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  • Inserting an element within jQuery Validation plugin's error template

    - by simshaun
    I'm utilizing the jQuery Validation plugin for my form. It lets you change the errorElement and wrap the errorElement using with the wrapper option. But, I want to insert an element within errorElement like this: <label class="error"><em></em>Error message goes here</label> Is there an easy way to accomplish inserting the em tag? I've tried prepending the em tag using the errorPlacement option (see below), but it seems the plugin is replacing the contents of errorElement afterwards. $.validator.setDefaults({ errorPlacement: function(error, element) { error.prepend('<em/>'); error.insertBefore(element); } }); I've also tried prepending the em tag using the showErrors option (see below). Again, it seems the plugin is replacing the contents of errorElement afterwards. $.validator.setDefaults({ showErrors: function(errorMap, errorList) { for (var i = 0; i < errorList.length; i++) { var error = errorList[i], $label = this.errorsFor(error.element), $element = $(error.element); if ($label.length && $label.find('em').length == 0) { $label.prepend('<em/>'); } } this.defaultShowErrors(); } }); I've also tried modifying the plugin so that when the error element is generated, the <em> tag is prepended. That works until I focus on a form element that has an error, after which the em tag is removed. (It's doing this because jQuery validation is constantly updating the contents of the error element as I focus and/or type in the field, therefore erasing my em tag added at error-element creation.)

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  • Using Doctrine to abstract CRUD operations

    - by TomWilsonFL
    This has bothered me for quite a while, but now it is necessity that I find the answer. We are working on quite a large project using CodeIgniter plus Doctrine. Our application has a front end and also an admin area for the company to check/change/delete data. When we designed the front end, we simply consumed most of the Doctrine code right in the controller: //In semi-pseudocode function register() { $data = get_post_data(); if (count($data) && isValid($data)) { $U = new User(); $U->fromArray($data); $U->save(); $C = new Customer(); $C->fromArray($data); $C->user_id = $U->id; $C->save(); redirect_to_next_step(); } } Obviously when we went to do the admin views code duplication began and considering we were in a "get it DONE" mode so it now stinks with code bloat. I have moved a lot of functionality (business logic) into the model using model methods, but the basic CRUD does not fit there. I was going to attempt to place the CRUD into static methods, i.e. Customer::save($array) [would perform both insert and update depending on if prikey is present in array], Customer::delete($id), Customer::getObj($id = false) [if false, get all data]. This is going to become painful though for 32 model objects (and growing). Also, at times models need to interact (as the interaction above between user data and customer data), which can't be done in a static method without breaking encapsulation. I envision adding another layer to this (exposing web services), so knowing there are going to be 3 "controllers" at some point I need to encapsulate this CRUD somewhere (obviously), but are static methods the way to go, or is there another road? Your input is much appreciated.

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  • MySQL FULLTEXT aggravation

    - by southof40
    Hi - I'm having problems with case-sensitivity in MySQL FULLTEXT searches. I've just followed the FULLTEXT example in the MySQL doco at http://dev.mysql.com/doc/refman/5.1/en/fulltext-boolean.html . I'll post it here for ease of reference ... CREATE TABLE articles ( id INT UNSIGNED AUTO_INCREMENT NOT NULL PRIMARY KEY, title VARCHAR(200), body TEXT, FULLTEXT (title,body) ); INSERT INTO articles (title,body) VALUES ('MySQL Tutorial','DBMS stands for DataBase ...'), ('How To Use MySQL Well','After you went through a ...'), ('Optimizing MySQL','In this tutorial we will show ...'), ('1001 MySQL Tricks','1. Never run mysqld as root. 2. ...'), ('MySQL vs. YourSQL','In the following database comparison ...'), ('MySQL Security','When configured properly, MySQL ...'); SELECT * FROM articles WHERE MATCH (title,body) AGAINST ('database' IN NATURAL LANGUAGE MODE); ... my problem is that the example shows that SELECT returning the first and fifth rows ('..DataBase..' and '..database..') but I only get one row ('database') ! The example doesn't demonstrate what collation the table in the example had but I have ended up with latin1_general_cs on the title and body columns of my example table. My version of MySQL is 5.1.39-log and the connection collation is utf8_unicode_ci . I'd be really grateful is someone could suggest why my experience differs from the example in the manual ! Be grateful for any advice.

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  • How to get resultset with stored procedure calls over two linked servers?

    - by räph
    I have problems filling a temporary table with the resultset from a procedure call on a linked server, in which again a procedure on another server is called. I have a Stored Procedure sproc1 with the following code, which calls another procedure sproc2 on a linked server. SET @sqlCommand = 'INSERT INTO #tblTemp ( ModuleID, ParamID) ' + '( SELECT * FROM OPENQUERY(' + @targetServer + ', ' + '''SET FMTONLY OFF; EXEC ' + @targetDB + '.usr.sproc2 ' + @param + ''' ) )' exec ( @sqlCommand ) Now in the called sproc2 I again call a third procedure sproc3 on another linked server, which returns my resultset. SET @sqlCommand = 'EXEC ' + @targetServer +'.database.usr.sproc3 ' + @param exec ( @sqlCommand ) The whole thing doen't work, as I get an SQL error 7391 The operation could not be performed because OLE DB provider "%ls" for linked server "%ls" was unable to begin a distributed transaction. I already checked the hints at this microsoft article, but without success. But maybe, I can change the code in sproc1. Would there be some alternative to the temp table and the open query? Just calling stored procedures from server A to B to C and returning the resultset is working (I do this often in the application). But this special case with the temp table and openquery doesn't work! Or is it just not possible what I am trying to do? The microsft article states: Check the object you refer on the destination server. If it is a view or a stored procedure, or causes an execution of a trigger, check whether it implicitly references another server. If so, the third server is the source of the problem. Run the query directly on the third server. If you cannot run the query directly on the third server, the problem is not actually with the linked server query. Resolve the underlying problem first. Is this my case? PS: I can't avoid the architecture with the three servers.

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  • acts_as_xapian jobs table

    - by Grnbeagle
    Hi, Can someone explain to me the inner workings of acts_as_xapian_jobs table? I ran into an issue with the acts_as_xapian plugin recently, where I kept getting the following error when it creates an object with xapian indexed fields: Mysql::Error: Duplicate entry 'String-2147483647' for key 2: INSERT INTO `acts_as_xapian_jobs` (`action`, `model`, `model_id`) VALUES ('update', 'String', 23730251831560) It turns out the model_id exceeded the max int value of 2147483647. The workaround was to update model_id to use bigint. Why would the model_id be so huge? By looking at content of acts_as_xapian_jobs, it seems it creates a row for every field that is being indexed.. Understanding how a job gets created in the table would help a great deal. Here's a sampling of the table: mysql> select * from acts_as_xapian_jobs limit 5\G *************************** 1. row *************************** id: 19 model: String model_id: 23804037900560 action: update *************************** 2. row *************************** id: 49 model: String model_id: 23804037191200 action: update *************************** 3. row *************************** id: 79 model: String model_id: 23804037932180 action: update *************************** 4. row *************************** id: 109 model: String model_id: 23804037101700 action: update *************************** 5. row *************************** id: 139 model: String model_id: 23804037722160 action: update Thanks in advance, Amie

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  • Fastest way to convert a list of doubles to a unique list of integers?

    - by javanix
    I am dealing with a MySQL table here that is keyed in a somewhat unfortunate way. Instead of using an auto increment table as a key, it uses a column of decimals to preserve order (presumably so its not too difficult to insert new rows while preserving a primary key and order). Before I go through and redo this table to something more sane, I need to figure out how to rekey it without breaking everything. What I would like to do is something that takes a list of doubles (the current keys) and outputs a list of integers (which can be cast down to doubles for rekeying). For example, input {1.00, 2.00, 2.50, 2.60, 3.00} would give output {1, 2, 3, 4, 5). Since this is a database, I also need to be able to update the rows nicely: UPDATE table SET `key`='3.00' WHERE `key`='2.50'; Can anyone think of a speedy algorithm to do this? My current thought is to read all of the doubles into a vector, take the size of the vector, and output a new vector with values from 1 => doubleVector.size. This seems pretty slow, since you wouldn't want to read every value into the vector if, for instance, only the last n/100 elements needed to be modified. I think there is probably something I can do in place, since only values after the first non-integer double need to be modified, but I can't for the life of me figure anything out that would let me update in place as well. For instance, setting 2.60 to 3.00 the first time you see 2.50 in the original key list would result in an error, since the key value 3.00 is already used for the table.

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  • Spring MVC + Hibernate encoding problem

    - by Bar
    I work on Spring MVC + Hibernate application, use MySQL (ver. 5.0.51a) with the InnoDB engine. The problem appears when I am sending a form with cyrillic characters. As the result, database contains senseless chars in unknown encoding. All the JSP pages, database (+ tables and fields) created using UTF-8. Hibernate config also contains property which sets encoding to UTF-8. I had solved this by creating filter which encodes request content with UTF-8. Exemplary code: … encoding = "UTF-8"; request.setCharacterEncoding(encoding); chain.doFilter(request, response); … But it visibly slows down the app. The interesting thing is that executing insert query directly from the app (i.e. running from Eclipse as Java Application) works perfect. Any suggestions are welcome. TIA, Michael.

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  • How would you mask data returned in a Dynamic Data for Entities website?

    - by David Stratton
    I'm doing this in Visual Studio 2008, not 2010, in case there is a relevant difference between the two versions of the Dynamic Data websites. How would I mask data in the automatically generated tables in a Dynamic Data for Entities website? The scenario is we have one table where we want to allow users to ENTER sensitive data, but not VIEW sensitive data, so... (In the list below, I'm using "template" to mean "The web page generated automatically based on the schema and action. I'm sure that's the wrong terminology, but the meaning should be clear.) The "Insert" template should have the field's textbox available for the user to type a value in. The "Edit" template should have the field's textbox blanked out (empty string) regardless of what was in the field in the database in the first place, but the user should be able to type in new data and have it save The "View" template should either have the data for this field masked, or non-visible. The auto-generated table showing the list of records should also have this field masked or non-visible. I can do this easily with standard Web Forms, but I'm having a hard time figuring this out in the Dynamic Data site I'm working on. Masking data is such a common task, I have to believe Microsoft thought of this and provided a way to do it...

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  • Strange XCode debugger behavior with UITableView datasource

    - by Tarfa
    Hey guys. I've got a perplexing issue. In my subclassed UITableViewController my datasource methods lose their tableview reference depending on lines of code I put inside the method. For example, in this code block: - (NSInteger)numberOfSectionsInTableView:(UITableView *)tableView { // Return the number of sections. return 3; } - (NSInteger)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView numberOfRowsInSection:(NSInteger)section { // Return the number of rows in the section. return 5; } // Customize the appearance of table view cells. - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { id i = tableView; static NSString *CellIdentifier = @"Cell"; UITableViewCell *cell = [tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:CellIdentifier]; if (cell == nil) { cell = [[[UITableViewCell alloc] initWithStyle:UITableViewCellStyleDefault reuseIdentifier:CellIdentifier] autorelease]; } // Configure the cell... return cell; } the "id i = tableView;" causes the tableview to become nil (0x0) -- and it causes it to be nil before I ever start stepping into the method. If I insert an assignment statement above the "id i = tableview;" statement: CGFloat x = 5.0; id i = tableView; then tableview retains its pointer (i.e. is not nil) if I place the breakpoint after the "id i = tableView;" line. In other words, the breakpoint must be set after the "id i = tableView"; assignment in order for tableView to retain its pointer. If the breakpoint is set before the assignment is made and I just hang at that breakpoint for a bit then after a couple of seconds the console logs this error message: Assertion failed: (cls), function getName, file /SourceCache/objc4_Sim/objc4-427.5/runtime/objc-runtime-new.mm, line 3990. Although the code works when I don't step through the method, I need my debugger to work! It makes programming kind of challenging when your debugging tools become your enemy. Anyone know what the cause and solution are? Thanks.

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  • why DataColumn AllowDbNull is true even if oracle db does not allow null

    - by matti
    Hi. I have column SomeId in table SomeLink. When I look with tOra or Sql Plus Worksheet both state: tOra: Column name Data type Default Null Comment SOMEID INTEGER {null} NOT NULL {null} Sql Plus: SOMEID NOT NULL NUMBER(38) I have authored a method that's intended to give default values to all NOT NULL fields that don't have values: public static void GetDefaultValuesForNonNullColumns(DataRow row) { foreach(DataColumn col in row.Table.Columns) { if (Convert.IsDBNull(row[col]) && !col.AllowDBNull) { if (ColumnIsNumeric(col.DataType)) row[col] = 0; else if (col.DataType == typeof(DateTime)) row[col] = DateTime.Now; else if (col.DataType == typeof(String)) row[col] = string.Empty; else if (col.DataType == typeof(Char)) row[col] = ' '; else throw new Exception(string.Format("Unsupported column type: {0}", col.DataType)); } } } When SOMEID is handled in loop the AllowDBNull = true. I really can't understand. The table is created in DataSet like this: _someLinkAdptr = _dbFactory.CreateDataAdapter(); _someLinkAdptr.SelectCommand = _dbFactory.CreateCommand(); _someLinkAdptr.SelectCommand.Connection = _cnctn; _someLinkAdptr.SelectCommand.CommandText = GetSomeLinkSelectTxtAndParams(_someLinkAdptr.SelectCommand, UndefinedValue.ToString(), UndefinedValue.ToString()); Select command returns no rows. The idea is that I can then use commandbuilder to get InsertCommand without building it myself. The row is added to dataset's table like this: private static void CreateDocLink(int anId, int anotherId) { DataRow row = _someDataSet.Tables["SomeLink"].NewRow(); row["AnId"] = anId; row["AnotherId"] = anotherId; Utility.GetDefaultValuesForNonNullColumns(row); _someDataSet.Tables["SomeLink"].Rows.Add(row); } When DataAdapter is updated to oracle db I get: ORA-01400: cannot insert NULL into (SOMESCHEMA.SOMELINK.SOMEID) Cheers & BR -Matti

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  • Name for method that takes a string value and returns DBNull.Value || string

    - by David Murdoch
    I got tired of writing the following code: /* Commenting out irrelevant parts public string MiddleName; public void Save(){ SqlCommand = new SqlCommand(); // blah blah...boring INSERT statement with params etc go here. */ if(MiddleName==null){ myCmd.Parameters.Add("@MiddleName", DBNull.Value); } else{ myCmd.Parameters.Add("@MiddleName", MiddleName); } /* // more boring code to save to DB. }*/ So, I wrote this: public static object DBNullValueorStringIfNotNull(string value) { object o; if (value == null) { o = DBNull.Value; } else { o = value; } return o; } // which would be called like: myCmd.Parameters.Add("@MiddleName", DBNullValueorStringIfNotNull(MiddleName)); If this is a good way to go about doing this then what would you suggest as the method name? DBNullValueorStringIfNotNull is a bit verbose and confusing. I'm also open to ways to alleviate this problem entirely. I'd LOVE to do this: myCmd.Parameters.Add("@MiddleName", MiddleName==null ? DBNull.Value : MiddleName); but that won't work. I've got C# 3.5 and SQL Server 2005 at my disposal if it matters.

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  • Stored procedure woes ... inserting binary ...

    - by Wardy
    Ok so I have this storedproc in my SQL 2008 database (works in 2005 too / used to) ... CREATE PROCEDURE [dbo].[SetBinaryContent] @Ref nvarchar(50), @Content varbinary(MAX), @ObjectID uniqueidentifier AS BEGIN DELETE ObjectContent WHERE ObjectId = @ObjectID AND Ref = @Ref IF DATALENGTH(@Content) > 5 BEGIN INSERT INTO ObjectContent (Ref,BinaryContent,ObjectId) VALUES (@Ref,@Content,@ObjectId) END UPDATE Objects SET [Status] = 1 WHERE ID = @ObjectID END Relatively simple, I take a byte array in C# and chuck it in @Content i then give it a guid and string for the other params and off we go. ... Great, it used to work ... but it don't anymore ... so erm ... What's wrong with this stored proc? I've stepped through my C# code thinking I screwed up somehow in that but it definately adds the params and gives them the correct values so what would cause the server to just stop executing this storedproc correctly? When called this proc executes but nothing changes in the db ... no new records are added to the ObjectContent table. Weird huh ...

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  • How to preserve order of temp table rows when inner joined with another table?

    - by Triynko
    Does an SQL Server "join" preserve any kind of row order consistently (i.e. that of the left table or that of the right table)? Psuedocode: create table #p (personid bigint); foreach (id in personid_list) insert into #p (personid) values (id) select id from users inner join #p on users.personid = #p.id Suppose I have a list of IDs that correspond to person entries. Each of those IDs may correspond to zero or more user accounts (since each person can have multiple accounts). To quickly select columns from the users table, I populate a temp table with person ids, then inner join it with the users table. I'm looking for an efficient way to ensure that the order of the results in the join matches the order of the ids as they were inserted into the temp table, so that the user list that's returned is in the same order as the person list as it was entered. I've considered the following alternatives: using "#p inner join users", in case the left table's order is preserved using "#p left join users where id is not null", in case a left join preserves order and the inner join doesn't using "create table (rownum int, personid bigint)", inserting an incrementing row number as the temp table is populated, so the results can be ordered by rownum in the join using an SQL Server equivalent of the "order by order of [tablename]" clause available in DB2 I'm currently using option 3, and it works... but I hate the idea of using an order by clause for something that's already ordered. I just don't know if the temp table preserves the order in which the rows were inserted or how the join operates and what order the results come out in.

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  • problem when cloning jQuery UI datepicker

    - by h3
    I have a div in which there is a datepicker. I use something like this to clone it: mydiv = $('#someDiv'); // works fine so far mydiv.find('input.datefield').datepicker(); // clone without the events and insert newDiv = myDiv.clone(false).insertAfter(myDiv); // datepicker won't re-init if this class is present newDiv.find('.hadDatepicker').removeClass('hadDatepicker'); // reinitialize datepicker newDiv.find('input.datefield').datepicker(); This is a stripped down version of my code. It works and the calendar shows up as expected where it is expected .. but when a date is clicked, the previous datepicker's value gets updated.. (the one from which it was cloned). I've tried to destroy the (inexisting) instance before like this: newDiv.find('input.datefield').datepicker('destroy').datepicker(); No luck .. I've checked how it keeps track of instances and manually cleared the data like this: newDiv.find('input.datefield').data('datepicker', false).datepicker('destroy').datepicker(); Still no luck. What I don't understand is that only the date selection behavior is buggy, everything else works as expected. I really don't know what else to check now ..

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  • User control always crashes Visual Studio

    - by NickAldwin
    I'm trying to open a user control in one of our projects. It was created, I believe, in VS 2003, and the project has been converted to VS2008. I can view the code fine, but when I try to load the designer view, VS stops responding and I have to close it with the task manager. I have tried leaving it running for several minutes, but it does not do anything. I ran "devenv /log" but didn't see anything unusual in the log. I can't find a specific error message anywhere. Any idea what the problem might be? Is there a lightweight editing mode I might be able to use or something? The reason I need to have a look at the visual representation of this control is to decide where to insert some new components. I've tried googling it and searching SO, but either I don't know what to search or there is nothing out there about this. Any help is appreciated. (The strangest thing is that the user control seems to load fine in another project which references, but VS crashes as soon as I even so much as click on it in that project.)

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  • MySQL Normalization stored procedure performance

    - by srkiNZ84
    Hi, I've written a stored procedure in MySQL to take values currently in a table and to "Normalize" them. This means that for each value passed to the stored procedure, it checks whether the value is already in the table. If it is, then it stores the id of that row in a variable. If the value is not in the table, it stores the newly inserted value's id. The stored procedure then takes the id's and inserts them into a table which is equivalent to the original de-normailized table, but this table is fully normalized and consists of mainly foreign keys. My problem with this design is that the stored procedure takes approximately 10ms or so to return, which is too long when you're trying to work through some 10million records. My suspicion is that the performance is to do with the way in which I'm doing the inserts. i.e. INSERT INTO TableA (first_value) VALUES (argument_from_sp) ON DUPLICATE KEY UPDATE id=LAST_INSERT_ID(id); SET @TableAId = LAST_INSERT_ID(); The "ON DUPLICATE KEY UPDATE" is a bit of a hack, due to the fact that on a duplicate key I don't want to update anything but rather just return the id value of the row. If you miss this step though, the LAST_INSERT_ID() function returns the wrong value when you're trying to run the "SET ..." statement. Does anyone know of a better way to do this in MySQL? Thank you

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  • Clustered index - multi-part vs single-part index and effects of inserts/deletes

    - by Anssssss
    This question is about what happens with the reorganizing of data in a clustered index when an insert is done. I assume that it should be more expensive to do inserts on a table which has a clustered index than one that does not because reorganizing the data in a clustered index involves changing the physical layout of the data on the disk. I'm not sure how to phrase my question except through an example I came across at work. Assume there is a table (Junk) and there are two queries that are done on the table, the first query searches by Name and the second query searches by Name and Something. As I'm working on the database I discovered that the table has been created with two indexes, one to support each query, like so: --drop table Junk1 CREATE TABLE Junk1 ( Name char(5), Something char(5), WhoCares int ) CREATE CLUSTERED INDEX IX_Name ON Junk1 ( Name ) CREATE NONCLUSTERED INDEX IX_Name_Something ON Junk1 ( Name, Something ) Now when I looked at the two indexes, it seems that IX_Name is redundant since IX_Name_Something can be used by any query that desires to search by Name. So I would eliminate IX_Name and make IX_Name_Something the clustered index instead: --drop table Junk2 CREATE TABLE Junk2 ( Name char(5), Something char(5), WhoCares int ) CREATE CLUSTERED INDEX IX_Name_Something ON Junk2 ( Name, Something ) Someone suggested that the first indexing scheme should be kept since it would result in more efficient inserts/deletes (assume that there is no need to worry about updates for Name and Something). Would that make sense? I think the second indexing method would be better since it means one less index needs to be maintained. I would appreciate any insight into this specific example or directing me to more info on maintenance of clustered indexes.

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  • FluentNHibernate, getting 1 column from another table

    - by puffpio
    We're using FluentNHibernate and we have run into a problem where our object model requires data from two tables like so: public class MyModel { public virtual int Id { get; set; } public virtual string Name { get; set; } public virtual int FooId { get; set; } public virtual string FooName { get; set; } } Where there is a MyModel table that has Id, Name, and FooId as a foreign key into the Foo table. The Foo tables contains Id and FooName. This problem is very similar to another post here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1896645/nhibernate-join-tables-and-get-single-column-from-other-table but I am trying to figure out how to do it with FluentNHibernate. I can make the Id, Name, and FooId very easily..but mapping FooName I am having trouble with. This is my class map: public class MyModelClassMap : ClassMap<MyModel> { public MyModelClassMap() { this.Id(a => a.Id).Column("AccountId").GeneratedBy.Identity(); this.Map(a => a.Name); this.Map(a => a.FooId); // my attempt to map FooName but it doesn't work this.Join("Foo", join => join.KeyColumn("FooId").Map(a => a.FooName)); } } with that mapping I get this error: The element 'class' in namespace 'urn:nhibernate-mapping-2.2' has invalid child element 'join' in namespace 'urn:nhibernate-mapping-2.2'. List of possible elements expected: 'joined-subclass, loader, sql-insert, sql-update, sql-delete, filter, resultset, query, sql-query' in namespace 'urn:nhibernate-mapping-2.2'. any ideas?

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  • Long running operations (threads) in a web (asp.net) environment

    - by rrejc
    I have an asp.net (mvc) web site. As the part of the functions I will have to support some long running operations, for example: Initiated from user: User can upload (xml) file to the server. On the server I need to extract file, do some manipulation (insert into the db) etc... This can take from one minute to ten minutes (or even more - depends on file size). Of course I don't want to block the request when the import is running , but I want to redirect user to some progress page where he will have a chance to watch the status, errors or even cancel the import. This operation will not be frequently used, but it may happen that two users at the same time will try to import the data. It would be nice to run the imports in parallel. At the beginning I was thinking to create a new thread in the iis (controller action) and run the import in a new thread. But I am not sure if this is a good idea (to create working threads on a web server). Should I use windows services or any other approach? Initiated from system: - I will have to periodically update lucene index with the new data. - I will have to send mass emails (in the future). Should I implement this as a job in the site and run the job via Quartz.net or should I also create a windows service or something? What are the best practices when it comes to running site "jobs"? Thanks!

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  • Opaque tenant identification with SQL Server & NHibernate

    - by Anton Gogolev
    Howdy! We're developing a nowadays-fashionable multi-tenanted SaaS app (shared database, shared schema), and there's one thing I don't like about it: public class Domain : BusinessObject { public virtual long TenantID { get; set; } public virtual string Name { get; set; } } The TenantID is driving me nuts, as it has to be accounted for almost everywhere, and it's a hassle from security standpoint: what happens if a malicious API user changes TenantID to some other value and will mix things up. What I want to do is to get rid of this TenantID in our domain objects altogether, and to have either NHibernate or SQL Server deal with it. From what I've already read on the Internets, this can be done with CONTEXT_INFO (here's a NHibernatebased implementation), NHibernate filters, SQL Views and with combination thereof. Now, my requirements are as follows: Remove any mentions of TenantID from domain objects ...but have SQL Server insert it where appropriate (I guess this is achieved with default constraints) ...and obviously provide support for filtering based on this criteria, so that customers will never see each other's data If possible, avoid SQL Server views. Have a solution which plays nicely with NHibernate, SQL Servers' MARS and general nature of SaaS apps being highly concurrent What are your thoughts on that?

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  • Synchronizing Access to a member of the ASP.NET session

    - by Sam
    I'm building a Javascript application and eash user has an individual UserSession. The application makes a bunch of Ajax calls. Each Ajax call needs access to a single UserSession object for the user. Each Ajax call needs a UserSession object. Data in the UserSession object is unique to each user. Originally, during each Ajax call I would create a new UserSession object and it's data members were stored in the ASP.NET Session. However, I found that the UserSession object was being instantiated a lot. To minimize the construction of the UserSession object, I wrapped it in a Singleton pattern and sychronized access to it. I believe that the synchronization is happening application wide, however I only need it to happen per user. I saw a post here that says the ASP.NET cache is synchronized, however the time between creating the object and inserting it into the cache another Thread could start construction it's another object and insert it into the cache. Here is the way I'm currently synchronizing access to the object. Is there a better way than using "lock"... should be be locking on the HttpContext.Session object? private static object SessionLock = new object(); public static WebSession GetSession { get { lock (SessionLock) { try { var context = HttpContext.Current; WebSession result = null; if (context.Session["MySession"] == null) { result = new WebSession(context); context.Session["MySession"] = result; } else { result = (WebSession)context.Session["MySession"]; } return result; } catch (Exception ex) { ex.Handle(); return null; } } } }

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  • Inserting bits into byte

    - by JB_SO
    I was looking at an example of reading bits from a byte and the implementation looked simple and easy to understand. I was wondering if anyone has a similar example of how to insert bits into a byte or byte array, that is easier to understand and also implement like the example below. Here is the example I found of reading bits from a byte (http://bytes.com/topic/c-sharp/answers/505085-reading-bits-byte-file): static int GetBits3(byte b, int offset, int count) { return (b >> offset) & ((1 << count) - 1); } Here is what i'm trying to do....and this is my current implementation.....just a little confused with the bit-masking/shifting, etc, that's why I'm trying to find out if there is an easier way to do what i'm doing BYTE Msg[2]; Msg_Id = 3; Msg_Event = 1; Msg_Ready = 2; Msg[0] = ( ( Msg_Event << 4 ) & 0xF0 ) | ( Msg_Id & 0x0F ) ; Msg[1] = Msg_Ready & 0x0F; //MsgReady & Unused Thanks for your help!

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  • Can I delay the keyup event for jquery?

    - by Paul
    I'm using the rottentomatoes movie API in conjunction with twitter's typeahead plugin using bootstrap 2.0. I've been able to integerate the API but the issue I'm having is that after every keyup event the API gets called. This is all fine and dandy but I would rather make the call after a small pause allowing the user to type in several characters first. Here is my current code that calls the API after a keyup event: var autocomplete = $('#searchinput').typeahead() .on('keyup', function(ev){ ev.stopPropagation(); ev.preventDefault(); //filter out up/down, tab, enter, and escape keys if( $.inArray(ev.keyCode,[40,38,9,13,27]) === -1 ){ var self = $(this); //set typeahead source to empty self.data('typeahead').source = []; //active used so we aren't triggering duplicate keyup events if( !self.data('active') && self.val().length > 0){ self.data('active', true); //Do data request. Insert your own API logic here. $.getJSON("http://api.rottentomatoes.com/api/public/v1.0/movies.json?callback=?&apikey=MY_API_KEY&page_limit=5",{ q: encodeURI($(this).val()) }, function(data) { //set this to true when your callback executes self.data('active',true); //Filter out your own parameters. Populate them into an array, since this is what typeahead's source requires var arr = [], i=0; var movies = data.movies; $.each(movies, function(index, movie) { arr[i] = movie.title i++; }); //set your results into the typehead's source self.data('typeahead').source = arr; //trigger keyup on the typeahead to make it search self.trigger('keyup'); //All done, set to false to prepare for the next remote query. self.data('active', false); }); } } }); Is it possible to set a small delay and avoid calling the API after every keyup?

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  • replace a random word of a string with a random replacement

    - by tpickett
    I am developing a script that takes an article, searches the article for a "keyword" and then randomly replaces that keyword with an anchor link. I have the script working as it should, however I need to be able to have an array of "replacements" for the function to loop through and insert at the random location. So the first random position would get anchor link #1. The second random position would get anchor link #2. The third random position would get anchor link #3. etc... I found half of the answer to my question here: PHP replace a random word of a string public function replace_random ($str, $search, $replace, $n) { // Get all occurences of $search and their offsets within the string $count = preg_match_all('/\b'.preg_quote($search, '/').'\b/', $str, $matches, PREG_OFFSET_CAPTURE); // Get string length information so we can account for replacement strings that are of a different length to the search string $searchLen = strlen($search); $diff = strlen($replace) - $searchLen; $offset = 0; // Loop $n random matches and replace them, if $n < 1 || $n > $count, replace all matches $toReplace = ($n < 1 || $n > $count) ? array_keys($matches[0]) : (array) array_rand($matches[0], $n); foreach ($toReplace as $match) { $str = substr($str, 0, $matches[0][$match][1] + $offset).$replace.substr($str, $matches[0][$match][1] + $searchLen + $offset); $offset += $diff; } return $str; } So my question is, How can i alter this function to accept an array for the $replace variable?

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  • How to upload files and store them in a server local path when MS SQL SERVER allows remote connectio

    - by user193655
    I am developing a win32 windows application with Delphi and MS SQL Server. it works fine in LAN but I am trying to add the support for SQL Server remote connections (= working with a DB that can be accessed with an external IP, as described in this article: http://support.microsoft.com/default.aspx?scid=kb;EN-US;914277). Basically I have a Table in DB where I keep the DocumentID, the document description and the Document path (like \FILESERVER\MyApplicationDocuments\45.zip). Of course \FILESERVER is a local (LAN) path for the server but not for the client (as I am now trying to add the support for remote connections). So I need a way to access \FILESERVER even if of course I cannot see it in LAN. I found the following T-SQL code snippet that is perfect for the "download trick": SELECT BulkColumn as MyFile FROM OPENROWSET(BULK '\FILESERVER\MyApplicationDocuments\45.zip' , SINGLE_BLOB) AS X With the code above I can download a file on the client. But how to upload it? I need an "Uppload trick" to be able to insert new files, but also to delete or replace existing files. Can anyone suggest? If a trick is not available could you suggest an alternative? Like an extended stored procedure or calling some .net assembly from the server.

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