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• Legacy application creates dialogs in non-ui thread.

  - by Frater

  I've been working support for a while on a legacy application and I've noticed a bit of a problem. The system is an incredibly complex client/server with standard and custom frameworks. One of the custom frameworks built into the application involves validating workflow actions. It finds potential errors, separates them into warnings and errors, and passes the results back to the client. The main difference between warnings and errors is that warnings ask the user if they wish to ignore the error. The issue I have is that the dialog for this prompt is created on a non-ui thread, and thus we get cross-threading issues when the dialog is shown. I have attempted to invoke the showing of the dialog, however this fails because the window handle has not been created. (InvokeRequired returns false, which I assume in this case means it cannot find a decent handle in its parent tree, rather than that it doesn't require it.) Does anyone have any suggestions for how I can create this dialog and get the UI thread to set it up and call it?

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• Google Maps Controls panel size is displayed wrong

  - by Andrea Giachetto

  I have a weird problem with Google Maps Control. I've tested in a blank page my custom maps with custom markers and everything seems to be ok, also with the control panel. When I tried to import all my code in the page I'm working with ( I use a full screen fluid grid system ) the control panel is displayed with strange size. I tried everything for disable/enable the ui of the Google Maps but the problem remain. The code of my maps are exactly the same, both in my blank page and in my site, but in the site the ui control panel is displayed very strange. Here's the code: <div id="map_canvas2" style="height: 580px; width: 100%;"></div> <script> var image = 'path/to/your/image.png'; var mapOptions = { zoom: 17, center: new google.maps.LatLng(45.499290, 12.621510), mapTypeId: google.maps.MapTypeId.ROADMAP, scrollwheel: false } var map = new google.maps.Map(document.getElementById('map_canvas2'), mapOptions); var myPos = new google.maps.LatLng(45.499290,12.621510); var myMarker = new google.maps.Marker({position: myPos, map: map, icon: 'http://www.factory42.it/jtaca/wordpress/wp-content/uploads/2014/06/pin-map.png' }); </script> </div> Here's an img: http://www.factory42.it/jtaca/wordpress/wp-content/uploads/2014/06/img-maps.png

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• Model binding difficulty

  - by user281180

  I am having a model and I am using ajax.post. I can see that the model binding isn`t being done for the arraylists in my model, though binding done for the properties of int or string type. Why is that so? My code is as below. I have a model with the following properties public class ProjectModel { public int ID { get; set; } public ArrayList Boys= new ArrayList(); } In my view I have $(document).ready(function () { var project = new Object(); var Boys= new Array(); var ID; ....... ID = $('#ID').val(); project.Boys= Boys; ..... $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: '<%=Url.Action("Create","Project") %>', data: JSON.stringify(project), contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", dataType: "html", success: function () { }, error: function (request, status, error) { } }); // My controller [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult Create(ProjectModel project) { try { project.CreateProject(); return RedirectToAction("Index"); } ....

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• Black Magic in Grails Data Binding!?

  - by Tiago Alves

  As described in http://n4.nabble.com/Grails-Data-Binding-for-One-To-Many-Relationships-with-REST-tp1754571p1754571.html i'm trying to automatically bind my REST data. I understand now that for one-to-many associations the map that is required for the data binding must have a list of ids of the many side such as: [propName: propValue, manyAssoc: [1, 2]] However, I'm getting this exception Executing action [save] of controller [com.example.DomainName] caused exception: org.springframework.orm.hibernate3.HibernateSystemException: IllegalArgumentException occurred calling getter of com.example.DomainName.id; nested exception is org.hibernate.PropertyAccessException: IllegalArgumentException occurred calling getter of com.example.DomainName.id However, even weirder is the update action that is generated for the controller. There we have the databinding like this: domainObjectInstance.properties = params['domainObject'] But, and this is the really weird thing, params['domainObject'] is null! It is null because all the domainObject fields are passed directly in the params map itself. If I change the above line to domainObjectInstance.properties = null the domainObject is still updated! Why is this happening and more important, how can I bind my incoming XML automatically if it comes in this format (the problem is the one-to-many associations): <product> <name>Table</name> <brand id="1" /> <categories> <category id="1" /> <category id="2" /> </categories> </product>

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• Using the AutoComplete feature of ComboBox, while limiting values to those in the list?

  - by Schmuli

  In WinForms 2.0, a ComboBox has an Auto-Complete feature, that displays a custom Drop-Down list with only the values that start with the entered text. However, if I want to limit valid values to only those that appear in the ComboBox's list of items, I can do that by setting the DropDownStyle to DropDownList, which stops the user from entering a value. However, now I can't use the Auto-Complete feature, which requires user input. Is there another way to limit input to the list, while still allowing use of the Auto-Complete feature? Note that I have seen some custom solutions for this, but I really like the way the matching Auto-Complete items are displayed in a Drop-Down list, and sorted even though the original list may not be. EDIT: I have thought about just validating the entered value, i.e. testing user input if it is valid in, say, the TextChanged event, or even using the Validating event. The question then is what is the expected behavior? Do I clear their value (an empty value is also invalid), or do I use a default value? Closest matching value? P.s. Is there any other tags that I could add to this question?

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• Using external SOAP service in Workflow service

  - by whirlwin

  I am using the .NET 4 framework and have made a WCF Workflow Service Application. I want to use a SOAP web service (.NET 3.5) I have running in another instance of VS. The only method that is exposed is the following: [WebMethod] public string Reverse(string input) { char[] chars = input.ToCharArray(); Array.Reverse(chars); return new string(chars); } I have used the following steps to add the service in my Workflow: Add Service Reference Provided the WSDL (the operation shows in the Operations box as expected) Clicked OK Build the solution to ensure that the service shows in my toolbox Drag the service from the toolbox into the workflow However, when I look at the properties of the service in the workflow, there is no way to specify the input argument or where to store the result of the invocation of the service. I only have the option of specifying some obscure parameters such as Body:InArgument<ReverseRequestBody and outBody:OutArgument<ReverseResponseBody (none of which are strings). Here is a screenshot depicting the properties of the service in the workflow: My question is therefore: Is it possible at all to use the SOAP service by specifying a string as the input argument (like it is meant to be used), and also assign the result to a workflow variable?

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• Running Sitecore Production Site under a Virtual Directory

  - by danswain

  We are using Sitecore 6 on a Windows Server 2003 (32bit) dev machine. I know it's not recommended for the CMS editing site, but we've been told it is possible to get the front-end Sitecore websites to run from within a virtual directory. Here's the issue: we'd like to achieve what the below poor mans diagram shows. We have a website (.net 1.1) /WebSiteRoot (.net 1.1) | | |---- Custom .net 1.1 Web Application | |---- SiteCore frontend WebApplication (.net 2.0) | |---- Custom .net 2.0 WebApplication The Sitecore webApplication would contain the Sitecore pipeline in its web.config and we'd make use of the section to configure the virtual folder to allow for where our Sitecore app sits and point it to the appropriate place in the Content Tree. Is it possible to pull this off? This is just the customer facing website, there will be no CMS editing functionality on these servers, that will be done from a more standard Sitecore install inside the firewall on a different server. The errors we're encountering are centered around loading the the various config files in the App_Config folder. It seems to do a Server.MapPath on "/" initially (which is wrong for us) so we've tried putting absolute paths in the web.config and still no joy (I think there must be some hardcoded piece that looks for the Include directory). Any help would be greatly appreciated. Thanks

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• Clear listview content?

  - by Slash

  I have a little problem with listview. How do i clear a listview content, knowing that it has a custom adapter? edit : the custom adapter class extends BaseAdapter, it looks like this : import android.app.Activity; import android.content.Context; import android.view.LayoutInflater; import android.view.View; import android.view.ViewGroup; import android.widget.BaseAdapter; import android.widget.TextView; public class MyAdapter extends BaseAdapter { private Activity activity; private String[] data; private static LayoutInflater inflater=null; public MyAdapter(Activity _a, String[] _str) { activity = _a; data = _str; inflater = (LayoutInflater)activity.getSystemService(Context.LAYOUT_INFLATER_SERVICE); } public static class ViewHolder{ public TextView text; } @Override public int getCount() { return data.length; } @Override public Object getItem(int position) { return position; } @Override public long getItemId(int position) { return position; } @Override public View getView(int position, View view, ViewGroup parent) { View v = view; ViewHolder holder; if(v == null) { v = inflater.inflate(R.layout.rowa, null); holder=new ViewHolder(); holder.text=(TextView)v.findViewById(R.id.dexter); v.setTag(holder); }else{ holder=(ViewHolder)v.getTag(); } holder.text.setText(data[position]); return v; } }

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• Using h:outputFormat to message-format the f:selectItems of a h:selectOneRadio

  - by msharma

  I am having some trouble with using h:selectOneRadio. I have a list of objects which is being returned which needs to be displayed. I am trying something like this: <h:selectOneRadio id="selectPlan" layout="pageDirection"> <f:selectItems value="#{detailsHandler.planList}" /> </h:selectOneRadio> and planList is a List of Plans. Plan is defined as: public class Plan { protected String id; protected String partNumber; protected String shortName; protected String price; protected boolean isService; protected boolean isOption; //With all getters/setters } The text that must appear for each radio button is actually in a properties file, and I need to insert params in the text to fill out some value in the bean. For example the text in my properties file is: plan_price=The price of this plan is {0}. I was hoping to do something like this: <f:selectItems value="<h:outputFormat value="#{i18n.plan_price}"> <f:param value="#{planHandler.price}"> </h:outputFormat>" /> Usually if it's not a h:selectOneRadio component, if it's just text I use the h:outputFormat along with f:param tags to display the messages in my .property file called i18n above, and insert a param which is in the backing bean. here this does not work. Does anyone have any ideas how I can deal with this? I am being returned a list of Plans each with their own prices and the text to be displayed is held in property file. Any help much appreciated. Thanks!

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• C# xml read, show error

  - by gloris

  Whats wrong with my code? XmlTextReader textReader = new XmlTextReader(@"D:\xml_file.xml"); textReader.Read(); // If the node has value while (textReader.Read()) { // Move to fist element textReader.MoveToElement(); Console.WriteLine("XmlTextReader Properties Test"); Console.WriteLine("==================="); // Read this element's properties and display them on console Console.WriteLine("id:" + textReader.id.ToString()); Console.WriteLine("name:" + textReader.name.ToString()); Console.WriteLine("time:" + textReader.time.ToString()); } Console.ReadLine() show erron on: id, name, time My XML file: <students> <student> <id>1</id> <name>Rikko Nora</name> <time>2010-03-12</time> </student> <student> <id>2</id> <name>Rikko Nora2</name> <time>2010-05-15</time> </student> </students>

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• local vs core contoller

  - by latvian

  Hi, I am adding new column and action in the local admin app/code/local/Mage/Adminhtml/Block/Catalog/Product/Grid.php which works fine, however. The local controller/app/code/local/Mage/Adminhtml/Block/Catalog/Product.php is not being used or is not overloading the admin one /app/code/core/Mage/Adminhtml/Block/Catalog/Product.php. This is almost fresh install of Magento 1.4.0.1. I am the only one working, so i know it is not overloaded by some custom controller. I have disabled all custom modules. I have rolled back most of my changes. I have checked /etc/Modules/Mage_Catalog.xml. Refreshed cache all possible ways, loged in and out. Nothing....still using the core contoller copy. why? How do you troubleshoot, meaning, at what moment magento decides using between core or local copies? ...its even more strange because it does not parse local Adminhtml config.xml but uses local Adminthml copy of Blocks. Any pointer would help. I would like to keep everything in local code. Thank You, Margots

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• problem in case of window service

  - by prateeksaluja20

  Hello friends, i made a windows service & add project installer.in which only contain this code. System.Diagnostics.Process.Start(@"C:\Windows\system32\notepad.exe"); inside the timer tick event & interval is 60 sec.i just wanted to try to run Windows service. 1st-serviceProcessInstaller1 i have been changed its account setting as local system. 2nd-serviceInstaller1 in this case i have been changed its start up type as Automatic. then i create a setup add another project then right click add project output then add primary output then press ok. then go to Right click on project-view-custom Action-right click on Install-Add custom Action-select Application folder & add primary output.the same thing done for all the remaining options like commit,rollback,uninstall. after that i build the setup it build succesfully then i install the setup it installed properly into program file n create one .exe file n one Instalfile. but problem is that when i search the service into "services.msc" the service is not there. means service is not showing there.i tried but not getting the ans.plz help me to solve this problem.

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• Magento - use an alternate "price.phtml" (in addition to the existing one)

  - by sdek

  I am looking for a way to have an alternate template/catalog/product/price.phml used in one specific location, and to continue using the existing price.phtml file in all other locations. To explain further, I need to display the regular price, and then another special price right below it - but only on the product page (for the main product being displayed). This special price is not a price that can be calculated by the catalog price rules, so I wrote my own module to do the calculation. So, everywhere that I am displaying prices I want to display with the regular ol' template/catalog/product/price.phtml file... but for the product page (the main product - not the related, upsells, etc) I want to use my own custom template/catalog/product/price-custom.phtml template file. Can anybody help? Normally I just look in the layout xml files (for example catalog.xml) to find these types of things, but price.phtml is kinda special - it isn't that simple. And for the life of me I can't figure out if there is an easy way to swap it out conditionally on the page being viewed. I am aware that I can just update price.phtml to always print out this extra price, and then use css to hide the price everywhere, but I would rather not do that if possible. (Also you may want to know that I only have simple products.)

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• What is the most efficient way of associating information with a Type in .Net?

  - by Miguel Angelo

  I want to associate custom data to a Type, and retrieve that data in run-time, blasingly fast. This is just my imagination, of my perfect world: var myInfo = typeof(MyClass).GetMyInformation(); this would be very fast... of course this does not exist! If it did I would not be asking. hehe ;) This is the way using custom attributes: var myInfo = typeof(MyClass).GetCustomAttribute("MyInformation"); this is slow because it requires a lookup of the string "MyInformation" This is a way using a Dictionary<Type, MyInformation: var myInfo = myInformationDictionary[typeof(MyClass)]; This is also slow because it is still a lookup of 'typeof(MyClass)'. I know that dictionary is very fast, but this is not enough... it is not as fast as calling a method. It is not even the same order of speed. I am not saying I want it to be as fast as a method call. I want to associate information with a type and access it as fast as possible. I am asking whether there is a better way, or event a best way of doing it. Any ideas?? Thanks!

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• How to set logging level for JDBCDriverLogging

  - by Scott

  I am trying to change the logging level to stop showing millions of this: <May 26, 2010 10:26:02 AM EDT> <Debug> <JDBCDriverLogging> <000000> <2336: 20 20 20 20 20 20 20 20 20 20 20 20 20 20 20 20 | |> I have tried adding this to my java line: -Djava.util.logging.config.file=/foo/bar/logging.properties With this as my logging.properties file: handlers = java.util.logging.ConsoleHandler .level = OFF java.util.logging.ConsoleHandler.level = INFO No luck. I have tried this: Logger logger = Logger.getLogger("com.microsoft.sqlserver.jdbc"); Handler handler = new ConsoleHandler(); handler.setLevel(Level.INFO); logger.addHandler(handler); logger.setLevel(Level.INFO); logger.setUseParentHandlers(false); No luck. I have searched around and all ideas center around one of these two options, so I must be doing something else wrong I am using jtds-1.2.2.jar. Thanks for any suggestions.

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• How to best manage multi-frame MovieClips with classes?

  - by Arms

  After switching to AS3, I've been having a hell of a time figuring out the best way to manage MovieClips that have UI elements spread across multiple frames with a single class. An example that I am working on now is a simple email form. I have a MovieClip with two frames: the 1st frame has the form elements (text inputs, submit button) the 2nd frame has a "thank you" message and a button to go back to the first frame (to send another email) In the library I have linked the MovieClip to a custom class (Emailer). My immediate problem is how do I assign a MouseEvent.CLICK event to the button on the 2nd frame? I should note at this point that I am trying to avoid putting code on the timeline (except for stop() calls). This is how I am 'solving' the problem now: Emailer registers an event listener for a frame change ( addEventListener("frame 2", onFrameChange) ) On the 2nd frame of the MovieClip I am calling dispatchEvent(new Event("frame 2")); (I would prefer to not have this code on the frame, but I don't know what else to do) My two complaints with this method are that, first I have calls to addEventListener spread out across different class methods (I would rather have all UI event listeners registered in one method), and second that I have to dispatch those custom "onFrameChange" events. The second complaint grows exponentially for MovieClips that have more than just 2 frames. My so called solution feels makes me feel dirty and makes my brain hurt. I am looking for any advice on what to do differently. Perhaps there's a design pattern I should be looking at? Should I swallow my pride and write timeline code even though the rest of my application is written in class files (and I abhor the Flash IDE code editor)? I absolutely LOVE the event system, and have no problem coding applications with it, but I feel like I'm stuck thinking in terms of AS2 when working with mutl-frame movieclips and code. Any and all help would be greatly appreciated.

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• OSGi bundle imports packages from non-bundle jars: create bundles for them?

  - by John Simmons

  I am new to OSGi, and am using Equinox. I have done several searches and can find no answer to this. The discussion at OSGI - handling 3rd party JARs required by a bundle helps somewhat, but does not fully answer my question. I have obtained a jar file, rabbitmq-client.jar, that is already packaged as an OSGi bundle (with Bundle-Name and other such properties in its MANIFEST.MF), that I would like to install as a bundle. This jar imports packages org.apache.commons.io and org.apache.commons.io.input from commons-io-1.2.jar. The RabbitMQ client 2.7.1 distribution also includes commons-cli-1.1.jar, so I presume that it is required as well. I examined the manifests of these commons jars and found that they do not appear to be packaged as bundles. That is, their manifests have none of the standard bundle properties. My specific question is: if I install rabbitmq-client.jar as a bundle, what is the proper way to get access to the packages that it needs to import from the commons jars? There are only three alternatives that I can think of, without rebuilding rabbitmq-client.jar. The packages from the commons jars are already included in the Equinox global classpath, and rabbitmq-client.jar will get them automatically from there. I must make another bundle with the two commons jars, export the needed packages, and install that bundle in Equinox. I must put these two commons jars in the global classpath when I start Equinox, and they will be available to rabbitmq-client.jar from there. I have read that one normally does not use the global classpath in an OSGi container. I am not clear on whether items from the global classpath are even available when building individual bundle classpaths. However, I note that rabbitmq-client.jar also imports other packages such as javax.net, which I presume come from the global classpath. Or is there some other bundle that exports them? Thanks for any assistance!

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• Android ProgressDialog inside another dialog

  - by La bla bla

  I'm working on a game using AndEngine, and I need to show the users the list of his Facebook friends. I've created my custom Adatper and after the loading finishes everything works great. I have a problem with the loading it self. The ListView is inside a custom dialog, since I don't really know how to create one using AndEngine, So inside this dialog, I'm running an AsyncTask to fetch the friends' info, in that AsyncTask I'm have a ProgressDialog. The problem is, the ProgressDialog shows up behind the dialog that contains the to-be list (which while loading, is just the title). I can see the ProgressDialog "peeking" behind that dialog.. Any Ideas? Here's some code: FriendsDialog.java private ProgressDialog dialog; //Constructor of the AsyncTask public FriendsLoader(Context context) { dialog = new ProgressDialog(context); dialog.setMessage("Please wait..\nLoading Friends List."); } @Override protected void onPreExecute() { dialog.requestWindowFeature(Window.FEATURE_NO_TITLE); LayoutInflater inflater = (LayoutInflater)context.getSystemService(Context.LAYOUT_INFLATER_SERVICE); dialog.setView(inflater.inflate(R.layout.loading, null)); dialog.setMessage("Please wait..\nLoading friends."); dialog.show(); } @Override protected void onPostExecute(ArrayList<HashMap<String, Object>> data) { if (dialog.isShowing()) { dialog.dismiss(); } MyAdapter myAdapter = new MyAdapter(context, data); listView = (ListView) findViewById(R.id.list); listView.setAdapter(myAdapter); listView.setOnItemClickListener(new AdapterView.OnItemClickListener() { @Override public void onItemClick(AdapterView<?> myAdapter, View myView, int myItemInt, long mylng) { String id = (String) listView.getItemAtPosition(myItemInt); listener.onUserSelected(id); dismiss(); } }); }

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• Will WCF allow me to use object references across boundries on objects that implement INotifyPropert

  - by zimmer62

  So I've created a series of objects that interact with a piece of hardware over a serial port. There is a thread running monitoring the serial port, and if the state of the hardware changes it updates properties in my objects. I'm using observable collections, and INotifyPropertyChanged. I've built a UI in WPF and it works great, showing me real time updating when the hardware changes and allows me to send changes to the hardware as well by changing these properties using bindings. What I'm hoping is that I can run the UI on a different machine than what the hardware is hooked up to without a lot of wiring up of events. Possibly even allow multiple UI's to connect to the same service and interact with this hardware. So far I understand I'm going to need to create a WCF service. I'm trying to figure out if I'll be able to pass a reference to an object created at the service to the client leaving events intact. So that the UI will really just be bound to a remote object. Am I moving the right direction with WCF? Also I see tons of examples for WCF in C#, are there any good practical use examples in VB that might be along the lines of what I'm trying to do?

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• Complicated .NET factory design

  - by Tom W

  Hello SO; I'm planning to ask a fairly elaborate question that is also something of a musing here, so bear with me... I'm trying to design a factory implementation for a simulation application. The simulation will consist of different sorts of entities i.e. it is not a homogenous simulation in any respect. As a result, there will be numerous very different concrete implementations and only the very general properties will be abstracted at the top level. What I'd like to be able to do is create new simulation entities by calling a method on the model with a series of named arguments representing the parameters of the entity, and have the model infer what type of object is being described by the inbound parameters (from the names of the parameters and potentially the sequence they occur in) and call a factory method on the appropriate derived class. For example, if I pass the model a pair of parameters (Param1=5000, Param2="Bacon") I would like it to infer that the names Param1 and Param2 'belong' to the class "Blob1" and call a shared function "getBlob1" with named parameters Param1:=5000, Param2:="Bacon" whereas if I pass the model (Param1=5000, Param3=50) it would call a similar factory method for Blob2; because Param1 and Param3 in that order 'belong' to Blob2. I foresee several issues to resolve: Whether or not I can reflect on the available types with string parameter names and how to do this if it's possible Whether or not there's a neat way of doing the appropriate constructor inference from the combinatoric properties of the argument list or whether I'm going to have to bodge something to do it 'by hand'. If possible I'd like the model class to be able to accept parameters as parameters rather than as some collection of keys and values, which would require the model to expose a large number of parametrised methods at runtime without me having to code them explicitly - presumably one for every factory method available in the relevant namespace. What I'm really asking is how you'd go about implementing such a system, rather than whether or not it's fundamentally possible. I don't have the foresight or experience with .NET reflection to be able to figure out a way by myself. Hopefully this will prove an informative discussion.

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• Netbeans, JPA Entity Beans in seperate projects. Unknown entity bean class

  - by Stu

  I am working in Netbeans and have my entity beans and web services in separate projects. I include the entity beans in the web services project however the ApplicaitonConfig.java file keeps getting over written and removing the entries I make for the entity beans in the associated jar file. My question is: is it required to have both the EntityBeans and the WebServices share the same project/jar file? If not what is the appropriate way to include the entity beans which are in the jar file? <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <persistence version="2.1" xmlns="http://xmlns.jcp.org/xml/ns/persistence" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xsi:schemaLocation="http://xmlns.jcp.org/xml/ns/persistence http://xmlns.jcp.org/xml/ns/persistence/persistence_2_1.xsd"> <persistence-unit name="jdbc/emrPool" transaction-type="JTA"> <provider>org.eclipse.persistence.jpa.PersistenceProvider</provider> <jta-data-source>jdbc/emrPool</jta-data-source> <exclude-unlisted-classes>false</exclude-unlisted-classes> <properties> <property name="eclipselink.ddl-generation" value="none"/> <property name="eclipselink.cache.shared.default" value="false"/> </properties> </persistence-unit> </persistence> Based on Melc's input i verified that that the transaction type is set to JTA and the jta-data-source is set to the value for the Glassfish JDBC Resource. Unfortunately the problem still persists. I have opened the WAR file and validated that the EntityBean.jar file is the latest version and is located in the WEB-INF/lib directory of the War file. I think it is tied to the fact that the entities are not being "registered" with the entity manager. However i do not know why they are not being registered.

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• Using an embedded DB (SQLite / SQL Compact) for Message Passing within an app?

  - by wk1989

  Hello, Just out of curiosity, for applications that have a fairly complicated module tree, would something like sqlite/sql compact edition work well for message passing? So if I have modules containing data such as: \SubsystemA\SubSubSysB\ModuleB\ModuleDataC, \SubSystemB\SubSubSystemC\ModuleA\ModuleDataX Using traditional message passing/routing, you have to go through intermediate modules in order to pass a message to ModuleB to request say ModuleDataC. Instead of doing that, if we we simply store "\SubsystemA\SubSubSysB\ModuleB\ModuleDataC" in a sqlite database, getting that data is as simple as a sql query and needs no routing and passing stuff around. Has anyone done this before? Even if you haven't, do you foresee any issues & performance impact? The only concern I have right now would be the passing of custom types, e.g. if ModuleDataC is a custom data structure or a pointer, I'll need some way of storing the data structure into the DB or storing the pointer into the DB. Thanks, JW EDIT One usage case I haven't thought about is when you want to send a message from ModuleA to ModuleB to get ModuleB to do something rather than just getting/setting data. Is it possible to do this using an embedded DB? I believe callback from the DB would be needed, how feasible is this?

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• Devise password reset issue (new_user?)

  - by rabid_zombie

  When a user's email is inputted into the forgot password form and submitted, I am receiving an error saying login can't be blank. I looked around devise.en.yml for this error message, but can't seem to find it anywhere. Here is my views/devise/passwords/new.html.haml: %div.registration_page %h2 Forgot your password? = form_for(resource, :as => resource_name, :url => user_password_path, :html => { :method => :post, :id => 'forgot_pw_form', :class => 'forgot_pw' }) do |f| %div = f.email_field :email, :placeholder => 'Email', :autofocus => true, :autocomplete => 'off' %div.email_error.error %input.btn.btn-success{:type => 'submit', :value => 'Send Instructions'} = render "devise/shared/links" The form is posting to users/password like it should, but I noticed that my forgot password form attaches class = 'new_user'. Here is what my form displays: <form accept-charset='UTF-8' action='/users/password' class='new_user' id='forgot_pw_form' method='post' novalidate='novalidate'></form> My routes for devise (I have custom sessions and registrations controllers): devise_for :users, :controllers => {:sessions => 'sessions', :registrations => 'registrations'} How can I setup devise's forgot password functionality? Why am I receiving this error message and why is that class being added there? I've tried: Adding my own passwords controller and adding new routes for my custom controller. Same error Adding my own class and id to the form. This successfully changes the id and class of the form, but reverts back to class and id of new_user Thanks.

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• WCF publish/subscribe service, and ASP.NET MVC client

  - by d3j4vu

  I managed to develop a custom WCF service, using the publish / subscribe model, and hosted inside a managed windows service. Everything's working. I developed an interface as the service contract implementing a method definition marked as a non-one way operation contract (OperationContract(IsOneWay = false)]. This, to make possible returns an instance of a custom class derived from System.Web.Mvc.ActionResult. In the MVC app, event fires ok. It wraps inside an action method, (just the one defined in the interface), but, and this is my current problem, i believe that something relative to the execution context of the windows service (and the hosted wcf counterpart) blocks the execution of the action method in the MVC app. This is what i have until now (some pieces ripped off just to be more clear): /// Method definition for the contract's service. Maps to a MVC ActionMethod. [OperationContract(IsOneWay = false)] ActionResult Imagen(string data, CustomActionResult result); The class to hold an ActionResult derived class instance: public class ServiceEventArgsMvc : ServiceEventArgs { /// <summary> /// /// </summary> public CustomActionResult Result { get; set; } } And the code in the MVC client app: /// <summary> /// Just a simple class to hold an abstract ActionResult derived class instance. /// </summary> public ActionResult Image(string data, CustomActionResult result) { ViewData["data"] = data; return View(); } Ok. ActionMethod sucessfully executes...but when it's done (and usually expected obtain a reditection to a View named Image, like the action method), the WCF service throws a Timeout exception, making clear that he's still waiting for a response from the MVC client. The response never arrives, so the MVC app never finish his work (redirect to the "Image" view as expected). Any ideas?. Guess i'm missing something very simple, but i don't know what it could be. This is drivin' me nuts.

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• Textblock doesnt get updated when rendered in memory?

  - by veechi

  I have a text block which as part of a custom control.I added the custom control as a child of grid which in turn is added as child of a Canvas.All of these contorl are instantiated in memory and are not rendered on the UI.When I update the value of the TextBlock and emboss the canvas on an image, the updated value doesnt appear on the embossed image.Here is the code snippet:- System.Windows.Controls.Canvas embossCanvas = new System.Windows.Controls.Canvas(); System.Windows.Controls.Grid grid = new Grid(); MyControl myctrl= new MyControl(); int wd = (int)myctrl.ActualWidth; int ht = (int)myctrl.ActualHeight; embossCanvas.Width = wd; embossCanvas.Height = ht; grid.Children.Add(myctrl); embossCanvas.Children.Add(grid); myctrl.txtBlk.UpdateLayout(); grid.UpdateLayout(); embossCanvas.Measure(new System.Windows.Size(embossCanvas.Width, embossCanvas.Height)); embossCanvas.Arrange(new System.Windows.Rect(0, 0, embossCanvas.Width, (int)embossCanvas.Height)); embossCanvas.UpdateLayout(); RenderTargetBitmap renderBmp = new RenderTargetBitmap(wd, ht, 96, 96, System.Windows.Media.PixelFormats.Default); renderBmp.Render(embossCanvas);

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