_id)) AS attributes FROM item GROUP BY item_id HAVING attributes > 1 This gets me a result set like so: +-----------+------------+ | item_id | attributes | +-----------+------------+ | 1 | 2 | | 2 | 2 | | 3 | 2 | -- etc. -- However, there's an exception. The attribute table can hold a tree structure, via parent links in the table. For certain rows, parent_id can hold the ID of another attribute. There's only one level to this tree. Example: +---------+-----------------+------------+ | attr_id | value | parent_id | +---------+-----------------+------------+ | 20 | SE | 21 | | 21 | M Sport | 0 | .... I do not want to retrieve items in my original query where, for a pair of associated attributes, they related like attributes 20 & 21. I do want to retrieve items where: the attributes have no parent for two or more attributes they are not related (e.g. attributes 23 & 34) Example result desired, just the item ID: +------------+ | item_id | +------------+ | 2 | +------------+ How can I join against attributes from items and exclude these rows? Do I use a temporary table or can I achieve this from a single query? Thanks.

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• Interesting LinqToSql behaviour

  - by Ben Robinson

  We have a database table that stores the location of some wave files plus related meta data. There is a foreign key (employeeid) on the table that links to an employee table. However not all wav files relate to an employee, for these records employeeid is null. We are using LinqToSQl to access the database, the query to pull out all non employee related wav file records is as follows: var results = from Wavs in db.WaveFiles where Wavs.employeeid == null; Except this returns no records, despite the fact that there are records where employeeid is null. On profiling sql server i discovered the reason no records are returned is because LinqToSQl is turning it into SQL that looks very much like: SELECT Field1, Field2 //etc FROM WaveFiles WHERE 1=0 Obviously this returns no rows. However if I go into the DBML designer and remove the association and save. All of a sudden the exact same LINQ query turns into SELECT Field1, Field2 //etc FROM WaveFiles WHERE EmployeeID IS NULL I.e. if there is an association then LinqToSql assumes that all records have a value for the foreign key (even though it is nullable and the property appears as a nullable int on the WaveFile entity) and as such deliverately constructs a where clause that will return no records. Does anyone know if there is a way to keep the association in LinqToSQL but stop this behaviour. A workaround i can think of quickly is to have a calculated field called IsSystemFile and set it to 1 if employeeid is null and 0 otherwise. However this seems like a bit of a hack to work around strange behaviour of LinqToSQl and i would rather do something in the DBML file or define something on the foreign key constraint that will prevent this behaviour.

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• Should a developer be a coauthor to a paper presented about the application they developed?

  - by ved

  In our organization, project teams come up with a need and funding and developers are given a basic scope and are allowed to develop the solution. There is a certain degree of implementation freedom given to the developers. They drive the solution to pilot and live deployment from its inception. If the solution is presented in a conference as a technical paper/white paper what is the protocol for the list of authors: because for the most part I see the project manager's and the dev team manager's names as authors but no mention of the actual developer. Is this correct? A lot of us developers feel pretty bummed to never see our names as the coauthors. Appreciate any pointers. Answers to the FOLLOW UP questions (1) in what field of study is the paper, and what are the standards of authorship for that field? The paper is for Flood Plain Management - there is nothing on the abstract guidelines, I have called the contact person listed for comment - waiting to hear. 2) was the paper literally about the software application as your question implies, or were the software issues incidental to the topic of the paper? The paper specifically deals with a GIS Application that is used in Coastal Engineering, yes the software is not incidental, but the meat of the paper and mentioned in the Title. 2

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• How do I enable SVN menu in an editor window in Eclipse?

  - by Jordan Reiter

  The SVN menu is disabled whenever I'm in an edit window; it's enabled when I'm in the Navigator or similar file browsing windows. I'd like to have the SVN menu enabled while the editor window is open in order so that I can set up a key binding and commit while editing the document rather than having to switch over to the navigation view to commit a file. This is Eclipse 3.5 using Eclipse's Subversion Connectors plugin. This may be related: I had to do a reinstall of eclipse and a fair number of the keybindings no longer work the way the once did. In addition, many keystrokes now only work in windows only instead of windows and dialogs (specifically select all, copy, and paste). If these problems are related and there's an easy way to repair or refresh my keybindings without having to start over completely that would be great. Clarification I know how to set up key mappings. That's not a problem. I have them set up. The problem is that the SVN menu is disabled in the editor pane. I can access the SVN menu from the Navigator or similar panes, and I've set up the keymappings exactly the way I want them. They just aren't working in all contexts.

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• Scratch the screen to display an image in android

  - by user1008497

  i am working on a android project for my assignment. i am trying to make a scratch image application, you know it's like we scratch the screen to get rid the blocking layer to display the image. but the problem is i don't know where to start. i have searching in stackoverflow's questions that related to this but that's not help. from my search there, i found a clue for this project is using Bitmap.getPixel(int x, int y). so, in my thought i have to get pixel from bitmap and paint it to canvas. but i don't know how to implement it? or anyone has a better method for this? Could anyone please help me? Any tutorials on this kind of thing or related topics? Thanks in advance! here's my sample code: @Override protected void onSizeChanged(int w, int h, int oldw, int oldh) { super.onSizeChanged(w, h, oldw, oldh); tw = w; th = h; eraseableBitmap = Bitmap.createBitmap(w, h, Bitmap.Config.ARGB_8888); mCanvas = new Canvas(eraseableBitmap); Bitmap muteableBitmap = Bitmap.createBitmap(eraseableBitmap.getWidth(), eraseableBitmap.getHeight(), Bitmap.Config.ARGB_8888); } @Override public boolean onTouchEvent(MotionEvent event) { static_x = event.getX(); static_y = event.getY(); if (event.getAction() == MotionEvent.ACTION_DOWN) { touch_start(static_x, static_y); } if (event.getAction() == MotionEvent.ACTION_MOVE) { touch_move(static_x, static_y); } if (event.getAction() == MotionEvent.ACTION_UP) { touch_up(); } return true; }

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• How to wait until location is completely found? (Core Location)

  - by sudo rm -rf

  Hello. I have a problem within my app. I'm trying to find the user's location to the best preciseness in order to determine their zip-code. Currently I have a button that, when pressed, starts a method named locateMe. -(IBAction)locateMe; { self.locationManager = [[CLLocationManager alloc] init]; locationManager.delegate = self; locationManager.desiredAccuracy = kCLLocationAccuracyBest; [locationManager startUpdatingLocation]; Then I've implemented didUpdateToLocation: -(void)locationManager:(CLLocationManager *)manager didUpdateToLocation:(CLLocation *)newLocation fromLocation:(CLLocation *)oldLocation; { NSLog(@"Found location! %f,%f",newLocation.coordinate.latitude,newLocation.coordinate.longitude); } I had previously done much more complicated stuff in didUpdateToLocation but as I tested some things I realized that the first location it found was not precise in the least. So, I put the NSLog call in there and it gave me an output similar to below... Found location! 39.594093,-98.614834 Found location! 39.601372,-98.592171 Found location! 39.601372,-98.592171 Found location! 39.611444,-98.538196 Found location! 39.611444,-98.538196 As you can see, it first gives me a value which is not correct, which was causing problems within my app because it wasn't giving the correct location. So, here's my question. Is there any way I can wait for the location manager to finish finding the most precise location? Thanks in advance! EDIT: I'm wanting something like this: if (newLocation.horizontalAccuracy <= locationManager.desiredAccuracy) { } But it never gets called!

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• Issue with Callback method and maintaining CultureInfo and ASP.Net HttpRuntime

  - by Little Larry Sellers

  Hi All, Here is my issue. I am working on an E-commerce solution that is deployed to multiple European countries. We persist all exceptions within the application to SQL Server and I have found that there are records in the DB that have a DateTime in the future! We define the culture in the web.config, for example pt-PT, and the format expected is DD-MM-YYYY. After debugging I found the issue with these 'future' records in the DB is because of Callback methods we use. For example, in our Caching architecture we use Callbacks, as such - CacheItemRemovedCallback ReloadCallBack = new CacheItemRemovedCallback(OnRefreshRequest); When I check the current threads CultureInfo, on these Callbacks it is en-US instead of pt-PT and also the HttpContext is null. If an exception occurs on the Callback our exception manager reports it as MM-DD-YYYY and thus it is persisted to SQL Server incorrectly. Unfortunately, in the exception manager code, we use DateTime.Now, which is fine if it is not a callback. I can't change this code to be culture specific due to it being shared across other verticals. So, why don't callbacks into ASP.Net maintain context? Is there any way to maintain it on this callback thread? What are the best practices here? Thanks.

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• PHP: how to access variables inside a function that have been declared outside of it?

  - by Chris

  Please, I am very new and have not been confronted with OOP and all this related stuff, which I guess may be related to this issue (public, private, ...). So, any help and suggestions are very appreciated! :) At the very beginning of each page I include a file that starts the SESSION etc, lets call it session.php. In this file session.php, I include a file that contains a function, let's call it function1.php, because I need the function to be available in session.php. However, later in the main page I also include function2.php which needs to access variables set in session.php, so I additionally tried to include session.php in function2.php. The problem is that an error occurs as function1 will be declared multiple times... Fatal error: Cannot redeclare function1() (previously declared in ... So, what would be a more elegant and clean(er) solution for this? How could you solve it? Basically, I'd need to access variables inside a function that have been included in the main page before... Thank you very much in advance!

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• Where does "new" fit in the flex creation cycle?

  - by deux11

  In the following code, the call to myChild.bar() results in an exception because myChild is null. myParent is a valid object. What I don't understand is why myChild has not been created yet. I have read the following document related to object creation sequence, but I am unsure how "new" is related: http://livedocs.adobe.com/flex/3/html/help.html?content=layoutperformance_03.html Any help is appreciated! // Main.mxml <mx:Application xmlns:mx="http://www.adobe.com/2006/mxml" creationComplete="created()"> <mx:Script> <![CDATA[ public var myParent:Parent = new Parent(); public function created():void { myParent.foo(); } ]]> </mx:Script> </mx:Application> // Parent.mxml <mx:Canvas xmlns:mx="http://www.adobe.com/2006/mxml" xmlns="*"> <mx:Script> <![CDATA[ public function foo():void { myChild.bar(); } ]]> </mx:Script> <Child id="myChild"/> </mx:Canvas> // Child.mxml <mx:Canvas xmlns:mx="http://www.adobe.com/2006/mxml"> <mx:Script> <![CDATA[ public function bar():void { trace("Hello World"); } ]]> </mx:Script> </mx:Canvas>

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• AngularJS - $routeParams Empty on $locationChangeSuccess

  - by Marc M.

  I configure my app in the following run block. Basically I want to preform an action that requires me to know the $routeParams every $locationChangeSuccess. However $routeParams is empty at this point! Are there any work rounds? What's going on? app.run(['$routeParams', function ($routeParams) { $rootScope.$on("$locationChangeSuccess", function () { console.log($routeParams); }); }]); UPDATE function configureApp(app, user) { app.config(['$routeProvider', function ($routeProvider) { $routeProvider. when('/rentroll', { templateUrl: 'rent-roll/rent-roll.html', controller: 'pwRentRollCtrl' }). when('/bill', { templateUrl: 'bill/bill/bill.html', controller: 'pwBillCtrl' }). when('/fileroom', { templateUrl: 'file-room/file-room/file-room.html', controller: 'pwFileRoomCtrl' }). when('/estate-creator', { templateUrl: 'estate/creator.html' }). when('/estate-manager', { templateUrl: 'estate/manager.html', controller: 'pwEstateManagerCtrl' }). when('/welcomepage', { templateURL: 'welcome-page/welcome-page.html', controller: 'welcomePageCtrl' }). otherwise({ redirectTo: '/welcomepage' }); }]); app.run(['$rootScope', '$routeParams', 'pwCurrentEstate','pwToolbar', function ($rootScope, $routeParams, pwCurrentEstate, pwToolbar) { $rootScope.user = user; $rootScope.$on("$locationChangeSuccess", function () { pwToolbar.reset(); console.log($routeParams); }); }]); } Accessing URL: http://localhost:8080/landlord/#/rentroll?landlord-account-id=ahlwcm9wZXJ0eS1tYW5hZ2VtZW50LXN1aXRlchwLEg9MYW5kbG9yZEFjY291bnQYgICAgICAgAoM&billing-month=2014-06

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• in Rails, with check_box_tag, how do I keep the checkboxes checked after submitting query?

  - by Sebastien Paquet

  Ok, I know this is for the Saas course and people have been asking questions related to that as well but i've spent a lot of time trying and reading and I'm stuck. First of all, When you have a model called Movie, is it better to use Ratings as a model and associate them or just keep Ratings in an array floating in space(!). Second, here's what I have now in my controller: def index @movies = Movie.where(params[:ratings].present? ? {:rating => (params[:ratings].keys)} : {}).order(params[:sort]) @sort = params[:sort] @ratings = Ratings.all end Now, I decided to create a Ratings model since I thought It would be better. Here's my view: = form_tag movies_path, :method => :get do Include: - @ratings.each do |rating| = rating.rating = check_box_tag "ratings[#{rating.rating}]" = submit_tag "Refresh" I tried everything that is related to using a conditional ternary inside the checkbox tag ending with " .include?(rating) ? true : "" I tried everything that's supposed to work but it doesn't. I don't want the exact answer, I just need guidance.Thanks in advance!

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• Combining two-part SQL query into one query

  - by user332523

  Hello, I have a SQL query that I'm currently solving by doing two queries. I am wondering if there is a way to do it in a single query that makes it more efficient. Consider two tables: Transaction_Entries table and Transactions, each one defined below: Transactions - id - reference_number (varchar) Transaction_Entries - id - account_id - transaction_id (references Transactions table) Notes: There are multiple transaction entries per transaction. Some transactions are related, and will have the same reference_number string. To get all transaction entries for Account X, then I would do SELECT E.*, T.reference_number FROM Transaction_Entries E JOIN Transactions T ON (E.transaction_id=T.id) where E.account_id = X The next part is the hard part. I want to find all related transactions, regardless of the account id. First I make a list of all the unique reference numbers I found in the previous result set. Then for each one, I can query all the transactions that have that reference number. Assume that I hold all the rows from the previous query in PreviousResultSet UniqueReferenceNumbers = GetUniqueReferenceNumbers(PreviousResultSet) // in Java foreach R in UniqueReferenceNumbers // in Java SELECT * FROM Transaction_Entries where transaction_id IN (SELECT * FROM Transactions WHERE reference_number=R Any suggestions how I can put this into a single efficient query?

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• Java: design for using many executors services and only few threads

  - by Guillaume

  I need to run in parallel multiple threads to perform some tests. My 'test engine' will have n tests to perform, each one doing k sub-tests. Each test result is stored for a later usage. So I have n*k processes that can be ran concurrently. I'm trying to figure how to use the java concurrent tools efficiently. Right now I have an executor service at test level and n executor service at sub test level. I create my list of Callables for the test level. Each test callable will then create another list of callables for the subtest level. When invoked a test callable will subsequently invoke all subtest callables test 1 subtest a1 subtest ...1 subtest k1 test n subtest a2 subtest ...2 subtest k2 call sequence: test manager create test 1 callable test1 callable create subtest a1 to k1 testn callable create subtest an to kn test manager invoke all test callables test1 callable invoke all subtest a1 to k1 testn callable invoke all subtest an to kn This is working fine, but I have a lot of new treads that are created. I can not share executor service since I need to call 'shutdown' on the executors. My idea to fix this problem is to provide the same fixed size thread pool to each executor service. Do you think it is a good design ? Do I miss something more appropriate/simple for doing this ?

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• Processing more than one button click at Android Widget

  - by dive

  Hi, all. I saw this topic and implement IntentService as describes, but what if I want more that one button? How can I distinguish button from each other? I'm trying to setFlags, but cannot read it at onHandleIntent() method: public static class UpdateService extends IntentService { ... @Override public void onHandleIntent(Intent intent) { ComponentName me = new ComponentName(this, ExampleProvider.class); AppWidgetManager manager = AppWidgetManager.getInstance(this); manager.updateAppWidget(me, buildUpdate(this)); } private RemoteViews buildUpdate(Context context) { RemoteViews updateViews = new RemoteViews(context.getPackageName(), R.layout.main_layout); Intent i = new Intent(this, ExampleProvider.class); PendingIntent pi = PendingIntent.getBroadcast(context, 0, i, 0); updateViews.setOnClickPendingIntent(R.id.button_refresh, pi); i = new Intent(this, ExampleProvider.class); pi = PendingIntent.getBroadcast(context, 0, i, 0); updateViews.setOnClickPendingIntent(R.id.button_about, pi); return updateViews; } } At this little piece of code I have two PendingIntent linked with setOnClickPendingIntent, can I distinguish this intent for different actions and processing? Thanks for help

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• UIImagePickerController crashes on rapid scrolling, slower than photos app

  - by vvanhee

  Most of the time, my image picker works perfectly (iOS 4.2.1). However, if I scroll very rapidly up and down about 4-6 times through my camera roll of about 300 photos, I get a crash. This never happens with the "photos" app on the same iPhone 3Gs. Also, I'm noticing that the stock "photos" app scrolls much more smoothly than my image picker. Has anyone else noticed this behavior? I'd be interested if others could attempt this in their own apps and see if they crash. I don't think it's related to other objects hogging memory on my iPhone because it's a simple app, and this happens right after I start the app. It also doesn't seem to be related to messages sent to other released objects or overreleasing of other objects in viewdidunload, based on my crash logs and the fact that the simulator responds well to simulated memory warnings. I think it might be a bug in the internal implementation of the UIImagePickerController... This is how I start the picker. I've done this multiple ways (including setting a retain property for the UIImagePickerController in my header and releasing on dealloc). This seems to be the best way (crashes least): UIImagePickerController *picker = [[UIImagePickerController alloc] init]; picker.delegate = self; picker.sourceType = UIImagePickerControllerSourceTypeSavedPhotosAlbum; picker.allowsEditing = YES; [self presentModalViewController:picker animated:YES]; [picker release]; This is the crashed thread (I get various exception types): Exception Type: SIGSEGV Exception Codes: SEGV_ACCERR at 0xfffffffff4faafa4 Crashed Thread: 8 ... Thread 8 Crashed: 0 CoreFoundation 0x000494ea -[__NSArrayM replaceObjectAtIndex:withObject:] + 98 1 PhotoLibrary 0x00008e0f -[PLImageTable _segmentAtIndex:] + 527 2 PhotoLibrary 0x00008a21 -[PLImageTable _mappedImageDataAtIndex:] + 221 3 PhotoLibrary 0x0000893f -[PLImageTable dataForEntryAtIndex:] + 15 4 PhotoLibrary 0x000087e7 PLThumbnailManagerImageDataAtIndex + 35 5 PhotoLibrary 0x00008413 -[PLThumbnailManager _dataForPhoto:format:width:height:bytesPerRow:dataWidth:dataHeight:imageDataOffset:imageDataFormat:preheat:] + 299 6 PhotoLibrary 0x000b6c13 __-[PLThumbnailManager preheatImageDataForImages:withFormat:]_block_invoke_1 + 159 7 libSystem.B.dylib 0x000d6680 _dispatch_call_block_and_release + 20 8 libSystem.B.dylib 0x000d6ba0 _dispatch_worker_thread2 + 128 9 libSystem.B.dylib 0x0007b251 _pthread_wqthread + 265

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• Possible to Dynamic Form Generation Using PHP global variables

  - by J M 4

  I am currently a fairly new programmer but am trying to build a registration page for a medical insurance idea we have which captures individual information and subsequent pieces of information about that individual's sub parts. In this case, it is a fight promoter enrolling his 15+ boxers for fight testing services. Right now, I have the site fully laid out to accept 7 fighters worth of information. This is collected during the manager's enrollment. However, each fighter's information is passed and stored in session super globals such as: $_SESSION['F1Firstname']; and $_SESSION['F3SSN3'];. The issue I am running into is this, I want to create a drop down menu selector for the manager to add information for up to 20-30 fighters. Right now I use PHP to state: if ($_SESSION['Num_Fighters'] 6) ... then display the table form fields to collect consumer data. If I have to build hidden elements for 30 fighters AND provide javascript/php validation (yes I am doing both) then I fear the file size for the document will be unnecessarily large for the maanger who only wants to enroll 2 fighters. Can anybody help?

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• How do i set the Transaction Isolation in EJB?

  - by Nitesh Panchal

  Hello, I am not able to find a way to set TransactionIsolation in ejb. Can anybody tell me how do i set it? I am using persistence. I have looked the following classes : EntityManager , EntityManagerFactory, UserTransaction. None of them seems to have any method like setTransactionIsolation or such. Do we need to change persistence.xml? I just read a book named Mastering EJB 3.0 4th edition. They gave a full 10 page theory about Isolation level that this problems occur and that occurs and such things but at the end they gave this paragraph :- "As we now know, the EJB standard does not deal with isolation levels directly, and rightly so. EJB is a component specification. It defines the behavior and contracts of a business component with clients and middleware infrastructure (containers) such that the component can be rendered as various middleware services properly. EJBs therefore are transactional components that interact with resource managers, such as the JDBC resource manager or JMS resource manager, via JTS, as part of a transaction. They are not, hence, resource components in themselves. Since isolation levels are very specific to the behavior and capabilities of the underlying resources, they should therefore be specified at the resource API levels. " What exactly does it mean? What is meant by resource level APIs? Please help me. If persistence has no way to set Isolation Level then why do they give such huge theory in an EJB book and make it heavy in weight unnecessarily :(

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• Resource placement (optimal strategy)

  - by blackened

  I know that this is not exactly the right place to ask this question, but maybe a wise guy comes across and has the solution. I'm trying to write a computer game and I need an algorithm to solve this question: The game is played between 2 players. Each side has 1.000 dollars. There are three "boxes" and each player writes down the amount of money he is going to place into those boxes. Then these amounts are compared. Whoever placed more money in a box scores 1 point (if draw half point each). Whoever scores more points wins his opponents 1.000 dollars. Example game: Player A: [500, 500, 0] Player B: [333, 333, 334] Player A wins because he won Box A and Box B (but lost Box C). Question: What is the optimal strategy to place the money? I have more questions to ask (algorithm related, not math related) but I need to know the answer to this one first. Update (1): After some more research I've learned that these type of problems/games are called Colonel Blotto Games. I did my best and found few (highly technical) documents on the subject. Cutting it short, the problem I have (as described above) is called simple Blotto Game (only three battlefields with symmetric resources). The difficult ones are the ones with, say, 10+ battle fields with non-symmetric resources. All the documents I've read say that the simple Blotto game is easy to solve. The thing is, none of them actually say what that "easy" solution is.

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• How to iterate JPA collections in Google App engine

  - by palto

  Hi I use Google App Engine with datanucleus and JPA. I'm having a real hard time grasping how I'm supposed to read stuff from data store and pass it to JSP. If I load a list of POJOs with entitymanager and pass it to JSP, it crashes to org.datanucleus.exceptions.NucleusUserException: Object Manager has been closed. I understand why this is happening. Obviously because I fetch the list, close the entity manager and pass it to JSP, at which point it will fail because the list is lazy. How do I make the list NOT lazy without resorting to hacks like calling size() or something like that? Here is what I'm trying to do: @Override protected void doGet(HttpServletRequest req, HttpServletResponse resp) throws ServletException, IOException { req.setAttribute("parties", getParties()); RequestDispatcher dispatcher = getServletContext().getRequestDispatcher("/WEB-INF/parties.jsp"); dispatcher.forward(req, resp); } private List<Party> getParties(){ EntityManager em = entityManagerProvider.get(); try{ Query query = em.createQuery("SELECT p FROM Party p"); return query.getResultList(); }finally{ em.close(); } }

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