Search Results

Search found 12222 results on 489 pages for 'initial context'.

Page 362/489 | < Previous Page | 358 359 360 361 362 363 364 365 366 367 368 369  | Next Page >

  • error invoking store procedure with input parameter from ADO.Net

    - by George2
    Hello everyone, I am using VSTS 2008 + C# + .Net 3.5 + ADO.Net. Here is my code and related error message. The error message says, @Param1 is not supplied, but actually it is supplied in my code. Any ideas what is wrong? System.Data.SqlClient.SqlException: Procedure or function 'Pr_Foo' expects parameter '@Param1', which was not supplied. class Program { private static SqlCommand _command; private static SqlConnection connection; private static readonly string _storedProcedureName = "Pr_Foo"; private static readonly string connectionString = "server=.;integrated Security=sspi;initial catalog=FooDB"; public static void Prepare() { connection = new SqlConnection(connectionString); connection.Open(); _command = connection.CreateCommand(); _command.CommandText = _storedProcedureName; _command.CommandType = CommandType.StoredProcedure; } public static void Dispose() { connection.Close(); } public static void Run() { try { SqlParameter Param1 = _command.Parameters.Add("@Param1", SqlDbType.Int, 300101); Param1.Direction = ParameterDirection.Input; SqlParameter Param2 = _command.Parameters.Add("@Param2", SqlDbType.Int, 100); portal_SiteInfoID.Direction = ParameterDirection.Input; SqlParameter Param3 = _command.Parameters.Add("@Param3", SqlDbType.Int, 200); portal_RoleInfoID.Direction = ParameterDirection.Input; _command.ExecuteScalar(); } catch (Exception e) { Console.WriteLine(e); } } static void Main(string[] args) { try { Prepare(); Thread t1 = new Thread(Program.Run); t1.Start(); t1.Join(); Dispose(); } catch (Exception ex) { Console.WriteLine(ex.Message + "\t" + ex.StackTrace); } } } thanks in avdance, George

    Read the article

  • Impersonate SYSTEM (or equivalent) from Administrator Account

    - by KevenK
    This question is a follow up and continuation of this question about a Privilege problem I'm dealing with currently. Problem Summary: I'm running a program under a Domain Administrator account that does not have Debug programs (SeDebugPrivilege) privilege, but I need it on the local machine. Klugey Solution: The program can install itself as a service on the local machine, and start the service. Said service now runs under the SYSTEM account, which enables us to use our SeTCBPrivilege privilege to create a new access token which does have SeDebugPrivilege. We can then use the newly created token to re-launch the initial program with the elevated rights. I personally do not like this solution. I feel it should be possible to acquire the necessary privileges as an Administrator without having to make system modifications such as installing a service (even if it is only temporary). I am hoping that there is a solution that minimizes system modifications and can preferably be done on the fly (ie: Not require restarting itself). I have unsuccessfully tried to LogonUser as SYSTEM and tried to OpenProcessToken on a known SYSTEM process (such as csrss.exe) (which fails, because you cannot OpenProcess with PROCESS_TOKEN_QUERY to get a handle to the process without the privileges I'm trying to acquire). I'm just at my wit's end trying to come up with an alternative solution to this problem. I was hoping there was an easy way to grab a privileged token on the host machine and impersonate it for this program, but I haven't found a way. If anyone knows of a way around this, or even has suggestions on things that might work, please let me know. I really appreciate the help, thanks!

    Read the article

  • How to copy generically superclass instances to subclass instances?

    - by gerry
    Hi @all, I have a class hierarchy / inheritance like this: public class A { private String name; // with getters & setters public void doAWithName(){ ... } } public class B extends A { public void doBWithName(){ // a differnt implementation to what I do in class A } } public class C extends B { public void doCWithName(){ // a differnt implementation to what I do in class A and B } } So at one time there is a instance of class A with the initialized field "name". Later I want this instance of A get wrapped into instance of B or C. So the superclasses should be get wrapped with a subclass! How can I make this most efficent with respect to DRY? I've thought about a constructor that does some copying with the getters/setters. But in this case I have to repeat myself - and this doesn't respect anymore to my initial requirement of DRY! So, how can I warp A to B by just initializing B's new fields (with default values) and delegating the rest to a method in A (which knows more than B about which fields of A should be accessed...). In the same way: If A should be wrapped into C only a method in c should init C's 'new' fields, delegate to B's wrap method (which therefore inits B's 'new' fields in C) and at last B delegates to A which copies it's fields to the fields of C). So in the end I have a new instance of C which has the values of A wrapped (and some default init values to the fields which the inheritance hierarchy has added).

    Read the article

  • Bizarre Bug with our Rails app in IE

    - by Callmeed
    We're experiencing a really bizarre bug in our Rails 2.3.4 app. This bug only happens in Internet Explorer (7 and 8). Here's what happens: A new customer creates an account at https://domain.com/signup/free (notice no subdomain) Their account is identified by a subdomain like "example.domain.com" After signing up, they get a welcome screen with a link to their account's home page They follow the link, then click the "log in" button and attempt to login Even though they provide valid credentials, the app redirects back to their account's root url ... they can never reach their admin area The only way they can login (on IE) is by quitting and re-opening IE ... then it works fine ... Something with their initial session is preventing them from logging in. If it matters, we are using restful_authentication and the ssl_requirement plugin ... I'm not sure if one or both of those has a problem with IE but we are stumped here. Also, I've read IE has an issue with subdomains that contain underscores ... this isn't what's going on.

    Read the article

  • RetinaJS and LESS : Background image doesn't show on iOS

    - by jidma
    I am trying to make a background image into a retina image using LESS CSS and RetinaJs: in my index.html file : <html> <head> <meta http-equiv="content-type" content="text/html; charset=UTF-8"> <meta name="viewport" content="width=device-width, initial-scale=1.0, user-scalable=0, minimum-scale=1.0, maximum-scale=1.0"> <meta name="apple-mobile-web-app-capable" content="yes"> <meta name="apple-mobile-web-app-status-bar-style" content="black"> [...] <link type="text/css" rel="stylesheet/less" href="resources/css/retina.less"> <script type="text/javascript" src="resources/js/less-1.3.0.minjs" ></script> [...] </head> <body> [...] <script type="text/javascript" src="resources/js/retina.js"></script> </body> </html> in my retina.less file: .at2x(@path, @w: auto, @h: auto) { background-image: url("@{path}"); @at2x_path: ~`"@{path}".split('.').slice(0, "@{path}".split('.').length - 1).join(".") + "@2x" + "." + "@{path}".split('.')["@{path}".split('.').length - 1]`; @media all and (-webkit-min-device-pixel-ratio : 1.5) { background-image: url("@{at2x_path}"); background-size: @w @h; } } .topMenu { .at2x('../../resources/img/topMenuTitle.png'); } I have both topMenuTitle.png (320px x 40px) and [email protected] (640px x 80px) in the same folder. When test this code: In Firefox i have the normal Background In the XCode iPhone simulator I also have the normal Background In the iPhone device, I don't have any background at all. I'm using GWT if that matters. Any suggestions ? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Full Text Search like Google

    - by Eduardo
    I would like to implement full-text-search in my off-line (android) application to search the user generated list of notes. I would like it to behave just like Google (since most people are already used to querying to Google) My initial requirements are: Fast: like Google or as fast as possible, having 100000 documents with 200 hundred words each. Searching for two words should only return documents that contain both words (not just one word) (unless the OR operator is used) Case insensitive (aka: normalization): If I have the word 'Hello' and I search for 'hello' it should match. Diacritical mark insensitive: If I have the word 'así' a search for 'asi' should match. In Spanish, many people, incorrectly, either do not put diacritical marks or fail in correctly putting them. Stop word elimination: To not have a huge index meaningless words like 'and', 'the' or 'for' should not be indexed at all. Dictionary substitution (aka: stem words): Similar words should be indexed as one. For example, instances of 'hungrily' and 'hungry' should be replaced with 'hunger'. Phrase search: If I have the text 'Hello world!' a search of '"world hello"' should not match it but a search of '"hello world"' should match. Search all fields (in multifield documents) if no field specified (not just a default field) Auto-completion in search results while typing to give popular searches. (just like Google Suggest) How may I configure a full-text-search engine to behave as much as possible as Google? (I am mostly interested in Open Source, Java and in particular Lucene)

    Read the article

  • Making a table in a scrolling div resizable?

    - by Mason Jones
    I've got a table in a div, with a vertical scrollbar on the div to allow the table to be longer than the div can hold. Works fine. But I'd like to allow the user to resize the div vertically if they want to be able to view more of the table. I've been playing with the jQueryUI resizable interaction, but it doesn't seem to quite do what I want; at least, not so far. I've tried making the wrapper div resizable, but the behavior's erratic. If I have the style "height:20em; overflow:auto;" on it, then I can resize the table horizontally, but not vertically. If I remove the overflow, then the table flows outside the div of course. If I remove the height, then the table is actually resizable, but it is initially drawn at full height. Anyone know of a way to specify an initial height, but allow it to be resized larger than that? If I make the table resizable rather than the div, then I can resize the table horizontally within the div but I can't increase the height of the displayed table. Which makes sense, of course, but I thought I'd mention it. Also, is there a way to make the resize "handle" the corner between the horizontal and vertical scrollbars? Right now it's a sort of invisible handle in the bottom-right of the table. Thanks for any thoughts.

    Read the article

  • MinGW-gcc PCH not speeding up wxWidget build times. Is my setup correct?

    - by Victor T.
    Hi all, I've been building wxMSW 2.8.11 with the latest stable release of mingw-gcc 4.5.1 and I'm trying to see if the build could be sped up using precompiled headers. My initial attempts at this doesn't seem to work. I basically followed the given instructions here. I created a wxprec.h precompiled header with the following: g++ -O2 -mthreads -DHAVE_W32API_H -D__WXMSW__ -DNDEBUG -D_UNICODE -I..\..\lib\gcc_dll\mswu -I..\..\include -W -Wall -DWXBUILDING -I..\.. \src\tiff -I..\..\src\jpeg -I..\..\src\png -I..\..\src\zlib -I..\..\src \regex -I..\..\src\expat\lib -DwxUSE_BASE=1 -DWXMAKINGDLL -Wno-ctor- dtor-privacy ../../include/wx/wxprec.h That does successfully create a wxprec.h.gch that's about ~1.6meg in size. Now I proceed to build wxmsw using the follow make command from cmd.exe shell: mingw32-make -f makefile.gcc While, the build does succeed I noticed no speedup whatsoever then if pch wasn't used. To make sure gcc was actually using the pch I added -H in the config.gcc and did another rebuild. Indeed, the outputted include list does show a '!' next to the wxprec.h so gcc is supposely using it. What's the reason for pch not working? Did I setup the precompiled headers correctly or am I missing a step? Just for reference comparison, here's the compile times I get when building wxmsw 2.8.11 with the other compilers(visual studio 2010 and C++ Builder 2007). The time savings is pretty significant. | | release, pch | release, nopch | debug, nopch ------------------------------------------------------- | gcc451 | 8min 33sec | 8min 17sec | 8min 49sec | msc_1600 | 2min 23sec | 13min 11sec | -- | bcc593 | 0min 59sec | 2min 29sec | -- Thanks

    Read the article

  • FragmentActivity cannot be resolve to a type

    - by Pratik
    I am starting learning for android tablet programming and I am able to updated my Eclipse as well as all new sdk for android. I have start testing application from this blog while at extending the FragmentActivity getting this error I have google it but not getting any solution. My project was created with 3.0 version having 11 level, all other packages are successfully used in the code but only this FragmentActivity was not able to resolve. Am I missing any library or any thing? My code public class Testing_newActivity extends FragmentActivity { // here the FragmentActivity getting error package not found for import /** Called when the activity is first created. */ @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); //setContentView(R.layout.main); if (getResources().getConfiguration().orientation == Configuration.ORIENTATION_LANDSCAPE) { // If the screen is now in landscape mode, we can show the // dialog in-line so we don't need this activity. finish(); return; } if (savedInstanceState == null) { // During initial setup, plug in the details fragment. DetailsFragment details = new DetailsFragment(); details.setArguments(getIntent().getExtras()); getSupportFragmentManager().beginTransaction().add( android.R.id.content, details).commit(); } } } android manifest file <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <manifest xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" package="com.searce.testingnew" android:versionCode="1" android:versionName="1.0" > <uses-sdk android:minSdkVersion="11" /> <application android:icon="@drawable/ic_launcher" android:label="@string/app_name" > <activity android:label="@string/app_name" android:name=".Testing_newActivity" > <intent-filter > <action android:name="android.intent.action.MAIN" /> <category android:name="android.intent.category.LAUNCHER" /> </intent-filter> </activity> </application> </manifest>

    Read the article

  • Is there a way to force ContourPlot re-check all the points on the each stage of it's recursion algorithm?

    - by Alexey Popkov
    Hello, Thanks to this excellent analysis of the Plot algorithm by Yaroslav Bulatov, I now understand the reason why Plot3D and ContourPlot fail to draw smoothly functions with breaks and discontinuities. For example, in the following case ContourPlot fails to draw contour x^2 + y^2 = 1 at all: ContourPlot[Abs[x^2 + y^2 - 1], {x, -1, 1}, {y, -1, 1}, Contours -> {0}] It is because the algorithm does not go deeply into the region near x^2 + y^2 = 1. It "drops" this region on an initial stage and do not tries to investigate it further. Increasing MaxRecursion does nothing in this sense. And even undocumented option Method -> {Refinement -> {ControlValue -> .01 \[Degree]}} does not help (but makes Plot3D a little bit smoother). The above function is just a simple example. In real life I'm working with very complicated implicit functions that cannot be solved analytically. Is there a way to get ContourPlot to go deeply into such regions near breaks and discontinuities?

    Read the article

  • im unable to validate a login of users ,since if im entering the wrong values my datareader is not getting executed y ?

    - by Salman_Khan
    //code private void glassButton1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (textBox1.Text == "" || textBox1.Text == "" || comboBox1.SelectedIndex == 0) { Message m = new Message(); m.ShowDialog(); } else { try { con.ConnectionString = "Data source=BLACK-PEARL;Initial Catalog=LIFELINE ;User id =sa; password=143"; con.Open(); SqlCommand cmd = new SqlCommand("Select LoginID,Password,Department from Login where LoginID=@loginID and Password=@Password and Department=@Department", con); cmd.Parameters.Add(new SqlParameter("@loginID", textBox1.Text)); cmd.Parameters.Add(new SqlParameter("@Password", textBox2.Text)); cmd.Parameters.Add(new SqlParameter("@Department", comboBox1.Text)); SqlDataReader dr = cmd.ExecuteReader(); if (dr.Read()) { string Strname = dr[0].ToString(); string StrPass = dr[1].ToString(); string StrDept = dr[2].ToString(); if(dr[2].ToString().Equals(comboBox1.Text)&&dr[0].ToString().Equals(textBox1.Text)&&dr[1].ToString().Equals(textBox2.Text)) { MessageBox.Show("Welcome"); } else { MessageBox.Show("Please Enter correct details"); } } dr.Close(); } catch (Exception ex) { MessageBox.Show("Exception" + ex); } finally { con.Close(); } } }

    Read the article

  • AppFabric caching's local cache isnt working for us... What are we doing wrong?

    - by Olly
    We are using appfabric as the 2ndlevel cache for an NHibernate asp.net application comprising a customer facing website and an admin website. They are both connected to the same cache so when admin updates something, the customer facing site is updated. It seems to be working OK - we have a CacheCLuster on a seperate server and all is well but we want to enable localcache to get better performance, however, it dosnt seem to be working. We have enabled it like this... bool UseLocalCache = int LocalCacheObjectCount = int.MaxValue; TimeSpan LocalCacheDefaultTimeout = TimeSpan.FromMinutes(3); DataCacheLocalCacheInvalidationPolicy LocalCacheInvalidationPolicy = DataCacheLocalCacheInvalidationPolicy.TimeoutBased; if (UseLocalCache) { configuration.LocalCacheProperties = new DataCacheLocalCacheProperties( LocalCacheObjectCount, LocalCacheDefaultTimeout, LocalCacheInvalidationPolicy ); // configuration.NotificationProperties = new DataCacheNotificationProperties(500, TimeSpan.FromSeconds(300)); } Initially we tried using a timeout invalidation policy (3mins) and our app felt like it was running faster. HOWEVER, we noticed that if we changed something in the admin site, it was immediatley updated in the live site. As we are using timeouts not notifications, this demonstrates that the local cache isnt being queried (or is, but is always missing). The cache.GetType().Name returns "LocalCache" - so the factory has made a local cache. Running "Get-Cache-Statistics MyCache" in PS on my dev environment (asp.net app running local from vs2008, cache cluster running on a seperate w2k8 machine) show a handful of Request Counts. However, on the Production environment, the Request Count increases dramaticaly. We tried following the method here to se the cache cliebt-server traffic... http://blogs.msdn.com/b/appfabriccat/archive/2010/09/20/appfabric-cache-peeking-into-client-amp-server-wcf-communication.aspx but the log file had nothing but the initial header in it - i.e no loggin either. I cant find anything in SO or Google. Have we done something wrong? Have we got a screwy install of AppFabric - we installed it via WebPlatform Installer - I think? (note: the IIS box running ASp.net isnt in yhe cluster - it is just the client). Any insights greatfully received!

    Read the article

  • Database localization

    - by Don
    Hi, I have a number of database tables that contain name and description columns which need to be localized. My initial attempt at designing a DB schema that would support this was something like: product ------- id name description local_product ------- id product_id local_name local_description locale_id locale ------ id locale However, this solution requires a new local_ table for every table that contains name and description columns that require localization. In an attempt to avoid this overhead I redesigned the schema so that only a single localization table is needed product ------- id localization_id localization ------- id local_name local_description locale_id locale ------ id locale Here's an example of the data which would be stored in this schema when there are 2 tables (product and country) requiring localization: country id, localization_id ----------------------- 1, 5 product id, localization_id ----------------------- 1, 2 localization id, local_name, local_description, locale_id ------------------------------------------------------ 2, apple, a delicious fruit, 2 2, pomme, un fruit délicieux, 3 2, apfel, ein köstliches Obst, 4 5, ireland, a small country, 2 5, irlande, un petite pay, 3 locale id, locale -------------- 2, en 3, fr 4, de Notice that the compound primary key of the localization table is (id, locale_id), but the foreign key in the product table only refers to the first element of this compound PK. This seems like 'a bad thing' from the POV of normalization. Is there any way I can fix this problem, or alternatively, is there a completely different schema that supports localization without creating a separate table for each localizable table? Update: A number of respondents have proposed a solution that requires creating a separate table for each localizable table. However, this is precisely what I'm trying to avoid. The schema I've proposed above almost solves the problem to my satisfaction, but I'm unhappy about the fact that the localization_id foreign keys only refer to part of the corresponding primary key in the localization table. Thanks, Don

    Read the article

  • How can I improve the performance of LinqToSql queries that use EntitySet properties?

    - by DanM
    I'm using LinqToSql to query a small, simple SQL Server CE database. I've noticed that any operations involving sub-properties are disappointingly slow. For example, if I have a Customer table that is referenced by an Order table, LinqToSql will automatically create an EntitySet<Order> property. This is a nice convenience, allowing me to do things like Customer.Order.Where(o => o.ProductName = "Stopwatch"), but for some reason, SQL Server CE hangs up pretty bad when I try to do stuff like this. One of my queries, which isn't really that complicated takes 3-4 seconds to complete. I can get the speed up to acceptable, even fast, if I just grab the two tables individually and convert them to List<Customer> and List<Order>, then join then manually with my own query, but this is throwing out a lot of what makes LinqToSql so appealing. So, I'm wondering if I can somehow get the whole database into RAM and just query that way, then occasionally save it. Is this possible? How? If not, is there anything else I can do to boost the performance besides resorting to doing all the joins manually? Note: My database in its initial state is about 250K and I don't expect it to grow to more than 1-2Mb. So, loading the data into RAM certainly wouldn't be a problem from a memory point of view. Update Here are the table definitions for the example I used in my question: create table Order ( Id int identity(1, 1) primary key, ProductName ntext null ) create table Customer ( Id int identity(1, 1) primary key, OrderId int null references Order (Id) )

    Read the article

  • WPF - How do I use the UserControl with a dependency property and view model?

    - by user320849
    Hello, My goal is to have a user select a year and a month. Translate the selection into a date and have the user control send the date back to my view model. That part works for me....However, I cannot get the ViewModel's initial date to set those drop downs. public static readonly DependencyProperty Date = DependencyProperty.Register("ReturnDate", typeof(DateTime), typeof(DatePicker), new FrameworkPropertyMetadata{BindsTwoWayByDefault = true,}); public DateTime ReturnDate { get { return Convert.ToDateTime(GetValue(Date)); } set { SetDropDowns(value); SetValue(Date, value); } } The SetDropDowns(value) just sets the selected items on the combo boxes, however, the program never makes it to that method. On the view I am using: <cc1:DatePicker ReturnDate="{Binding Path=StartDate, Mode=TwoWay}" IsStart="True" /> If this has been answered, then my bad. I looked around and didn't see anything that worked for me. Thus, when the program loads how do I get the value from the view model to a method in order to set the combo boxes? Thanks, -Scott

    Read the article

  • Object reference not set to an instance of an object

    - by MBTHQ
    Can anyone help with the following code? I'm trying to get data from the database colum to the datagridview... I'm getting error over here "Dim sql_1 As String = "SELECT * FROM item where item_id = '" + DataGridView_stockout.CurrentCell.Value.ToString() + "'"" Private Sub DataGridView_stockout_CellMouseClick(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.Windows.Forms.DataGridViewCellMouseEventArgs) Handles DataGridView_stockout.CellMouseClick Dim i As Integer = Stock_checkDataSet1.Tables(0).Rows.Count > 0 Dim thiscur_stok As New System.Data.SqlClient.SqlConnection("Data Source=MBTHQ\SQLEXPRESS;Initial Catalog=stock_check;Integrated Security=True") ' Sql Query Dim sql_1 As String = "SELECT * FROM item where item_id = '" + DataGridView_stockout.CurrentCell.Value.ToString() + "'" ' Create Data Adapter Dim da_1 As New SqlDataAdapter(sql_1, thiscur_stok) ' Fill Dataset and Get Data Table da_1.Fill(Stock_checkDataSet1, "item") Dim dt_1 As DataTable = Stock_checkDataSet1.Tables("item") If i >= DataGridView_stockout.Rows.Count Then 'MessageBox.Show("Sorry, DataGridView_stockout doesn't any row at index " & i.ToString()) Exit Sub End If If 1 >= Stock_checkDataSet1.Tables.Count Then 'MessageBox.Show("Sorry, Stock_checkDataSet1 doesn't any table at index 1") Exit Sub End If If i >= Stock_checkDataSet1.Tables(1).Rows.Count Then 'MessageBox.Show("Sorry, Stock_checkDataSet1.Tables(1) doesn't any row at index " & i.ToString()) Exit Sub End If If Not Stock_checkDataSet1.Tables(1).Columns.Contains("os") Then 'MessageBox.Show("Sorry, Stock_checkDataSet1.Tables(1) doesn't any column named 'os'") Exit Sub End If 'DataGridView_stockout.Item("cs_stockout", i).Value = Stock_checkDataSet1.Tables(0).Rows(i).Item("os") Dim ab As String = Stock_checkDataSet1.Tables(0).Rows(i)(0).ToString() End Sub I keep on getting the error saying "Object reference not set to an instance of an object" I dont know where I'm going wrong. Help really appreciated!!

    Read the article

  • How do I make JPA POJO classes + Netbeans forms play well together?

    - by Zak
    I started using netbeans to design forms to edit the instances of various classes I have made in a small app I am writing. Basically, the app starts, an initial set of objects is selected from the DB and presented in a list, then an item in the list can be selected for editing. When the editor comes up it has form fields for many of the data fields in the class. The problem I run into is that I have to create a controller that maps each of the data elements to the correct form element, and create an inordinate number of small conversion mapping lines of code to convert numbers into strings and set the correct element in a dropdown, then another inordinate amount of code to go back and update the underlying object with all the values from the form when the save button is clicked. My question is; is there a more directly way to make the editing of the form directly modify the contents of my class instance? I would like to be able to have a default mapping "controller" that I can configure, then override the getter/setter for a particular field if needed. Ideally, there would be standard field validation for things like phone numbers, integers, floats, zip codes, etc... I'm not averse to writing this myself, I would just like to see if it is already out there and use the right tool for the right job.

    Read the article

  • Way to store a large dictionary with low memory footprint + fast lookups (on Android)

    - by BobbyJim
    I'm developing an android word game app that needs a large (~250,000 word dictionary) available. I need: reasonably fast look ups e.g. constant time preferable, need to do maybe 200 lookups a second on occasion to solve a word puzzle and maybe 20 lookups within 0.2 second more often to check words the user just spelled. EDIT: Lookups are typically asking "Is in the dictionary?". I'd like to support up to two wildcards in the word as well, but this is easy enough by just generating all possible letters the wildcards could have been and checking the generated words (i.e. 26 * 26 lookups for a word with two wildcards). as it's a mobile app, using as little memory as possible and requiring only a small initial download for the dictionary data is top priority. My first naive attempts used Java's HashMap class, which caused an out of memory exception. I've looked into using the SQL lite databases available on android, but this seems like overkill. What's a good way to do what I need?

    Read the article

  • Efficiently Serving Dynamic Content in Google App Engine

    - by awegawef
    My app on google app engine returns content items (just text) and comments on them. It works like this (pseudo-ish code): query: get keys of latest content #query to datastore for each item in content if item_dict in memcache: use item_dict else: build_item_dict(item) #by fetching from datastore store item_dict in memcache send all item_dicts to template Sorry if the code isn't understandable. I get all of the content dictionaries and send them to the template, which uses them to create the webpage. My problem is that if the memcache has expired, for each item I want to display, I have to (1) lookup item in memcache, (2) since no memcache exists I must fetch item from the datastore, and (3) store the item in memcache. These calls build up quickly. I don't set an expire time for the entries to the memcache, so this really only happens once in the morning, but the webpage takes long enough to load (~1 sec) that the browser reports it as not existing. Regularly, my webpages take about 50ms to load. This approach works decently for frequent visits, but it has its flaws as shown above. How can I remedy this? The entries are dynamic enough that I don't think it would be in my best interest to cache my initial request. Thanks in advance

    Read the article

  • How do I connect to SQL Server with VB?

    - by Wayne Werner
    Hi, I'm trying to connect to a SQL server from VB. The SQL server is across the network uses my windows login for authentication. I can access the server using the following python code: import odbc conn = odbc.odbc('SignInspection') c = conn.cursor() c.execute("SELECT * FROM list_domain") c.fetchone() This code works fine, returning the first result of the SELECT. However, I've been trying to use the SqlClient.SqlConnection in VB, and it fails to connect. I've tried several different connection strings but this is the current code: Private Sub Button1_Click(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles Button1.Click Dim conn As New SqlClient.SqlConnection conn.ConnectionString = "data source=signinspection;initial catalog=signinspection;integrated security=SSPI" Try conn.Open() MessageBox.Show("Sweet Success") 'Insert some code here, woo Catch ex As Exception MessageBox.Show("Failed to connect to data source.") MessageBox.Show(ex.ToString()) Finally conn.Close() End Try End Sub It fails miserably, and it gives me an error that says "A network-related or instance-specific error occurred... (provider: Named Pipes Provider, error: 40 - Could not open a connection to SQL Server) I'm fairly certain it's my connection string, but nothing I've found has given me any solid examples (server=mySQLServer is not a solid example) of what I need to use. Thanks! -Wayne

    Read the article

  • Where do I attach the StoreKit delegate and observer in a Cocos2d App?

    - by Jeff B
    I have figured out how all of the StoreKit stuff works and have actually tested working code... however, I have a problem. I made my "store" layer/scene the SKProductsRequestDelegate. Is this the correct thing to do? I get the initial product info like so: SKProductsRequest *productRequest = [[SKProductsRequest alloc] initWithProductIdentifiers: productIDs]; [productRequest setDelegate: self]; [productRequest start]; The problem is that if I transition to a new scene when a request is in progress, the current layer is retained by the productRequest. This means that touches on my new scene/layer are handled by both the new layer and the old layer. I could cancel the productRequest when leaving the scene, but: I do not know if it is in progress at that point. I cannot release it because it may or may not have been released by the request delegates. There has got to be a better way to do this. I could make the delegate a class external to the current layer, but then I do not know how to easily update the layer with the product information when the handler is called.

    Read the article

  • What is the proper way to use a Logger in a Serializable Java class?

    - by Tim Visher
    I have the following (doctored) class in a system I'm working on and Findbugs is generating a SE_BAD_FIELD warning and I'm trying to understand why it would say that before I fix it in the way that I thought I would. The reason I'm confused is because the description would seem to indicate that I had used no other non-serializable instance fields in the class but bar.model.Foo is also not serializable and used in the exact same way (as far as I can tell) but Findbugs generates no warning for it. import bar.model.Foo; import java.io.File; import java.io.Serializable; import java.util.List; import org.slf4j.Logger; import org.slf4j.LoggerFactory; public class Demo implements Serializable { private final Logger logger = LoggerFactory.getLogger(this.getClass()); private final File file; private final List<Foo> originalFoos; private Integer count; private int primitive = 0; public Demo() { for (Foo foo : originalFoos) { this.logger.debug(...); } } ... } My initial blush at a solution is to get a logger reference from the factory right as I use it: public DispositionFile() { Logger logger = LoggerFactory.getLogger(this.getClass()); for (Foo foo : originalFoos) { this.logger.debug(...); } } That doesn't seem particularly efficient, though. Thoughts?

    Read the article

  • How can I remove a JPanel from a JFrame?

    - by Roman
    Recently I asked here how to add a new JPanel to JFrame. The answer helped me to get a working code. But not I have a related question: "How can I remove an old JPanel". I need that because of the following problem. A new JPanel appears appears when I want (either time limit is exceeded or user press the "Submit" button). But in several seconds some element of the old JPanel appears together with the component of the new JPanel. I do not understand why it happens. I thought that it is because I have to other threads which update the window. But the first thread just add the old panel once (so, it should be finished). And in the second thread I have a loop which is broken (so, it also should be finished). Here is my code: private Thread controller = new Thread() { public void run() { // First we set the initial pane (for the selection of partner). SwingUtilities.invokeLater(new Runnable() { public void run() { frame.getContentPane().add(generatePartnerSelectionPanel()); frame.invalidate(); frame.validate(); } }); // Update the pane for the selection of the parnter. for (int i=40; i>0; i=i-1) { final int sec = i; SwingUtilities.invokeLater(new Runnable() { public void run() { timeLeftLabel.setText(sec + " seconds left."); } }); try {Thread.sleep(1000);} catch (InterruptedException e) {} if (partnerSubmitted) {break;} } // For the given user the selection phase is finished (either the time is over or form was submitted). SwingUtilities.invokeLater(new Runnable() { public void run() { frame.getContentPane().add(generateWaitForGamePanel()); frame.invalidate(); frame.validate(); } }); } };

    Read the article

  • Javascript Getting Objects to Fallback to One Another

    - by Ian
    Here's a ugly bit of Javascript it would be nice to find a workaround. Javascript has no classes, and that is a good thing. But it implements fallback between objects in a rather ugly way. The foundational construct should be to have one object that, when a property fails to be found, it falls back to another object. So if we want a to fall back to b we would want to do something like: a = {sun:1}; b = {dock:2}; a.__fallback__ = b; then a.dock == 2; But, Javascript instead provides a new operator and prototypes. So we do the far less elegant: function A(sun) { this.sun = sun; }; A.prototype.dock = 2; a = new A(1); a.dock == 2; But aside from elegance, this is also strictly less powerful, because it means that anything created with A gets the same fallback object. What I would like to do is liberate Javascript from this artificial limitation and have the ability to give any individual object any other individual object as its fallback. That way I could keep the current behavior when it makes sense, but use object-level inheritance when that makes sense. My initial approach is to create a dummy constructor function: function setFallback(from_obj, to_obj) { from_obj.constructor = function () {}; from_obj.constructor.prototype = to_obj; } a = {sun:1}; b = {dock:2}; setFallback(a, b); But unfortunately: a.dock == undefined; Any ideas why this doesn't work, or any solutions for an implementation of setFallback? (I'm running on V8, via node.js, in case this is platform dependent)

    Read the article

  • Javascript "Match" Function Not Returning Proper Results in Safari or IE (but yes in FF)

    - by Jascha
    Forgive me as this is a time sensitive issue and I will have to switch the site back in a few hours so the link will be bad... but: I am simply comparing two strings looking for a match with this function... I have an array of objects called linkArray and I need to match the .src of each object to a .src I send it (the src of the clicked image). if the the src of the image I clicked matches the src of an object in my array, I set a variable to the link string of that object and return true, letting my page know that the link is available. Now, this works great in FF. But not in any other browser and I can't figure out for the life of me why. I have set up a dialogue box to literally compare, by eye, the two strings that should at the very least throw the message "match". Can anyone see what I am missing here??? here is the link... http://7thart.com/Jewish-History-and-Culture/Jews-and-Baseball-An-American-Love-Story If you click any of the thumbnails on the left, you will activate the function. Again, I apologize as after a few hours I have to switch back to the original site and this link will be invalid. Thanks in advance for your help. (function below)... function matchLink(a){ for(var i=0;i<linkArray.length;i++){ var fixLink = '../' + linkArray[i]['src']; alert(fixLink + '\n = \n' + a); if(fixLink == a){ alert('match'); newLink = linkArray[i]['link']; return true; } } return false; } Note: The "match" will return on two of the images.. the initial image, and the first thumbnail on the left. The second thumbnail SHOULD match, and the third one SHOULD NOT match.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 358 359 360 361 362 363 364 365 366 367 368 369  | Next Page >