Search Results

Search found 11009 results on 441 pages for 'third party integration'.

Page 367/441 | < Previous Page | 363 364 365 366 367 368 369 370 371 372 373 374  | Next Page >

• Paramaterising SQL in SSIS

  - by Anonymouslemming

  Hi all, I'm trying to paramaterize some queries in SSIS. After some reading, it sounds like my best option is to create one variable that contains my base sql, another that contains my criteria and a final variable that is evaluated as an expression that includes both of these. I want to end up with an SQL query that is effectively UPDATE mytable set something='bar' where something_else='foo' So my first two variables have the scope of my package and are as follows: Name: BaseSQL Data Type: String Value: UPDATE mytable set something = 'bar' where something_else = Name: MyVariable Data Type: String Value: foo My third variable has a scope of the data flow task where I want to use this SQL and is as follows: Name: SQLQuery Data Type: String Value: @[User::BaseSQL] + "'" + @[User::MyVariable] + "'" EvaluateAsExpression: True In the OLE DB Source, I then choose my connection and 'SQL command from variable' and select User::SQLQuery from the dropdown box. The Variable Value window then displays the following: @[User::BaseSQL] + "'" + @[User::MyVariable] + "'" This is as desired, and would provide the output I want from my DB. The variable name dropdown also contains User::BaseSQL and User::MyVariable so I believe that my namespaces are correct. However, when I then click preview, I get the following error when configuring an OLE DB Source (using SQL command from variable): TITLE: Microsoft Visual Studio Error at Set runtime in DB [Set runtime in myDb DB [1]]: SSIS Error Code DTS_E_OLEDBERROR. An OLE DB error has occurred. Error code: 0x80040E14. An OLE DB record is available. Source: "Microsoft SQL Server Native Client 10.0" Hresult: 0x80040E14 Description: "Statement(s) could not be prepared.". An OLE DB record is available. Source: "Microsoft SQL Server Native Client 10.0" Hresult: 0x80040E14 Description: "Must declare the scalar variable "@".". (Microsoft Visual Studio) Can anyone advise what I'm missing or how I can resolve this please ? Thanks in advance!

  Read the article

• MySQL Gurus: How to pull a complex grid of data from MySQL database with one query?

  - by iopener

  Hopefully this is less complex than I think. I have one table of companies, and another table of jobs, and a third table with that contains a single entry for each employee in each job from each company. NOTE: Some companies won't have employees in some jobs, and some companies will have more than one employee in some jobs. The company table has a companyid and companyname field, the job table has a jobid and jobtitle field, and the employee table has employeeid, companyid, jobid and employeename fields. I want to build a table like this: +-----------+-----------+-----------+ | Company A | Company B | Company C | ------+-----------+-----------+-----------+ Job A | Emp 1 | Emp 2 | | ------+-----------+-----------+-----------+ Job B | Emp 3 | | Emp 4 | | | | Emp 5 | ------+-----------+-----------+-----------+ Job C | | Emp 6 | | | | Emp 7 | | | | Emp 8 | | ------+-----------+-----------+-----------+ I had previously been looping through a result set of jobs, and for each job, looping through a result set of each company, and for each company, looping through each employee and printing it in a table (gross, but performance was not supposed to be a consideration). The app has grown in popularity, and now we have 100 companies and hundreds of jobs, and the server is crapping out (all the id fields are indexed). Any suggestions on how to write a single query to get this data? I don't need the company names or job titles (obviously), but I do need some way to identify where each row from the result should be printed. I'm imagining a result set that just contained a long list of joined employees, and I could write a loop to use the companyid and employeeid values to tell me when to create a new cell or table row. This works as long as there aren't ZERO employees; I would need a NULL employee name for that I think? Am I completely on the wrong track? Thanks in advance for any ideas!

  Read the article

• PDO prepare silently fails

  - by Wabbitseason

  I'm experimenting with PHP's session_set_save_handler and I'd like to use a PDO connection to store session data. I have this function as a callback for write actions: function _write($id, $data) { logger('_WRITE ' . $id . ' ' . $data); try { $access = time(); $sql = 'REPLACE INTO sessions SET id=:id, access=:access, data=:data'; logger('This is the last line in this function that appears in the log.'); $stmt = $GLOBALS['db']->prepare($sql); logger('This never gets logged! :('); $stmt->bindParam(':id', $id, PDO::PARAM_STR); $stmt->bindParam(':access', $access, PDO::PARAM_INT); $stmt->bindParam(':data', $data, PDO::PARAM_STR); $stmt->execute(); $stmt->closeCursor(); return true; } catch (PDOException $e) { logger('This is never executed.'); logger($e->getTraceAsString()); } } The first two log messages always show up, but the third one right after $stmt = $GLOBALS['db']->prepare($sql) never makes it to the log file and there's no trace of an exception either. The sessions db table remains empty. The log message from the _close callback is always present. Here's how I connect to the database: $db = new PDO('mysql:host=' . DBHOST . ';dbname=' . DBNAME, DBUSER, DBPASS); $db->setAttribute(PDO::ATTR_ERRMODE, PDO::ERRMODE_EXCEPTION); I have PHP 5.2.10. I tried to simply run $GLOBALS['db']->exec($sql) with a "manually prepared" $sql content, but it still failed silently. The query itself is all right I was able to execute it via the db console.

  Read the article

• Dual usage of asp.net mvc and php under same domain

  - by jim

  Hello all, I've got a scenario where we have a customer who has a linux hosted php app (joomla) that they wish to integrate with some back-end asp.net mvc functionality that was created for a 'sister' site. Basically, the mvc site has prices and stock availability methods which (in the sister site) populates dropdown lists and other 'order' style info on the pages. I've been tasked with looking at the integration options to allow the php site to use this info as a 'service'. (as ever, these guys are looking at cost of ownership, maintenence etc, so this is their preferred route) Has anyone done anything similar with success?? I'd imagine (much like the sister site) liberal doses of ajax will be employed in order to populate portions of the page on demand. So this may have a bearing on any suggestions that you may have. Also, the methods that are being called ultimately end up populating the same database, so there are no issues with correlating the ID's across the different platforms. I don't really want to go down any 'iframe' type route if at all possible, tho' reality may dictate this as being an option. I'm possibly (naively) imagining that i could simply invoke the mvc functions directly from the php app with some sort of 'session' variable being passed for authentication. pretty tall order or pretty straightfwd?? cheers jim

  Read the article

• How do I detect if both left and right buttons are pushed?

  - by Greg McGuffey

  I would like have three mouse actions over a control: left, right and BOTH. I've got the left and right and am currently using the middle button for the third, but am curious how I could use the left and right buttons being pressed together, for those situations where the user has a mouse without a middle button. This would be handled in the OnMouseDown method of a custom control. UPDATE After reviewing the suggested answers, I need to clarify that what I was attempting to do was to take action on the mouse click in the MouseDown event (actually OnMouseDown method of a control). Because it appears that .NET will always raise two MouseDown events when both the left and right buttons on the mouse are clicked (one for each button), I'm guessing the only way to do this would be either do some low level windows message management or to implement some sort of delayed execution of an action after MouseDown. In the end, it is just way simpler to use the middle mouse button. Now, if the action took place on MouseUp, then Gary's or nos's suggestions would work well. Any further insights on this problem would be appreciated. Thanks!

  Read the article

• flash creates more than one http request

  - by MilanAleksic

  We are facing one issue directly connected with our Flash API we've given to a 3rd party flash vendor. To make a long story short, our API basically wraps domain logic on client and creates a single POST request towards the server in JSON format. All will be ok except in combination MacOS + Safari we receive double requests on server (?). Even more interesting, we are receiving different agent names - one is expected name/decriptor of the browser and system, other is "CFNetwork". POST /RuntimeDelegate.ashx - 80 Mozilla/5.0+(Macintosh;+U;+Intel+Mac+OS+X+10_4_11;+fr)+AppleWebKit/531.22.7+(KHTML,+like+Gecko)+Version/4.0.5+Safari/531.22.7 200 0 0 POST /RuntimeDelegate.ashx - 80 CFNetwork/129.24 200 0 0 POST /RuntimeDelegate.ashx - 80 Mozilla/5.0+(Macintosh;+U;+Intel+Mac+OS+X+10_4_11;+fr)+AppleWebKit/531.22.7+(KHTML,+like+Gecko)+Version/4.0.5+Safari/531.22.7 200 0 0 POST /RuntimeDelegate.ashx - 80 Mozilla/5.0+(Macintosh;+U;+Intel+Mac+OS+X+10_4_11;+fr)+AppleWebKit/531.22.7+(KHTML,+like+Gecko)+Version/4.0.5+Safari/531.22.7 200 0 0 POST /RuntimeDelegate.ashx - 80 CFNetwork/129.24 200 0 0 POST /RuntimeDelegate.ashx - 80 Mozilla/5.0+(Macintosh;+U;+Intel+Mac+OS+X+10_4_11;+fr)+AppleWebKit/531.22.7+(KHTML,+like+Gecko)+Version/4.0.5+Safari/531.22.7 200 0 0 POST /RuntimeDelegate.ashx - 80 CFNetwork/129.24 200 0 0 POST /RuntimeDelegate.ashx - 80 CFNetwork/129.24 200 0 0 Has anyone encounter anything like this before?

  Read the article

• super light software development process

  - by Walty

  hi, For the development process I have involved so far, most have teams of SINGLE member, or occasionally two. We used python + django for the major development, the development process is actually very fast, and we do have code reviews, design pattern discussions, and constant refactoring. Though team size is small, I do think there are some development processes / best practices that could be enforced. For example, using svn would be definitely better than regular copy backup. I did read some articles & books about Agile, XP & continuous integration, I think they are nice, but still too heavy for this case (team of 1 or 2, and fast coding). For example, IMHO, with nice design pattern, and iterative development + refactoring, the TDD MIGHT be an overkill, or at least the overhead does not out-weight the advantages. And so is the pair programming. The automated testing is a nice idea, but it seems not technically feasible for every project. our current practices are: svn + milestone + code review I wonder if there are development processes / best practices specifically targeted on such super light teams? thanks.

  Read the article

• How can I write an XSLT that will recursively include other files?

  - by Eric

  Let's say I have a series of xml files in this format: A.xml: <page> <header>Page A</header> <content>blAh blAh blAh</content> </page> B.xml: <page also-include="A.xml"> <header>Page B</header> <content>Blah Blah Blah</content> </page> Using this XSLT: <xsl:stylesheet version="2.0" xmlns:xsl="http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform"> <xsl:template match="/page"> <h1> <xsl:value-of select="header" /> </h1> <p> <xsl:value-of select="content" /> </p> </xsl:template> </xsl:stylesheet> I can turn A.xml into this: <h1> Page A </h1> <p> blAh blAh blAh </p> But how would I make it also turn B.xml into this? <h1> Page B </h1> <p> Blah Blah Blah </p> <p> blAh blAh blAh </p> I know that I need to use document(concat(@also-include,'.xml')) somewhere, but I'm not sure where. Oh, and the catch is, I need this to still work if B were to be included in a third file, C.xml. Any idea as to how to do this?

  Read the article

• Are mathematical Algorithms protected by copyright?

  - by analogy

  I wish to implement an algorithm which i read in a journal paper in my software (commercial). I want to know if this is allowed or not. The algorithm in question is described in http://arxiv.org/abs/0709.2938 It is a very simple algorithm and a number of implementations exist in python (http://igraph.sourceforge.net/) and java. One of them is in gpl another which i got from a different researcher and had no license attached. There are significant differences in two implementations, e.g. second one uses threads and multiple cores. It is possible to rewrite/ (not translate) the algorithm. So can I use it in my software or on a server for commercial purpose. Thanks UPDATE: I am completely aware of copyright on the text of paper, it was published in phys rev E. I am concerned with use of the algorithm, in commercial software. Also the publication means that unless the patent has been already filed. The method has been disclosed publicly hence barring patent in future. Also the GPL implementation is not by authors themselves but comes from a third party. Finally i am not using the GPL implementation but creating my own using C++.

  Read the article

• How to update application files using patching?

  - by Marek

  I am not interested in any auto update solution, such as ClickOnce or the MS Updater Block. For anyone feeling the urge to ask why not: I am already using these and there is nothing wrong with them, I would just like to learn about any efficient alternatives. I would like to publish patches = small differences that will modify existing files of the deployment with the smallest possible delta. Not only code needs to be patched, but also resource files. Patching the running code can be accomplished by maintaining two separate synchronized copies of the deployment (no on the fly changes to the running executable are required). The application itself can be xcopy deployed (to avoid MSI auto-correcting the modified files or breaking ClickOnce signatures). I would like to learn how to handle different versions of patches (e.g. there is a patch issued that fixes one error and later another patch that fixes another error (in the same file) - users may have any combination of these and there comes a third patch - in text files, this may be easy to implement, but how about executable files? (native Win32 code vs. .NET, any difference?) If the first problem is too hard to solve or unsolvable for executables, I would like to at least learn if there is a solution that implements simple patching with serial revisions - in order to install revision 5, user must have all previous revisions installed to ensure validity of the deployment. Are there any existing solutions to accomplish this? NOTE: There are a few questions on SO that may seem like duplicates, but none with a good answer. This question is about the Windows platform, preferably .NET.

  Read the article

• Problem with writeToFile with array of NSDictionary objects

  - by Ken

  I'm trying to write an array of NSDictionary objects to a .plist file on the iPhone (OS 3.0). (They are actually NSCFDictionary objects when I call the [object class] method). My problem is that it won't write to file. If I set the array to "nil" it at least creates the empty plist file but won't do it if I have these objects in the array. My array is a parsed response from a JSON HTTP request and looks like this: { "title" = "A Movie"; "time_length" = "3:22"; }, { "title" = "Another Movie"; "time_length" = "1:40"; }, { "title" = "A Third Movie"; "time_length" = "2:10"; } The code to create the file is: [array writeToFile:[self dataFilePath] atomically:YES]; - (NSString *)dataFilePath { NSArray *paths = NSSearchPathForDirectoriesInDomains(NSDocumentDirectory, NSUserDomainMask, YES); NSString *documentsDirectory = [paths objectAtIndex:0]; return [documentsDirectory stringByAppendingPathComponent:@"data.plist"]; } Could the NCSFDictionary class of the objects in my array be preventing me from writing to file? Thanks for your help.

  Read the article

• Redirecting from an update action to the referrer of the edit

  - by Mark Westling

  My Rails 2.3 application has a User model and the usual controller actions. The edit form can be reached two ways: when a user edits his own profile from the home page, or when an admin user edits someone else's profile from users collection. What I'd like to do is have the update action redirect back to the referred of the edit action, not the update action. If I do a simple redirect_to(:back) within update, it goes back to the edit form -- not good. One solution is to forget entirely about referrers and redirect based on the current_user and the updated user: if they're the same, go back to the home page, else go to the users collection page. This will break if I ever add a third path to the edit form. It's doubtful I'll ever do this but I'd prefer a solution that's not so brittle. Another solution is to store the referrer of edit form in a hidden field and then redirect to this value from inside the update action. This doesn't feel quite right, though I can't explain why. Are there any better approaches? Or, should I stop worrying and go with one of the two I've mentioned?

  Read the article

• Can I remove duplicating events in EventAggregator?

  - by Mcad001

  Hi, I have a quite simple scenario that I cannot get to work correctly. I have 2 views, CarView and CarWindowView (childwindow) with corresponding ViewModels. In my CarView I have an EditButton that that opens CarWindowView (childwindow) where I can edit the Car object fields. My problem is that the DisplayModule method in my CarWindowView ViewModel is getting called too many times...When I push the edit button first time its getting called once, the second time its getting called twince, the third time its getting called 3 times and so fort... ! CarView ViewModel constructor: Public Sub New(ByVal eventAggregator As IEventAggregator, ByVal con As IUnityContainer, ByVal mgr As ICarManager, ByVal CarService As ICarService) _Container = con _CarManager = mgr _EventAggregator = eventAggregator 'Create the DelegateCommands NewBtnClick = New DelegateCommand(Of Object)(AddressOf HandleNewCarBtnClick) EditBtnClick = New DelegateCommand(Of Object)(AddressOf HandleEditCarBtnClick) End Sub CarView ViewModel HandleEditCarBtnClick method: Private Sub HandleEditCarBtnClick() Dim view = New CarWindowView Dim viewModel = _Container.Resolve(Of CarWindowViewModel)() viewModel.CurrentDomainContext = DomainContext viewModel.CurrentItem = CurrentItem viewModel.IsEnabled = False view.ApplyModel(viewModel) view.Show() _EventAggregator.GetEvent(Of CarCollectionEvent)().Publish(EditObject) End Sub CarWindowView ViewModel constructor: Public Sub New(ByVal eventAggregator As IEventAggregator, ByVal con As IUnityContainer, ByVal mgr As ICarManager, ByVal CarService As ICarService) _Container = con _CarManager = mgr _EventAggregator = eventAggregator _EventAggregator.GetEvent(Of CarCollectionEvent).Subscribe(AddressOf DisplayModule) End Sub CarWindowView ViewModel DisplayModule method (this is the method getting called too many times): Public Sub DisplayModule(ByVal param As String) If param = EditObject Then IsInEditMode = True ' Logic removed for display reasons here. This logic breaks because it's called too many times. End If End Sub So, I cannot understand how I can only have the EventAggregator to store just the one single click, and not all my click on the Edit button. Sorry if this is not to well explained! Help appreciated!!

  Read the article

• What is difference between my atoi() calls?

  - by Lucas

  I have a big number stored in a string and try to extract a single digit. But what are the differences between those calls? #include <iostream> #include <string> int main(){ std::string bigNumber = "93485720394857230"; char tmp = bigNumber.at(5); int digit = atoi(&tmp); int digit2 = atoi(&bigNumber.at(5)) int digit3 = atoi(&bigNumber.at(12)); std::cout << "digit: " << digit << std::endl; std::cout << "digit2: " << digit2 << std::endl; std::cout << "digit3: " << digit3 << std::endl; } This will produce the following output. digit: 7 digit2: 2147483647 digit3: 57230 The first one is the desired result. The second one seems to me to be a random number, which I cannot find in the string. The third one is the end of the string, but not just a single digit as I expected, but up from the 12th index to the end of the string. Can somebody explain the different outputs to me? EDIT: Would this be an acceptable solution? char tmp[2] = {bigNumber.at(5), '\0'}; int digit = atoi(tmp); std::cout << "digit: " << digit << std::endl;

  Read the article

• Does this language feature already exists?

  - by Pindatjuh

  I'm currently developing a new language for programming in a continuous environment (compare it to electrical engineering), and I've got some ideas on a certain language construction. Let me explain the feature by explanation and then by definition; x = a | b; Where x is a variable and a and b are other variables (or static values). if(x == a) { // all references to "x" are essentially references to "a". } if(x == b) { // same but with "b" } if(x != a) { // ... } if(x == a | b) { // guaranteed that "x" is '"a" | "b"'; interacting with "x" // will interact with both "a" and "b". } // etc. In the above, all code-blocks are executed, but the "scope" changes in each block how x is interpreted. In the first block, x is guaranteed to be a: thus interacting with x inside that block will interact on a. The second and the third code-block are only equal in this situation (because not b only remains a). The last block guarantees that x is at least a or b. Further more; | is not the "bitwise or operator", but I've called it the "and/or"-operator. It's definition is: "|" = "and" | "or" (On my blog, http://cplang.wordpress.com/2009/12/19/binop-and-or/, is more (mathematical) background information on this operator. It's loosely based on sets.) I do not know if this construction already exists, so that's my question: does this language feature already exists?

  Read the article

• Which software for intranet CMS - Django or Joomla?

  - by zalun

  In my company we are thinking of moving from wiki style intranet to a more bespoke CMS solution. Natural choice would be Joomla, but we have a specific architecture. There is a few hundred people who will use the system. System should be self explainable (easier than wiki). We use a lot of tools web, applications and integrated within 3rd party software. The superior element which is a glue for all of them is API. In example for the intranet tools we do use Django, but it's used without ORM, kind of limited to templates and url - every application has an adequate methods within our API. We do not use the Django admin interface, because it is hardly dependent on ORM. Because of that Joomla may be hard to integrate. Every employee should be able to edit most of the pages, authentication and privileges have to be managed by our API. How hard is it to plug Joomla to use a different authentication process? (extension only - no hacks) If one knows Django better than Joomla, should Django be used?

  Read the article

• Will Apple bundle the Mono Touch runtime with every iPhone?

  - by Zoran Simic

  It strikes me as a good idea for Apple to negotiate with Novell and bundle the Mono Touch runtime (only the runtime of course) into every iPhone and iPod Touch. Perhaps even make it a "one time install" that automatically gets downloaded from the App Store the first time one downloads an app build with Mono Touch, making every subsequent Mono Touch app much lighter to download (without the runtime). Doing so would be similar in a way to adding Bootcamp to OS X: it would make it easier for C# developers to join the party, but that wouldn't mean these developers will all stick to C#... What convinced me to buy a Mac is Bootcamp - I figured I could always install Windows if I didn't like OS X (and I liked the hardware, so no problem there). 6 months later, I'm using OS X full time... Would there be any technical issues in doing so? I see only advantages for all parties, not one disadvantage to anyone (except maybe for the few unfortunate Apple employees who would have to test the crap out of the Mono Touch runtime before bundling it): Novell wins because Mono Touch becomes much more viable (Mono Touch apps become much lighter all of the sudden) Developers win because now there's one more tool in the tool belt Many C# Developers would be very interested by this Apple wins because that would bring even more attention to the platform, more revenue in developer fees, more potential great apps, etc Users win because less space is used by different Apps having copies of the same runtime accumulating on their devices Would there be a major technical obstacle in bundling Mono Touch to iPhone OS? Edit: Changed the title from "Should" to "Will Apple bundle the runtime?", I think the consensus on predicting that means a lot to those considering going with Mono Touch.

  Read the article

• Limit iPhone in-app purchase by user's country

  - by Ryan

  Hello everyone. I'm a product manager who works for a small internet company that is developing an iPhone application for a social network. We monetize by offering limited and premium memberships to users (premium members get additional features not available to limited members). For billing on the web, we use a 3rd-party payment gateway that is nearing retirement, and will be replaced by an in-house solution. The business wants a global launch for our iPhone app using iTunes + in-app purchasing as a payment gateway. The problem with going global using this payment method is that for our web service membership level, available features, and subscription costs are defined by country. For example, in the US premium/limited memberships are available at 5 pricing tiers; in France premium/limited memberships are available at 5 different pricing tiers from the US; and in Chile the service is available for free and all features are available to users. Is it possible then to have the server-side, based on the user's country of registration, control the level of access, features, and payment options for users on the iPhone? I'd also note that since iTunes Connect does not allow variable pricing by currency and country, each "region" would need 5 in app purchase options. I argued for a US-only launch for iPhone using iTunes in app purchase until an in-house payment gateway is available. But you know...

  Read the article

• SQL Distinct keyword in assignment statement

  - by Brandi

  I have a query that works: DECLARE @ProductID int SET @ProductID = '1234' SELECT DISTINCT TOP 12 a.ProductID FROM A a WHERE a.CategoryID IN (SELECT b.CategoryID FROM B b WHERE b.ProductID = @ProductID) AND a.ProductID != @ProductID It returns a list of 12 product numbers, all unique. I need to store these results in a variable, comma separated, because that's what 3rd party stored procedure needs. So I have this: DECLARE @ProductID int DECLARE @relatedprods varchar(8000) SET @ProductID = '1234' SET @relatedprods = '' SELECT TOP 12 @relatedprods = @relatedprods + CONVERT(VARCHAR(20), a.ProductID) + ', ' FROM A a WHERE a.CategoryID IN (SELECT b.CategoryID FROM B b WHERE B.ProductID = @ProductID) AND a.ProductID != @ProductID SELECT @relatedprods Now, none of these are distinct, but it is returning 12 rows. Now I add the 'distinct' back in, like in the first query: DECLARE @ProductID int DECLARE @relatedprods varchar(8000) SET @ProductID = '1234' SET @relatedprods = '' SELECT DISTINCT TOP 12 @relatedprods = @relatedprods + CONVERT(VARCHAR(20), a.ProductID) + ', ' FROM A a WHERE a.CategoryID IN (SELECT b.CategoryID FROM B b WHERE B.ProductID = @ProductID) AND a.ProductID != @ProductID SELECT @relatedprods Only one product is returned in the comma separated list! Does 'distinct' not work in assignment statements? What did I do wrong? Or is there a way to get around this? Thanks in advance!

  Read the article

• UIDatePicker date method is picking wrong date: iPhone Dev

  - by prd

  Hi, I am getting very strange behaviour on UIDatePicker. I have a view with date picker declared in .h file as IBOutlet UIDatePicker *datePicker; with property nonatomic and retain. datePicker is properly linked in IB file. In the code I am setting the minimum, maximum, initial date and action to call for UICOntrolEventValueChanged using following code If (!currentDate) { initialDate = [NSDate date]; } else { initialDate = currentdate; } [datePicker setMinimumDate:[NSDate date]]; [datePicker setMaximumDate:[[NSDate date] addTimeInterval:5 * 365.25 * 24 * 60 * 60]]; // to get upto 5 years [datePicker setDate:initialDate animated:YES]; [datePicker addTarget:self action:@selector(getDatePickerValue:) forControlEvents:UIControlEventValueChanged]; In getDatePickerValue, I get the new date using datePicker.date. When the view is closed (using a done button), I get the current value of the date using datePicker.date. Now if the view is called with no 'currentDate', the picker returns 'todays date'. This is what happens the 'first' time my pickerView is called. Each subsequent call to the view, with no 'current date' gives me a different and later date from today. So, first time I get today's date say 9 Jun 2010 second time datePicker.date returns 10 Jun 2010 third time 11 Jun 2010 and so on. Though its not always incremental, but mostly it is. I have put NSLogs, and verified the initial date is set correctly. The problem is only on the device (on OS 3.0), the issue is not replicated on simulator. I can't find what I have done wrong. I hope somebody else has come across similar problem and can help me resolve this.

  Read the article

• Trouble when changing pixel data with alpha on png on iphone --okay on simulator

  - by Ted

  I'm trying to change the color of the pixels (lighten or darken) without changing the value of the alpha channel using CGDataProviderCopyData. I leave every 4th databyte untouched. It work fine of the iphone simulator, however on the real thing the alpha goes white as I increase the values of the other pixels. I've tried changing just the first byte, or the second, or the third. Does anybody have any idea what is going on? The basic code is borrowed from Jorge. I like this simple approach --I'm new to this. But I want to make it work with png images with some transparency. here is most of the code by Jorge : CFDataRef CopyImagePixels(CGImageRef inImage){ return CGDataProviderCopyData(CGImageGetDataProvider(inImage)); } CGImageRef img=originalImage.CGImage; CFDataRef dataref=CopyImagePixels(img); UInt8 *data=(UInt8 *)CFDataGetBytePtr(dataref); int length=CFDataGetLength(dataref); for(int index=0;index255){ data[index+i]=255; }else{ data[index+i]+=value; } } } } size_t width=CGImageGetWidth(img); size_t height=CGImageGetHeight(img); size_t bitsPerComponent=CGImageGetBitsPerComponent(img); size_t bitsPerPixel=CGImageGetBitsPerPixel(img); size_t bytesPerRow=CGImageGetBytesPerRow(img); CGColorSpaceRef colorspace=CGImageGetColorSpace(img); CGBitmapInfo bitmapInfo=CGImageGetBitmapInfo(img); CGImageAlphaInfo alphaInfo = kCGBitmapAlphaInfoMask(img); NSLog(@"bitmapinfo: %d",bitmapInfo); CFDataRef newData=CFDataCreate(NULL,data,length); CGDataProviderRef provider=CGDataProviderCreateWithCFData(newData); CGImageRef newImg=CGImageCreate(width,height,bitsPerComponent,bitsPerPixel,bytesPerRow,colorspace,bitmapInfo,provider,NULL,true,kCGRenderingIntentDefault); [iv setImage:[UIImage imageWithCGImage:newImg]]; CGImageRelease(newImg); CGDataProviderRelease(provider);

  Read the article

• Advanced All In One .NET Framework

  - by alfredo dobrekk

  Hi, i m starting a new project that would basically take input from user and save them to database among about 30 screens, and i would like to find a framework that will allow the maximum number of these features out of the box : .net c#. windows form. unit testing continuous integration screens with lists, combo boxes, text boxes, add, delete, save, cancel that are easy to update when you add a property to your classes or a field to your database. auto completion on controls to help user find its way use of an orm like nhibernate easy multithreading and display of wait screens for user easy undo redo tabbed child windows search forms ability to grant access to some functionnalities according to user profiles mvp/mvvm or whatever design patterns either some code generation from database to c# classe or generation of database schema from c# classes some kind of database versioning / upgrade to easily update database when i release patches to application once in production automatic control resizing code metrics analysis some code generator i can use against my entities that would generate some rough form i can rearrange after code documentation generator ... Any ideas ? I know its lot but i really would like to use existing code to build upon so i can focus on business rules. Could splitting the requirements on 3 or 4 existing open source framework be possible ? Do u have any suggestion to add to the list before starting ? What open source tools would u use to achieve these ?

  Read the article

• How do I POST/GET from rails to API with either ActiveResource or rest-client (preferred)?

  - by Angela

  Hi, this is a pretty basic question but I'm not entirely clear how to do this. I am trying to use a third-party service that has RESTful service. The service is called Postful. But I'm not clear what exactly to do? I've looked at ActiveResource (http://api.rubyonrails.org/classes/ActiveResource/Base.html) and rest-client, but I'm still not clear exactly what steps, code, and files to create. http://www.postful.com/service/mail is one of the services (details found http://www.postful.com/developer/guide#rest ), but to upload an image I have to post the following (but I'm not sure how I actually do this?). Thanks! > http://www.postful.com/service/upload > > Be sure to include the Content-Type > and Content-Length headers and the > image itself as the body of the > request. > > POST /upload HTTP/1.0 Content-Type: > application/octet-stream > Content-Length: 301456 > > ... file content here ... > > If the upload is successful, you will > receive a response like the following: > > <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> > <upload> > <id>290797321.waltershandy.2</id> > </upload>

  Read the article

• Website running JavaScript setInterval starts to fail after ~1day

  - by Martin Clemens Bloch

  I wish I could be more specific here, but unfortunately this might be hard. I basically hope this is some "well"-known timeout or setup issue. We have a website running an (JS/html - ASP.net project) website overview on a screen at a factory. This screen has no keyboard so it should keep refreshing the page forever - years perhaps (though 1 week might be okay). (It is used by factory workers to see incoming transports etc.) This all works perfectly; the site continuously updates itself and gets the new correct data. Then, sometimes, in the morning this "overview" screen has no data and the workers have to manually refresh the site using the simple refresh button or F5 - which fixes everything. I have tried a few things trying to reproduce the error myself including: Cutting the internet connection and MANY other ways of making it timeout (breakpoints, stopping services etc.). Setting the refresh time of setInterval to 100ms and letting the site run 3-5 minutes. (normal timer is 1 minute) setInterval SHOULD run forever according to the internet searching I have done. Checked that "JavaScript frequency" has not been turned down in power saving settings. No matter what; the site resumes correct function WITHOUT a refresh as soon as I plug in the internet cable or whatever again - I can't reproduce the error. The website is dependent on a backend WCF service and project integration, but since the workers are fixing this with a simple refresh I am assuming this has not crashed. EDIT: The browser I tried to reproduce the error in was IE/win7. I will ask about the factory tomorrow, but I am guessing IE/win? also. Is setInterval in fact really infinite or is there something else wrong here? All help much appreciated. 0.5 bitcoin reward for solving answer ;)

  Read the article

• Powershell 2.0 Hang When Run From MsDeploy pre- post- ops using c/

  - by SonOfNun

  I am trying to invoke powershell during the preSync call in a MSDeploy command, but powershell does not exit the process after it has been called. The command (from command line): "tools/MSDeploy/msdeploy.exe" -verb:sync -preSync:runCommand="powershell.exe -NoLogo -NoProfile -NonInteractive -ExecutionPolicy Unrestricted -Command C:/MyInstallPath/deploy.ps1 Set-WebAppOffline Uninstall-Service ",waitInterval=60000 -usechecksum -source:dirPath="build/for-deployment" -dest:wmsvc=BLUEPRINT-X86,username=deployer,password=deployer,dirPath=C:/MyInstallPath I used a hack here (http://therightstuff.de/2010/02/06/How-We-Practice-Continuous-Integration-And-Deployment-With-MSDeploy.aspx) that gets the powershell process and kills it but that didn't work. I also tried taskkill and the sysinternals equivalent, but nothing will kill the process so that MSDeploy errors out. The command is executed, but then just sits there. Any ideas what might be causing powershell to hang like this? I have found a few other similar issues around the web but no answers. Environment is Win 2K3, using Powershell 2.0. UPDATE: Here is a .vbs script I use to invoke my powershell command now. Invoke using 'cscript.exe path/to/script.vbs': Option Explicit Dim oShell, appCmd,oShellExec Set oShell = CreateObject("WScript.Shell") appCmd = "powershell.exe -NoLogo -NoProfile -NonInteractive -ExecutionPolicy Unrestricted -Command ""&{ . c:/development/materialstesting/deploy/web/deploy.ps1; Set-WebAppOffline }"" " Set oShellExec = oShell.Exec(appCmd) oShellExec.StdIn.Close()

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 363 364 365 366 367 368 369 370 371 372 373 374  | Next Page >