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  • How do I draw the points in an ESRI Polyline, given the bounding box as lat/long and the "points" as

    - by Aaron
    I'm using OpenMap and I'm reading a ShapeFile using com.bbn.openmap.layer.shape.ShapeFile. The bounding box is read in as lat/long points, for example 39.583642,-104.895486. The bounding box is a lower-left point and an upper-right point which represents where the points are contained. The "points," which are named "radians" in OpenMap, are in a different format, which looks like this: [0.69086486, -1.8307719, 0.6908546, -1.8307716, 0.6908518, -1.8307717, 0.69085056, -1.8307722, 0.69084936, -1.8307728, 0.6908477, -1.8307738, 0.69084626, -1.8307749, 0.69084185, -1.8307792]. How do I convert the points like "0.69086486, -1.8307719" into x,y coordinates that are usable in normal graphics? I believe all that's needed here is some kind of conversion, because bringing the points into Excel and graphing them creates a line whose curve matches the curve of the road at the given location (lat/long). However, the axises need to be adjusted manually and I have no reference as how to adjust the axises, since the given bounding box appears to be in a different format than the given points. The ESRI Shapefile technical description doesn't seem to mention this (http://www.esri.com/library/whitepapers/pdfs/shapefile.pdf).

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  • form change with javascript

    - by aslum
    I have two drop down lists <select name="branch"> <option value="b">Blacksburg</option> <option value="c">Christiansburg</option> <option value="f">Floyd</option> <option value="m">Meadowbrook</option> </select> but I would like the second list to be different based upon what is selected from the first list. So FREX Blacksburg's might be <select name="room"> <option value="Kitchen">Kitchen Side</option> <option value="Closet">Closet Side</option> <option value="Full">Full Room</option> </select While Christiansburg's is <select name="room"> <option value="Window">Window Side</option> <option value="Door">Door Side</option> <option value="Full">Full Room</option> and of course the options are also different for the other branches... Is it possible to change the second drop down list based on what they select for the first one? I have used javascript a teensy bit, but not much so please explain in detail. Thanks!

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  • restrict script inside iframe to run only within pages of same top-level domain?

    - by Justin Grant
    I'd like to enforce a requirement that client script inside a page (which in turn is loaded inside an iframe of another page) will only run when the parent page is on the same top-level domain as the framed page (although it may be on another hostname in that domain). Is this do-able? I assume that the easy solution of looking at top.location.host won't be available due to cross-site scripting limitations, but I'm wondering if other javascript hackery could suffice. Constraints on any potential solution inculde: I need to be able to run XmlHttpRequest calls inside the child page, and I need to validate that the hostname is in the same domain before I make those calls. (this makes a document.domain solution challenging because AFAIK setting document.domain disables the ability to make XmlHttpRequest calls. I can control client-side script and HTML on both parent or child (and I can create new pages if needed), but I can't make any server-side code changes. I can't simulate the above via server-side calls or proxies, because the child page's hostname uses a forms auth system with hostname-scoped cookies that I can't get access to from the parent page since it's on a different hostname. I don't have enough control over the child-frame site to be able to put both sites behind the same reverse-proxy or load-balancer (which would enable me to put both sites on the same hostname). I don't actually need to access any UI inside the IFrame-- the iframe is invisible and I'm only using it to run javascript within the security context of a site on a different hostname from the parent page. So at this point I'm stumped. Got any ideas? I want to make sure I'm not overlooking an easy solution before giving up.

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  • LGPL library with plugins of varied licenses

    - by Chris
    Note: "Plugins" here refers to shared objects that are accessed via dlopen() and friends. I'm writing a library that I'm planning on releasing under the LGPL. Its functionality can be extended (supporting new audio file formats, specifically) through plugins. I'm planning on creating an exception to the LGPL for this library so that plugins can be released under any license. So far so good. I've written a number of plugins already, some of which use LGPL and some of which use GPL libraries. I'm wary of releasing them with the main library, however, due to licensing issues. The LGPL-based ones would generally be fine, but for my "any license" clause. Would distributing these LGPL-based plugins with the library require the consent of the other license holders to create this exception? Along the same lines, would the inclusion of GPL-based plugins with my library force the whole thing to go GPL? I could also release the plugins separately. The advantage, I presume, is that the plugins an d library will now not be distributed together, creating more separation. But this seems to be no different, really, in the end. Boiled down: Can I include, with my LGPL library, plugins of varied licenses? If not, is it really any different releasing them separately? And if so, there's no real need to create an exception for non-LGPL plugins, is there? It's LGPL or nothing. I'd prefer asking a lawyer, of course, but this is just a hobby and I can't afford to hire a lawyer when I don't expect or want monetary compensation. I'm just hoping others have been in similar situations and have insight.

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  • Weird bug with C++ lambda expressions in VS2010

    - by Andrei Tita
    In a couple of my projects, the following code: class SmallClass { public: int x1, y1; void TestFunc() { auto BadLambda = [&]() { int g = x1 + 1; //ok int h = y1 + 1; //c2296 int l = static_cast<int>(y1); //c2440 }; int y1_copy = y1; //it works if you create a local copy auto GoodLambda = [&]() { int h = y1_copy + 1; //ok int l = this->y1 + 1; //ok }; } }; generates error C2296: '+' : illegal, left operand has type 'double (__cdecl *)(double)' or alternatively error C2440: 'static_cast' : cannot convert from 'double (__cdecl *)(double)' to 'int' You get the picture. It also happens if catching by value. The error seems to be tied to the member name "y1". It happened in different classes, different projects and with (seemingly) any type for y1; for example, this code: [...] MyClass y1; void TestFunc() { auto BadLambda = [&]()->void { int l = static_cast<int>(y1); //c2440 }; } generates both these errors: error C2440: 'static_cast' : cannot convert from 'MyClass' to 'int' No user-defined-conversion operator available that can perform this conversion, or the operator cannot be called error C2440: 'static_cast' : cannot convert from 'double (__cdecl *)(double)' to 'int' There is no context in which this conversion is possible It didn't, however, happen in a completely new project. I thought maybe it was related to Lua (the projects where I managed to reproduce this bug both used Lua), but I did not manage to reproduce it in a new project linking Lua. It doesn't seem to be a known bug, and I'm at a loss. Any ideas as to why this happens? (I don't need a workaround; there are a few in the code already). Using Visual Studio 2010 Express version 10.0.40219.1 Sp1Rel.

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  • is it possible to write a method which creates a method?

    - by Alan Bennett
    hey guys, this might seem like a no brainer but hopefully after i explain my problem you might understand why i am asking this. is it possible to have a method which creates a method and its arguements? the problem: in my current project i have to many times call different sql statements which arent all that different. for example i have one where i inserts some new rows but only has 2 columns and another which also inserts new rows but has 12 columns. i have created a class called utils.cs and in there i have sorted many "handy" methods, such as validation methods which check for numeric input to text boxes etc. so i thought well instead of having sql writing methods everywhere ill make one in there and call it when i need to so i have but it currently looks like this: public static string getInsertSQL(string tablename, string colOne, string colTwo, string colThree, string colFour, string colFive, string colSix, string colSeven, string colEight, string colNine, string colTen, string colEleven, string colTwelve,bool active, string valueOne, string valueTwo, string valueThree, string valueFour, string valueFive, string valueSix, string valueSeven, string valueEight, string valueNine, string valueTen, string valueEleven) { string strSQL = ""; strSQL += "INSERT INTO " + tablename; strSQL += "(" + colOne + " " + colTwo + " " + colThree + " " + colFour + " " + colFive + " " + colSix + " " + colSeven + " " + colEight + " " + colNine + " " + colTen + " " + colEleven + " " + colTwelve + " )"; strSQL += " values ("+active+", " + valueOne + " " + valueTwo + " " + valueThree + " " + valueFour + " " + valueFive + " " + valueSix + " " + valueSeven + " " + valueEight + " " + valueNine + " " + valueTen + " " + valueEleven + " )"; return strSQL; } as you can see thats quite a mess so i wondered if it was at all possible to write a method which would take an arguement of how many colums needed to be inserted and then could create a method with that many arguements. i hope you can see what i am getting at and dont just sound like a plep! thanks in advance

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  • Suggestions for a Cron like scheduler in Python?

    - by jamesh
    I'm looking for a library in Python which will provide at and cron like functionality. I'd quite like have a pure Python solution, rather than relying on tools installed on the box; this way I run on machines with no cron. For those unfamiliar with cron: you can schedule tasks based upon an expression like: 0 2 * * 7 /usr/bin/run-backup # run the backups at 0200 on Every Sunday 0 9-17/2 * * 1-5 /usr/bin/purge-temps # run the purge temps command, every 2 hours between 9am and 5pm on Mondays to Fridays. The cron time expression syntax is less important, but I would like to have something with this sort of flexibility. If there isn't something that does this for me out-the-box, any suggestions for the building blocks to make something like this would be gratefully received. Edit I'm not interested in launching processes, just "jobs" also written in Python - python functions. By necessity I think this would be a different thread, but not in a different process. To this end, I'm looking for the expressivity of the cron time expression, but in Python. Cron has been around for years, but I'm trying to be as portable as possible. I cannot rely on its presence.

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  • ODBC and NLS_LANG

    - by Michael S.
    Let's say that I've created two different program executables, e.g. in C++. For some reason, the two programs internals representation of text are different from each other. Let's say the first program is using text representation A and the other text representation B. It could be a specific 8-bit ANSI codepage, Unicode/UTF-8 or Unicode/UTF-16 or whatever. Now each program want to communicate text (add/retrieve data) to/from the same database table on a (database) server. Each program communicates with the database through ODBC. So the programs do not know what database system they they are communicating with. In this specific case through the database is actually a Oracle RDMS database and the database server administrator has setup the database to use UTF-8. On the system on which the programs are running an appropriate ODBC driver is available, so that the programs can connect through ODBC. Each program will treat and convert from the ODBC data type SQL_C_CHAR to its internal text representation appropriately. I assume that the programs cannot do no other than to assume a specific encoding returned for SQL_C_CHAR text. If not the programs has to be told which encoding that is. For Oracle, I know that the NLS_LANG environment variable can be used on the client. I assume it affects the ODBC driver (related to SQL_C_CHAR) to convert from a specific encoding (as given by NLS_LANG) to the internal encoding of the database (in this example UTF-8) and vice-versa. If the machine running my programs are having a NLS_LANG this setting will affect the byte sequences returned for SQL_C_CHAR so my programs cannot suddenly assume a specific encoding for the text returned via SQL_C_CHAR. Is it possible to setup the ODBC connection (preferably programmatically at runtime), so that it takes care of text conversions appropriately for the two programs, i.e. from/to representation to/from UTF-8 and from/to representation B to/from UTF-8? Regards, /Michael PS. As the programs are connecting through ODBC I don't think it would be nice that they should now anything about NLS_LANG as this is a Orcacle specific environment variable.

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  • why won't Eclipse use the compiler I specify for my project?

    - by codeman73
    I'm using Eclipse 3.3. In my project, I've set the compiler compliance level to 5.0 In the build path for the project. I've added the Java 1.5 JDK in the Installed JREs section and am referencing that System Library in my project build path. However, I'm getting compile errors for a class that implements PreparedStatement for not implementing abstract methods that only exist in Java 1.6 PreparedStatement. Specifically, the methods setAsciiStream(int, InputStream, long) and setAsciiStream(int, InputStream) Strangely enough, it worked when we were compiling it against Java 1.4, which it was originally written for. We added the JREs for Java 1.4 and referenced that system library in the project, and set the project's compiler level to 1.4, and it works fine. But when I do the same changes to try to point to Java 5.0, it instead uses Java 6. Any ideas why? I wrote a similar question earlier, here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2540548/how-do-i-get-eclipse-to-use-a-different-compiler-version-for-java I know how you're supposed to choose a different compiler but it seems Eclipse isn't taking it. It seems to be defaulting to Java 6, even though I have deleted all Java 6 JDKs and JREs that I could find. I've also updated the -vm option in my eclipse.ini to point to the Java5 JDK.

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  • Asp.Net Login Control very slow initial connection to Non-Trusted AD Domain

    - by Eric Brown - Cal
    ASP.NET Login control is very slow making the initial connection to AD when authenticating to a different domain than the domain the web server is a member of. Problem occurs for the IIS server and when using with the Visual Studio's built in web server. It takes about 30 seconds the first time when attempting to use the control to connect against another domain. There is no trust relationship bewteen the web server's domain and the other domains (attempted connecting to several different domains). Subsequent connections execute quickly until the connection times out. Using Systernals Process Monitor to troubleshoot, there are two OpenQuery operations right before the delay to "C:\WINDOWS\asembly\GAC_MSIL\System.DirectoryServices\2.0.0.0_b03f5f7f11d50a3a\Netapi32.dll with a result NAME NOT FOUND" and right after the 30 second delay the TCP Send and TCP Recieves indicate communication begins with the AD server. Things we have tried: Impersonating an administrator on the web server in the web.config; Granting permissions to the CryptoKeys to the NetworkService and ASPNET; Specifying by IP instead of DNS name; Multiple variations of specifying the name and ldap server with domains and OU's; Local host entries; Looked for ports being blocked (SYN_SENT) with netstat -an. Nslookup resolves all the domains and systems involved correectly. TraceRt shows the Correct routes Any Idea or hints are greately appreicated.

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  • How to structure applications as multiple projects an name the packages in Java

    - by lostiniceland
    Hello Everyone I would like to know how you set up your projects in Java For example, in my current work-project, a six year old J2EE app with approximately 2 million LoC, we only have one project in Eclipse. The package structure is split into tiers and then domains, so it follows guidelines from Sun/Oracle. A huge ant-script is building different jars out of this one source-folder Personally I think it would be better to have multiple projects, at least for each tier. Recently I was playing around with a projects-structure like this: Domainproject (contains only annotated pojos, needed by all other projects) Datalayer (only persistence) Businesslogic (services) Presenter View This way, it should be easier to exchange components and when using a build tool like Maven I can have everything in a repository so when only working on the frontend I can get the rest as a dependecy in my classpath. Does this makes sense to you? Do you use different approaches and how do they look like? Furthermore I am struggeling how to name my packages/projects correctly. Right now, the above project-structure reflects in the names of the packages, eg. de.myapp.view and it continues with some technical subfolders like internal or interfaces. What I am missing here, and I dont know how to do this properly, is the distinction to a certain domain. When the project gets bigger it would be nice to recognise a particular domain but also the technical details to navigate more easily within the project. This leads to my second question: how do you name your projects and packages?

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  • calling template function without <>; type inference

    - by Oops
    Hi, if I have a function template with typename T, where the compiler can set the type by itself, I do not have to write the type explicitely when I call the function like: template < typename T > T min( T v1, T v2 ) { return ( v1 < v2 ) ? v1: v2; } int i1 = 1, i2 = 2; int i3 = min( i1, i2 ); //no explicit <type> but if I have a function template with two different typenames like... template < typename TOut, typename TIn > TOut round( TIn v ) { return (TOut)( v + 0.5 ); } double d = 1.54; int i = round<int>(d); //explicit <int> Is it true that I have to specify at least 1 typename, always? I assume the reason is because C++ can not distinguish functions between different return types, true? but if I use a void function and handover a reference, again I must not explicitely specify the return typename: template < typename TOut, typename TIn > void round( TOut & vret, TIn vin ) { vret = (TOut)(vin + 0.5); } double d = 1.54; int i; round(i, d); //no explicit <int> should the conclusion be to avoid functions with return and more prefer void functions that return via a reference when writing templates? Or is there a possibility to avoid explicitely writing the return type? something like "type inference" for templates... is "type inference" possible in C++0x? I hope I was not too unclear. many thanks in advance Oops

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  • C++ Map Question

    - by Wallace
    Hi. I'm working on my C++ assignment about soccer and I encountered a problem with map. My problem that I encountered is that when I stored 2 or more "midfielders" as the key, even the cout data shows different, but when I do a multiplication on the 2nd -second value, it "adds up" the first -second value and multiply with it. E.g. John midfielder 1 Steven midfielder 3 I have a program that already reads in the playerPosition. So the map goes like this: John 1 (Key, Value) Steven 3 (Key, Value) if(playerName == a-first && playerPosition == "midfielder") { cout << a-second*2000 << endl; //number of goals * $2000 } So by right, the program should output: 2000 6000 But instead, I'm getting 2000 8000 So, I'm assuming it adds the 1 to 3 (resulting in 4) and multiplying with 2000, which is totally wrong... I tried cout a-first and a-second in the program and I get: John 1 Steven 3 But after the multiplication, it's totally different. Any ideas? Thanks.

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  • Using clases in PHP to store function

    - by Artur
    Hello! I need some advise on my PHP code organisation. I need classes where I can store different functions, and I need access to those classes in different parts of my project. Making an object of this classes each time is too sadly, so I've found a two ways have to solve it. First is to use static methods, like class car { public static $wheels_count = 4; public static function change_wheels_count($new_count) { car::$wheels_count = $new_count; } } Second is to use singleton pattern: class Example { // Hold an instance of the class private static $instance; // The singleton method public static function singleton() { if (!isset(self::$instance)) { $c = __CLASS__; self::$instance = new $c; } return self::$instance; } } But author of the article about singletons said, that if I have too much singletons in my code I should reconstruct it. But I need a lot of such classes. Can anybody explain prons and cons of each way? Which is mostly used? Are there more beautiful ways?

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  • Modeling a Generic Relationship (expressed in C#) in a Database

    - by StevenH
    This is most likely one for all you sexy DBAs out there: How would I effieciently model a relational database whereby I have a field in an "Event" table which defines a "SportType"? This "SportsType" field can hold a link to different sports tables E.g. "FootballEvent", "RubgyEvent", "CricketEvent" and "F1 Event". Each of these Sports tables have different fields specific to that sport. My goal is to be able to genericly add sports types in the future as required, yet hold sport specific event data (fields) as part of my Event Entity. Is it possible to use an ORM such as NHibernate / Entity framework / DataObjects.NET which would reflect such a relationship? I have thrown together a quick C# example to express my intent at a higher level: public class Event<T> where T : new() { public T Fields { get; set; } public Event() { EventType = new T(); } } public class FootballEvent { public Team CompetitorA { get; set; } public Team CompetitorB { get; set; } } public class TennisEvent { public Player CompetitorA { get; set; } public Player CompetitorB { get; set; } } public class F1RacingEvent { public List<Player> Drivers { get; set; } public List<Team> Teams { get; set; } } public class Team { public IEnumerable<Player> Squad { get; set; } } public class Player { public string Name { get; set; } public DateTime DOB { get; set;} }

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  • Is it possible to add JPA annotation to superclass instance variables?

    - by Kristofer Borgstrom
    Hi, I am creating entities that are the same for two different tables. In order do table mappings etc. different for the two entities but only have the rest of the code in one place - an abstract superclass. The best thing would be to be able to annotate generic stuff such as column names (since the will be identical) in the super class but that does not work because JPA annotations are not inherited by child classes. Here is an example: public abstract class MyAbstractEntity { @Column(name="PROPERTY") //This will not be inherited and is therefore useless here protected String property; public String getProperty() { return this.property; } //setters, hashCode, equals etc. methods } Which I would like to inherit and only specify the child-specific stuff, like annotations: @Entity @Table(name="MY_ENTITY_TABLE") public class MyEntity extends MyAbstractEntity { //This will not work since this field does not override the super class field, thus the setters and getters break. @Column(name="PROPERTY") protected String property; } Any ideas or will I have to create fields, getters and setters in the child classes? Thanks, Kris

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  • Classic ASP on IIS 7

    - by jagr
    Hi, I am having problems with my app running on IIS 7. The application is a mixture of classic ASP and ASP.NET MVC (don't ask how and why). Anyway, the application is up and running except for some problems that I am experiencing. For example, I have a button on my page and when I click it, javascript is opening a popup which needs to contain .asp page. But that doesn't happen. I get the blank popup with my cursor on busy as it still loads. This is happening almost always to me in IE. In Firefox it is much better but sometimes the app jams there too. If I close the opened, blank popup, and I want to move around the application, my buttons in menu (which are also .asp) doesn't load properly. For example, I have different buttons for different sections and when I move around they should change. When I restart the browser, only then everything works normal for some time, but the problem occurs again after a while. I am very sure that it is not the problem in application itself, because it works properly on the machines of my colleagues without those problems. They have the same OS (Vista Professional) and we compared the settings in IIS and they match. So I am very confused, and I really don't know how to solve the problem. I found a bunch of articles and blog posts about classic ASP and IIS7 but most of them are about enabling asp, which I already did. So I am suspecting that something wrong with IIS, but I don't know what, tried to reinstall it, hoping for some improvement, but I had no luck. If you need more details please ask. Does anyone have any idea what should I try or do?

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  • Baffled by differences between WPF BitmapEncoders

    - by DanM
    I wrote a little utility class that saves BitmapSource objects to image files. The image files can be either bmp, jpeg, or png. Here is the code: public class BitmapProcessor { public void SaveAsBmp(BitmapSource bitmapSource, string path) { Save(bitmapSource, path, new BmpBitmapEncoder()); } public void SaveAsJpg(BitmapSource bitmapSource, string path) { Save(bitmapSource, path, new JpegBitmapEncoder()); } public void SaveAsPng(BitmapSource bitmapSource, string path) { Save(bitmapSource, path, new PngBitmapEncoder()); } private void Save(BitmapSource bitmapSource, string path, BitmapEncoder encoder) { using (var stream = new FileStream(path, FileMode.Create)) { encoder.Frames.Add(BitmapFrame.Create(bitmapSource)); encoder.Save(stream); } } } Each of the three Save methods work, but I get unexpected results with bmp and jpeg. Png is the only format that produces an exact reproduction of what I see if I show the BitmapSource on screen using a WPF Image control. Here are the results: BMP - too dark JPEG - too saturated PNG - correct Why am I getting completely different results for different file types? I should note that the BitmapSource in my example uses an alpha value of 0.1 (which is why it appears very desaturated), but it should be possible to show the resulting colors in any image format. I know if I take a screen capture using something like HyperSnap, it will look correct regardless of what file type I save to. Here's a HyperSnap screen capture saved as a bmp: As you can see, this isn't a problem, so there's definitely something strange about WPF's image encoders. Do I have a setting wrong? Am I missing something?

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  • Strange unset cookie problem

    - by neobie
    Hi there, I have a strange problem to clear Cookie via PHP. Lets say if I have a domain neobie.net I store "remember user login" cookie name as "USER_INFO" which contains string to identify user login in the next time of revisit. now using firefox, I saw that I have 2 cookies USER_INFO with domain "www.neobie.net" and ".neobie.net" with expiration date of 1 week later. I wrote a logout.php script, which clear the cookie of different domain (.neobie.net, www.neobie.net, neobie.net) to ensure that USER_INFO cookie is completely cleared for different domain. Now is the problem. The user isn't able to clear the cookie when user visit logout.php I found out that, I have to manually delete the cookie with domain "www.neobie.net", leaving the ".neobie.net " intact, then only the cookie can be cleared. So, I have to make the php script to setcookie USER_INFO on ".neobie.net", and prevent it to set cookie on "www.neobie.net" to make the logout.php script work. But I don't understand why I couldn't clear the cookie for "www.neobie.net" (with leading www. , tested on firefox and chrome)

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  • Dumping an ADODB recordset to XML, then back to a recordset, then saving to the db

    - by Mark Biek
    I've created an XML file using the .Save() method of an ADODB recordset in the following manner. dim res dim objXML: Set objXML = Server.CreateObject("MSXML2.DOMDocument") 'This returns an ADODB recordset set res = ExecuteReader("SELECT * from some_table) With res Call .Save(objXML, 1) Call .Close() End With Set res = nothing Let's assume that the XML generated above then gets saved to a file. I'm able to read the XML back into a recordset like this: dim res : set res = Server.CreateObject("ADODB.recordset") res.open server.mappath("/admin/tbl_some_table.xml") And I can loop over the records without any problem. However what I really want to do is save all of the data in res to a table in a completely different database. We can assume that some_table already exists in this other database and has the exact same structure as the table I originally queried to make the XML. I started by creating a new recordset and using AddNew to add all of the rows from res to the new recordset dim outRes : set outRes = Server.CreateObject("ADODB.recordset") dim outConn : set outConn = Server.CreateObject("ADODB.Connection") dim testConnStr : testConnStr = "DRIVER={SQL Server};SERVER=dev-windows\sql2000;UID=myuser;PWD=mypass;DATABASE=Testing" outConn.open testConnStr outRes.activeconnection = outConn outRes.cursortype = adOpenDynamic outRes.locktype = adLockOptimistic outRes.source = "product_accessories" outRes.open while not res.eof outRes.addnew for i=0 to res.fields.count-1 outRes(res.fields(i).name) = res(res.fields(i).name) next outRes.movefirst res.movenext wend outRes.updatebatch But this bombs the first time I try to assign the value from res to outRes. Microsoft OLE DB Provider for ODBC Drivers error '80040e21' Multiple-step OLE DB operation generated errors. Check each OLE DB status value, if available. No work was done. Can someone tell me what I'm doing wrong or suggest a better way for me to copy the data loaded from XML to a different database?

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  • Deterministic and non uniform long string generation from seed

    - by Limonup
    I had this weird idea for an encryption that I wanted to try out, it may be bad, and it may have done before, but I'm just doing it for fun. The short version of the question is: Is it possible to generate a long, deterministic and non-uniformly distributed string/sequence of numbers from a small seed? Long(er) version: I was thinking to encrypt a text by changing encoding. The new encoding would be generated via Huffman algorithm. To work well, the Huffman algorithm would need a fairly long text with non uniform distribution. Then characters can have different bit-lengths which would be the primary strength of this encryption. The problem is that its impractical to enter in/remember a long text each time you want to decrypt the text. So I was wondering if it was possible to generate a text from password seed? It doesn't matter what the text is, as long as it has non uniform distribution of characters and that the exact same sequence can be recreated each time you give it the same seed. Preferably, are there any functions/extensions in Python that can do this? EDIT: To expand on the "strength" of varying bit length: if I have a string "test", ASCII values 116, 101, 115, 116, which gives bit values of 1110100 1100101 1110011 1110100 Then, say my Huffman algorithm generates encoding like t = 101 e = 1100111 s = 10001 The final string is 101 1100111 10001 101, if we encode this back to ASCII, we get 1011100 1111000 1101000, which is 3 entirely different characters. Obviously its impossible to perform any kind of frequency analysis or something like that on this.

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  • Payment Processors - What do I need to know if I want to accept credit cards on my website?

    - by Michael Pryor
    This question talks about different payment processors and what they cost, but I'm looking for the answer to what do I need to do if I want to accept credit card payments? Assume I need to store credit card numbers for customers, so that the obvious solution of relying on the credit card processor to do the heavy lifting is not available. PCI Data Security, which is apparently the standard for storing credit card info, has a bunch of general requirements, but how does one implement them? And what about the vendors, like Visa, who have their own best practices? Do I need to have keyfob access to the machine? What about physically protecting it from hackers in the building? Or even what if someone got their hands on the backup files with the sql server data files on it? What about backups? Are there other physical copies of that data around? Tip: If you get a merchant account, you should negotiate that they charge you "interchange-plus" instead of tiered pricing. With tiered pricing, they will charge you different rates based on what type of Visa/MC is used -- ie. they charge you more for cards with big rewards attached to them. Interchange plus billing means you only pay the processor what Visa/MC charges them, plus a flat fee. (Amex and Discover charge their own rates directly to merchants, so this doesn't apply to those cards. You'll find Amex rates to be in the 3% range and Discover could be as low as 1%. Visa/MC is in the 2% range). This service is supposed to do the negotiation for you (I haven't used it, this is not an ad, and I'm not affiliated with the website, but this service is greatly needed.) This blog post gives a complete rundown of handling credit cards (specifically for the UK).

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  • Magic Methods in Python

    - by dArignac
    Howdy, I'm kind of new to Python and I wonder if there is a way to create something like the magic methods in PHP (http://www.php.net/manual/en/language.oop5.overloading.php#language.oop5.overloading.methods) My aim is to ease the access of child classes in my model. I basically have a parent class that has n child classes. These classes have three values, a language key, a translation key and a translation value. The are describing a kind of generic translation handling. The parent class can have translations for different translation key each in different languages. E.g. the key "title" can be translated into german and english and the key "description" too (and so far and so on) I don't want to get the child classes and filter by the set values (at least I want but not explicitly, the concrete implementation behind the magic method would do this). I want to call parent_class.title['de'] # or also possible maybe parent_class.title('de') for getting the translation of title in german (de). So there has to be a magic method that takes the name of the called method and their params (as in PHP). As far as I dug into Python this is only possible with simple attributes (_getattr_, _setattr_) or with setting/getting directly within the class (_getitem_, _setitem_) which both do not fit my needs. Maybe there is a solution for this? Please help! Thanks in advance!

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  • Bidirectional replication update record problem

    - by Mirek
    Hi, I would like to present you my problem related to SQL Server 2005 bidirectional replication. What do I need? My teamleader wants to solve one of our problems using bidirectional replication between two databases, each used by different application. One application creates records in table A, changes should replicate to second database into a copy of table A. When data on second server are changed, then those changes have to be propagated back to the first server. I am trying to achieve bidirectional transactional replication between two databases on one server, which is running SQL Server 2005. I have manage to set this up using scripts, established 2 publications and 2 read only subscriptions with loopback detection. Distributtion database is created, publishment on both databases is enabled. Distributor and publisher are up. We are using some rules to control, which records will be replicated, so we need to call our custom stored procedures during replication. So, articles are set to use update, insert and delete custom stored procedures. So far so good, but? Everything works fine, changes are replicating, until updates are done on both tables simultaneously or before changes are replicated (and that takes about 3-6 seconds). Both records then end up with different values. UPDATE db1.dbo.TestTable SET Col = 4 WHERE ID = 1 UPDATE db2.dbo.TestTable SET Col = 5 WHERE ID = 1 results to: db1.dbo.TestTable COL = 5 db2.dbo.TestTable COL = 4 But we want to have last change winning replication. Please, is there a way to solve my problem? How can I ensure same values in both records? Or is there easier solution than this kind of replication? I can provide sample replication script which I am using. I am looking forward for you ideas, Mirek

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  • How to replace custom IDs in the order of their appearance with a shell script?

    - by Péter Török
    I have a pair of rather large log files with very similar content, except that some identifiers are different between the two. A couple of examples: UnifiedClassLoader3@19518cc | UnifiedClassLoader3@d0357a JBossRMIClassLoader@13c2d7f | JBossRMIClassLoader@191777e That is, wherever the first file contains UnifiedClassLoader3@19518cc, the second contains UnifiedClassLoader3@d0357a, and so on. I want to replace these with identical IDs so that I can spot the really important differences between the two files. I.e. I want to replace all occurrences of both UnifiedClassLoader3@19518cc in file1 and UnifiedClassLoader3@d0357a in file2 with UnifiedClassLoader3@1; all occurrences of both JBossRMIClassLoader@13c2d7f in file1 and JBossRMIClassLoader@191777e in file2 with JBossRMIClassLoader@2 etc. Using the Cygwin shell, so far I managed to list all different identifiers occurring in one of the files with grep -o -e 'ClassLoader[0-9]*@[0-9a-f][0-9a-f]*' file1.log | sort | uniq However, now the original order is lost, so I don't know which is the pair of which ID in the other file. With grep -n I can get the line number, so the sort would preserve the order of appearance, but then I can't weed out the duplicate occurrences. Unfortunately grep can not print only the first match of a pattern. I figured I could save the list of identifiers produced by the above command into a file, then iterate over the patterns in the file with grep -n | head -n 1, concatenate the results and sort them again. The result would be something like 2 ClassLoader3@19518cc 137 ClassLoader@13c2d7f 563 ClassLoader3@1267649 ... Then I could (either manually or with sed itself) massage this into a sed command like sed -e 's/ClassLoader3@19518cc/ClassLoader3@2/g' -e 's/ClassLoader@13c2d7f/ClassLoader@137/g' -e 's/ClassLoader3@1267649/ClassLoader3@563/g' file1.log > file1_processed.log and similarly for file2. However, before I start, I would like to verify that my plan is the simplest possible working solution to this. Is there any flaw in this approach? Is there a simpler way?

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