Search Results

Search found 12376 results on 496 pages for 'side effects'.

Page 37/496 | < Previous Page | 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44  | Next Page >

  • Are there any adverse side effects to loading html5shiv in every browser?

    - by Jeff
    On the html5shiv Google Code page the example usage includes an IE conditional: <!--[if lt IE 9]> <script src="dist/html5shiv.js"></script> <![endif]--> However on the html5shiv github page, the description explains: This script is the defacto way to enable use of HTML5 sectioning elements in legacy Internet Explorer, as well as default HTML5 styling in Internet Explorer 6 - 9, Safari 4.x (and iPhone 3.x), and Firefox 3.x. An obvious contradiction. So to satisfy my curiosity, for anyone who has studied the code, are there any adverse side affects to loading html5shiv in every browser (without the IE conditional)? EDIT: My goal, obviously, is to use the shiv without the IE conditional.

    Read the article

  • Hidden/Shown AsyncFileUpload Control Doesn't Fire Server-Side UploadedComplete Event

    - by Bob Mc
    I recently came across the AsyncFileUpload control in the latest (3.0.40412) release of the ASP.Net Ajax Control Toolkit. There appears to be an issue when using it in a hidden control that is later revealed, such as a <div> tag with visible=false. Example: Page code - <%@ Register Assembly="AjaxControlToolkit" Namespace="AjaxControlToolkit" TagPrefix="act" %> . . . <act:ToolkitScriptManager runat="server" ID="ScriptManager1" /> <asp:UpdatePanel runat="server" ID="upnlFileUpload"> <ContentTemplate> <asp:Button runat="server" ID="btnShowUpload" Text="Show Upload" /> <div runat="server" id="divUpload" visible="false"> <act:AsyncFileUpload runat="server" id="ctlFileUpload" /> </div> </ContentTemplate> </asp:UpdatePanel> Server-side Code - Protected Sub ctlFileUpload_UploadedComplete(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As AjaxControlToolkit.AsyncFileUploadEventArgs) Handles ctlFileUpload.UploadedComplete End Sub Protected Sub btnShowUpload_Click(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles btnShowUpload.Click divUpload.Visible = True End Sub I have a breakpoint on the UploadedComplete event but it never fires. However, if you take the AsyncFileUpload control out of the <div>, making it visible at initial page render, the control works as expected. So, is this a bug within the AsynchUploadControl, or am I not grasping a fundamental concept (which happens regularly)?

    Read the article

  • ASP.Net: Adding client side onClick to a HyperlinkField in GridView

    - by Nir
    I have an existing GridView which contains the field "partner name". It is sortable by partner name. Now I need to change the Partner Name field and in some condition make it clickable and alert() something. The existing code is: <asp:GridView ID="gridViewAdjustments" runat="server" AutoGenerateColumns="false" AllowSorting="True" OnSorting="gridView_Sorting" OnRowDataBound="OnRowDataBoundAdjustments" EnableViewState="true"> <asp:BoundField DataField="PartnerName" HeaderText="Name" SortExpression="PartnerName"/> I've added the column: <asp:hyperlinkfield datatextfield="PartnerName" SortExpression="PartnerName" headertext="Name" ItemStyle-CssClass="text2"/> which enables me to control the CSS and sort. However, I can't find how to add a client side javascript function to it. I found that adding : <asp:TemplateField HeaderText="Edit"> <ItemTemplate> <a id="lnk" runat="server">Edit</a> enable me to access "lnk" by id and add to its attributes. However, I lose the Sort ability. What's the correct solution in this case? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • C# mvc2 client side form validation with xval, prevent post

    - by Rob
    I'm using xval to use client side validation in my asp.net mvc2 webapplication. Despite the errors it's giving when i enter text in a nummeric field it still tries to post the form to the database. The incorrect values are being replaced by 0 and saved to the database. But instead it shouldn't even be possible to try and submit the form. Can anyone help me out here? I've set the attributes as below; [Property] [ShowColumnInCrud(true, label = "FromPriceInCents")] [Required] //[Range(1, Int32.MaxValue)] public virtual Int32 FromPriceInCents{ get; set; } The controller catching the request looks as below; I'm getting no errors in this part. [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] [Transaction] [ValidateInput(false)] public override ActionResult Create() { //some foo happens } My view looks like below; <div class="label"><label for="Price">FromPrice</label></div> <div class="field"> <%= Html.TextBox("FromPriceInCents")%> <%= Html.ValidationMessage("product.FromPriceInCents")%></div> And at the end of the view i have the following rule which in html code generates the correct validation rules <%= Html.ClientSideValidation<Product>("Product") %> I hope someone can helps me out with this issue, thanks in advance!

    Read the article

  • How to check for server side update in iPhone application Web service request

    - by Nirmal
    Hello All.... I have kind of Listing application for iPhone application, which always calling a web service to my php server and fetching the data and displaying it onto iPhone screen. Now, the thing to consider in this scenario is, my iPhone application everytime requesting on the server and fetching the data. But now my requirement is like I want to replace following set of actions with above one : - Everytime when my application is launched in iPhone, it should check for the new data at the server`. - And if server replies "true" then only my iPhone application will made a request to fetch the data. - In case of "false", my iPhone application will display the data which is already cached in local phone memory. Now to implement this scenario at server side (which has php, mysql), I am planning with the following solution : Table : tblNewerData id newDataFlag == ============ 1 true Trigger : tgrUpdateNewData Above trigger will update the tblNewerData - newDataFlag field on Insert case of my main table. And every time my iPhone app will request for tblNewerData-newDataFlag field, and if it found true then only it will create new request, and if it founds false then the cached version of data will be displayed. So, I want to know that, is it the correct way to do so ? or else any other smart option available ? Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Is there a workaround for JDBC w/liquibase and MySQL session variables & client side SQL instructions

    - by David
    Slowly building a starter changeSet xml file for one of three of my employer's primary schema's. The only show stopper has been incorporating the sizable library of MySQL stored procedures to be managed by liquibase. One sproc has been somewhat of a pain to deal with: The first few statements go like use TargetSchema; select "-- explanatory inline comment thats actually useful --" into vDummy; set @@session.sql_mode='TRADITIONAL' ; drop procedure if exists adm_delete_stats ; delimiter $$ create procedure adm_delete_stats( ...rest of sproc I cut out the use statement as its counter-productive, but real issue is the set @@session.sql_mode statement which causes an exception like liquibase.exception.MigrationFailedException: Migration failed for change set ./foobarSchema/sprocs/adm_delete_stats.xml::1293560556-151::dward_autogen dward: Reason: liquibase.exception.DatabaseException: Error executing SQL ... And then the delimiter statement is another stumbling block. Doing do dilligence research I found this rejected MySQL bug report here and this MySQL forum thread that goes a little bit more in depth to the problem here. Is there anyway I can use the sproc scripts that currently exist with Liquibase or would I have to re-write several hundred stored procedures? I've tried createProcedure, sqlFile, and sql liquibase tags without much luck as I think the core issue is that set, delimiter, and similar SQL commands are meant to be interpreted and acted upon by the client side interpreter before being delivered to the server.

    Read the article

  • RMI on client side generating exception when getting a reference to the RMI server

    - by Noona
    When I try to run an RMI client after running the RMI server I get the following exception: EncodeInterface exception: java.lang.ClassCastException: $Proxy30 cannot be cast to hw2.chat.backend.main.EncodeInterface java.lang.ClassCastException: $Proxy30 cannot be cast to hw2.chat.backend.main.EncodeInterface at hw2.chat.backend.main.EncodingRmiClient.initialiseRMIClient(EncodingRmiClient.java:26) And the relevant code in the RMI client is: EncodeInterface encodeInterface; Registry registry = LocateRegistry.getRegistry(host, portNumber); encodeInterface = (EncodeInterface)registry.lookup("RmiEncodingServer"); //line 26 And in the RMI server: try { EncodeInterface encodeInterface = new EncoderImpl(); Registry registry = LocateRegistry.getRegistry(); registry.rebind("RmiEncodingServer", encodeInterface); System.out.println("RmiEncodingServer is running..."); } EncodeInterface is the interface that extends Remote and that is present in the client side too. Host is "127.0.0.1" and portNumber is 1099 (I am assuming it should be the default value which is 1099 since I didn't specify it when I ran my RmiEncodingServer). If I don’t run the RMI server I get the same exception, any ideas as to why this is happening? thanks

    Read the article

  • Merge replication server side foreign key violation from unpublished table

    - by Reiste
    We are using SQL Server 2005 Merge Replication with SQL CE 3.5 clients. We are using partitions with filtering for the separate subscriptions, and nHibernate for the ORM mapping. There is automatic ID range management from SQL Server for the subscriptions. We have a table, Item, and a table with a foreign key to Item - ItemHistory. Both of these are replicated down, filtered according to the subscription. Item has a column called UserId, and is filtered per subscription with this filter: WHERE UserId IN (SELECT... [complicated subselect]...) ItemHistory hangs off Item in the publication filter articles. On the server, we have a table ItemHistoryExport, which has a foreign key to ItemHistory. ItemHistoryExport is not published. Entries in the Item and ItemHistory tables are never deleted, on the server or the client. However, the "ownership" of items (and hence their ItemHistories) MAY change, which causes them to be moved from one client subscription/partition to another from time to time. When we sync, we occasionally get the following error: A row delete at '48269404 - 4108383dbb11' could not be propagated to 'MyServer\MyInstance.MyDatabase'. This failure can be caused by a constraint violation. The DELETE statement conflicted with the REFERENCE constraint "FK_ItemHistoryExport_ItemHistory". The conflict occurred in database "MyDatabase", table "dbo.ItemHistoryExport", column 'ItemHistoryId'. Can anyone help us understand why this happens? There shouldn't ever be a delete happening on the server side.

    Read the article

  • Enable/disable RequiredValidator on client-side / CustomValidator not firing

    - by Simeon
    I've got a drop-down where the user selects a Country. It is a required "field". Next to it, there is a textfield named State. If the user selects US, then the field State is required. If the user selects e.g. Sweden, the State is not required, since Sweden has no states. Example code: <asp:DropDownList runat="server" ID="Country"></asp:DropDownList> <asp:RequiredFieldValidator ControlToValidate="Country" runat="server" Display="Static" ErrorMessage="Required field" /> <asp:TextBox runat="server" ID="State"></asp:TextBox> <asp:CustomValidator ClientValidationFunction="DoesntGetFiredIfStateIsEmpty" runat="server" Display="Static" ErrorMessage="Required field" /> <!-- SO, RATHER THIS TOGETHER WITH CONDITIONAL FIRING --> <asp:RequiredFieldValidator ControlToValidate="State" runat="server" Display="Static" ErrorMessage="Required field" /> My question to you is: How can I make this CustomValidator fire validation when it is empty? Or put simplier: How can I make a RequiredValidator fire conditionally? Or simplest: How can I enable/disable a RequiredValidator on client-side?

    Read the article

  • FILE* issue PPU side code

    - by Cristina
    We are working on a homework on CELL programming for college and their feedback response to our questions is kinda slow, thought i can get some faster answers here. I have a PPU side code which tries to open a file passed down through char* argv[], however this doesn't work it cannot make the assignment of the pointer, i get a NULL. Now my first idea was that the file isn't in the correct directory and i copied in every possible and logical place, my second idea is that maybe the PPU wants this pointer in its LS area, but i can't deduce if that's the bug or not. So... My question is what am i doing wrong? I am working with a Fedora 7 SDK Cell, with Eclipse as an IDE. Maybe my argument setup is wrong tho he gets the name of the file correctly. Code on request: images_t *read_bin_data(char *name) { FILE *file; images_t *img; uint32_t *buffer; uint8_t buf; unsigned long fileLen; unsigned long i; //Open file file = (FILE*)malloc(sizeof(FILE)); file = fopen(name, "rb"); printf("[Debug]Opening file %s\n",name); if (!file) { fprintf(stderr, "Unable to open file %s", name); return NULL; } //....... } Main launch: int main(int argc,char* argv[]) { int i,img_width; int modif_this[4] __attribute__ ((aligned(16))) = {1,2,3,4}; images_t *faces, *nonfaces; spe_context_ptr_t ctxs[SPU_THREADS]; pthread_t threads[SPU_THREADS]; thread_arg_t arg[SPU_THREADS]; //intializare img_width img_width = atoi(argv[1]); printf("[Debug]Img size is %i\n",img_width); faces = read_bin_data(argv[3]); //....... } Thanks for the help.

    Read the article

  • ASP.Net MVC 2 - How to set up a Cancel button with client side navigation

    - by arame3333
    Thanks to a previous question I found a useful link on multiple buttons. http://weblogs.asp.net/dfindley/archive/2009/05/31/asp-net-mvc-multiple-buttons-in-the-same-form.aspx What I want to do is have a cancel button on my page, similar to this; <button name="button" type="button" onclick="document.location.href=$('#cancelUrl').attr('href')">Cancel</button> <a id="cancelUrl" href="<%: Url.Action("Index", "Home") %>" style="display:none;"></a> However although this code works, I really want to go back to the previous page. For Web Forms I could use the javascript Back() or Go(-1) functions, but they relied on postbacks. I could of course hard code the previous page and controller as I have done above. However I am struggling to find links that explain to me how Url.Action works. Because if I do this, I also need to include an index parameter, and I am not clear how the syntax works for that. It seems odd the amount of coding to do this. Out of curiosity, I am also wondering how you TDD client side code like this.

    Read the article

  • Server side form validation and POST data

    - by tomcritchlow
    Hi, I have a user input form here: http://www.7bks.com/create (Google login required) When you first create a list you are asked to create a public username. Unfortuantely currently there is no constraint to make this unique. I'm working on the code to enforce unique usernames at the moment and would like to know the best way to do it. Tech details: appengine, python, webapp framework What I'm planning is something like this: first the /create form posts the data to /inputlist/ (this is the same as currently happens) /inputlist/ queries the datastore for the given username. If it already exists then redirect back to /create display the /create page with all the info previously but with an additional error message of "this username is already taken" My question is: Is this the best way of handling server side validation? What's the best way of storing the list details while I verify and modify the username? As I see it I have 3 options to store the list details but I'm not sure which is "best": Store the list details in the session cookie (I am using GAEsessions for cookies) Define a separate POST class for /create and post the list data back from /inputlist/ to the /create page (currently /create only has a GET class) Store the list in the datastore, even though the username is non-unique. Thank you very much for your help :) I'm pretty new to python and coding in general so if I've missed something obvious my apologies. Tom PS - I'm sure I can eventually figure it out but I can't find any documentation on POSTing data using the webapp appengine framework which I'd need in order to do solution 2 above :s maybe you could point me in the right direction for that too? Thanks! PPS - It's a little out of date now but you can see roughly how the /create and /inputlist/ code works at the moment here: 7bks.com Gist

    Read the article

  • Javascript function using "this = " gives "Invalid left-hand side in assignment"

    - by Brian M. Hunt
    I am trying to get a Javascript object to use the "this" assignments of another objects' constructor, as well as assume all that objects' prototype functions. Here's an example of what I'm attempting to accomplish: /* The base - contains assignments to 'this', and prototype functions */ function ObjX(a,b) { this.$a = a, $b = b; } ObjX.prototype.getB() { return this.$b; } function ObjY(a,b,c) { // here's what I'm thinking should work: this = ObjX(a, b * 12); /* and by 'work' I mean ObjY should have the following properties: * ObjY.$a == a, ObjY.$b == b * 12, * and ObjY.getB() == ObjX.prototype.getB() * ... unfortunately I get the error: * Uncaught ReferenceError: Invalid left-hand side in assignment */ this.$c = c; // just to further distinguish ObjY from ObjX. } I'd be grateful for your thoughts on how to have ObjY subsume ObjX's assignments to 'this' (i.e. not have to repeat all the this.$* = * assignments in ObjY's constructor) and have ObjY assume ObjX.prototype. My first thought is to try the following: function ObjY(a,b,c) { this.prototype = new ObjX(a,b*12); } Ideally I'd like to learn how to do this in a prototypal way (i.e. not have to use any of those 'classic' OOP substitutes like Base2). It may be noteworthy that ObjY will be anonymous (e.g. factory['ObjX'] = function(a,b,c) { this = ObjX(a,b*12); ... }) -- if I've the terminology right. Thank you.

    Read the article

  • How to show a server side error message in a popup using php

    - by Fero
    Hi all, I found some of the similar questions here but they are all in C#. So kindly tell me the easiest way to show the server side error message using popup. The popup may be anything like thickbox, modalpopup etc... Here is the sample code. I didn't get the error message in the popup. <script type="text/javascript" src="thickbox/jquery-latest.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="thickbox/thickbox.js"></script> <link href="thickbox/thickbox.css" rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" /> <span class="prtexterror" style="color:#FF0000;display:none;" id="hiddenModalContent" >{$error_login}</span> {literal} <script language="javascript" type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { tb_show("Please, login", "?tb_inline=true&inlineId=hiddenModalContent&height=180&width=300&modal=true", null); }); </script> {/literal} Any other ways are always welcome. thanks in advance

    Read the article

  • Call ASP.NET 2.0 Server side code from Javascript

    - by Kannabiran
    I'm struggling with this for the past 3 days. I need to call asp.net serverside code from Javascript when the user closes the browser. I'm using the following code to accomplish this. In my asp.net form I have various validation controls. Even if there are some validation errors, When I close the form the server side code works perfectly in my development box(windows 7). But the same code doesnt work in my production environment(windows server). Does it have something to do with the Validation summary or Validation controls. The button control has Causes validation set to false. So even if there is a validation error still my form will post back. Am I correct? I suspect the form is not getting post back to the server when there is a validation error. But i'm disabling all the validation controls in the javascript before calling the button click event. Can someone throw some light on this issue. There are few blogs which suggests to use JQUERY, AJAX (Pagemethods and script manager). function ConfirmClose(e) { var evtobj = window.event ? event : e; if (evtobj == e) { //firefox if (!evtobj.clientY) { evtobj.returnValue = message; } } else { //IE if (evtobj.clientY < 0) { DisablePageValidators(); document.getElementById('<%# buttonBrowserCloseClick.ClientID %>').click(); } } } function DisablePageValidators() { if ((typeof (Page_Validators) != "undefined") && (Page_Validators != null)) { var i; for (i = 0; i < Page_Validators.length; i++) { ValidatorEnable(Page_Validators[i], false); } } } //HTML <div style="display:none" > <asp:Button ID="buttonBrowserCloseClick" runat="server" onclick="buttonBrowserCloseClick_Click" Text="Button" Width="141px" CausesValidation="False" /> //Server Code protected void buttonBrowserCloseClick_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { //Some C# code goes here }

    Read the article

  • Dynamically generate client-side HTML form control using JavaScript and server-side Python code in Google App Engine

    - by gisc
    I have the following client-side front-end HTML using Jinja2 template engine: {% for record in result %} <textarea name="remark">{{ record.remark }}</textarea> <input type="submit" name="approve" value="Approve" /> {% endfor %} Thus the HTML may show more than 1 set of textarea and submit button. The back-end Python code retrieves a variable number of records from a gql query using the model, and pass this to the Jinja2 template in result. When a submit button is clicked, it triggers the post method to update the record: def post(self): if self.request.get('approve'): updated_remark = self.request.get('remark') record.remark = db.Text(updated_remark) record.put() However, in some instances, the record updated is NOT the one that correspond to the submit button clicked (eg if a user clicks on record 1 submit, record 2 remark gets updated, but not record 1). I gather that this is due to the duplicate attribute name remark. I can possibly use JavaScript/jQuery to generate different attribute names. The question is, how do I code the back-end Python to get the (variable number of) names generated by the JavaScript? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Validating JSP's and HTML Forms, Server-side or Client-side, or both?

    - by CitadelCSAlum
    I am aware that I can Google "HTML Form Validation" and would get a billion tutorials. I am well aware that I can use simple JavaScript to validate form input, but I have been told that this is not necessarily an efficient method. I have also heard that it is a best practice to validate both client and server-side code. OK! Well, What exactly does this mean besides writing code on both? Does it mean I do some with JavaScript and other with Servlet's or does it mean that I write identical validation methods on both? My real question is can anybody give me insight and direction as how to go about validation my HTML forms. I am using JSP's and Servlet's and I have tons of form validation to do. I have already done minor form validation with regex in Java, but want to figure out if Im heading in the right track before I write any more code. Only productive answers please, If I wanted negative feedback on how inexperienced I was, I would have gone to Reddit. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • validation controls are not validating on enabling on client side using java script, plz guide

    - by haansi
    Hi, As per requirement I disabled all validation controls in page on PageLoad event in server side. On clicking submit button I want to activate them and validate the page and if the page is ok submit other wise not. I am able to enable all validaters but one thing that I am unable to understand is that they do not validate the page. I set alerts and check they are being enabled but they do not validate the page and let the page submit. I am sorry I couldn't get where I am wrong, may be there need to call some validation method as well or I should prevent default behavior of button. please guide me. Below is my script: <script type="text/javascript"> function NextClicked() { var _ddlStatus = document.getElementById("<%=ddlEmpStatus.ClientID%>"); var _selectedIndex = _ddlStatus.selectedIndex; if (_selectedIndex == 0) { alert("Nothing selected"); }<br/> else<br/> if (_selectedIndex == 1) { for (i = 0; i < Page_Validators.length; i++) { Page_Validators[i].Enabled = true; } } } </script> thanks in anticipation.

    Read the article

  • Manually wiring up unobtrusive jquery validation client-side without Model/Data Annotations, MVC3

    - by cmorganmcp
    After searching and experimenting for 2 days I relent. What I'd like to do is manually wire up injected html with jquery validation. I'm getting a simple string array back from the server and creating a select with the strings as options. The static fields on the form are validating fine. I've been trying the following: var dates = $("<select id='ShiftDate' data-val='true' data-val-required='Please select a date'>"); dates.append("<option value=''>-Select a Date-</option>"); for (var i = 0; i < data.length; i++) { dates.append("<option value='" + data[i] + "'>" + data[i] + "</option>"); } $("fieldset", addShift).append($("<p>").append("<label for='ShiftDate'>Shift Date</label>\r").append(dates).append("<span class='field-validation-valid' data-valmsg-for='ShiftDate' data-valmsg-replace='true'></span>")); // I tried the code below as well instead of adding the data-val attributes and span manually with no luck dates.rules("add", { required: true, messages: { required: "Please select a date" } }); // Thought this would do it when I came across several posts but it didn't $.validator.unobtrusive.parse(dates.closest("form")); I know I could create a view model ,decorate it with a required attribute, create a SelectList server-side and send that, but it's more of a "how would I do this" situation now. Can anyone shed light on why the above code wouldn't work as I expect? -chad

    Read the article

  • Client Side Only Cookies

    - by Mike Jones
    I need something like a cookie, but I specifically don't want it going back to the server. I call it a "client side session cookie" but any reasonable mechanism would be great. Basically, I want to store some data encrypted on the server, and have the user type a password into the browser. The browser decrypts the data with the password (or creates and encrypts the data with the password) and the server stores only encrypted data. To keep the data secure on the server, the server should not store and should never receive the password. Ideally there should be a cookie session expiration to clean up. Of course I need it be available on multiple pages as the user walks through the web site. The best I can come up with is some sort of iframe mechanism to store the data in javascript variables, but that is ugly. Does anyone have any ideas how to implement something like this? FWIW, the platform is ASP.NET, but I don't suppose that matters. It needs to support a broad range of browsers, including mobile. In response to one answer below, let me clarify. My question is not how to achieve the crypto, that isn't a problem. The question is where to store the password so that it is persistent from page to page, but not beyond a session, and in such a way that the server doesn't see it.

    Read the article

  • Java side scrolling game on android

    - by hanesjw
    I'm trying to make an easy side scrolling game just to learn the ropes of game programming on android. I came up with a solution of how to make it but I don't really think it is the most elegant solution. I wanted to get some different ideas on how to implement my game, as I really have no other solution right now. Here is a quick explanation of how it works.. I basically have blocks or objects fall from the top of the screen. The blocks are defined from a pre-defined string I create using a custom 'map-editor'. I create all the blocks at compile time, position them on or off the screen and simply increment their coordinates with each iteration of the gameloop. It is actually done a little bit better then that, but that gives a short easy explanation on the basic idea. I heard from a few people that instead of incrementing each block position, have the blocks stay there and simply change the viewable area. That makes sense, but I have no idea how to do it. Can anyone share some ideas or links on how I can implement something like this? I know my current solution isn't the greatest. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • How to get the real, actual duration of an MP3 file (VBR or CBR) server-side

    - by Cummander Checkov
    I used to calculate the duration of MP3 files server-side using ffmpeg - which seemed to work fine. Today i discovered that some of the calculations were wrong. Somehow, for some reason, ffmpeg will miscalculate the duration and it seems to happen with variable bit rate mp3 files only. When testing this locally, i noticed that ffmpeg printed two extra lines in green. Command used: ffmpeg -i song_9747c077aef8.mp3 ffmpeg says: [mp3 @ 0x102052600] max_analyze_duration 5000000 reached at 5015510 [mp3 @ 0x102052600] Estimating duration from bitrate, this may be inaccurate After a nice, warm google session, i found some posts on this, but no solution was found. I then tried to increase the maximum duration: ffmpeg -analyzeduration 999999999 -i song_9747c077aef8.mp3 After this, ffmpeg returned only the second line: [mp3 @ 0x102052600] Estimating duration from bitrate, this may be inaccurate But in either case, the calculated duration was just plain wrong. Comparing it to VLC i noticed that here the duration is correct. After more research i stumbled over mp3info - which i installed and used. mp3info -p "%S" song_9747c077aef8.mp3 mp3info then returned the CORRECT duration, but only as an integer, which i cannot use as i need a more accurate number here. The reason for this was explained in a comment below, by user blahdiblah - mp3info is simply pulling ID3 info from the file and not actually performing any calculations. I also tried using mplayer to retrieve the duration, but just as ffmpeg, mplayer is returning the wrong value. Now i ran out of options. If somebody knows how to get around this, any hints, tips, guides or corrections are welcome! Thank You!

    Read the article

  • ecommerce - use server side code for hidden values in an html form

    - by bsarmi
    I'm trying to learn how to implement a donation form on a website using virtual merchant. The html code from their developer manual goes like this: <form action="https://www.myvirtualmerchant.com/VirtualMerchant/process.do" method="POST"> Your Total: $5.00 <br/> <input type="hidden" name="ssl_amount" value="5.00"> <br/> <input type="hidden" name="ssl_merchant_id" value="my_virtualmerchant_ID"> <input type="hidden" name="ssl_pin" value="my_PIN"> <input type="hidden" name="ssl_transaction_type" value="ccsale"> <input type="hidden" name="ssl_show_form" value="false"> Credit Card Number: <input type="text" name="ssl_card_number"> <br/> Expiration Date (MMYY): <input type="text" name="ssl_exp_date" size="4"> <br/> <br/> <input type="submit" value="Continue"> </form> I have that in an html file and it works fine, but they suggest that the merchant data (the input type="hidden" values) should be in a Server Side Code. I was looking at cURL but it'a all very new to me and I spent a couple of hours trying to find some guide or some sample code on how to accomplish that. Any suggestions or help is greatly appreciated. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Asp.net MVC2 Custom jquery validation: client -side

    - by Lullaby
    Hi. I want to create a validation rule for 2 date-pickers (startDate less then endDate). I create a validation attribute: [AttributeUsage(AttributeTargets.Class, AllowMultiple = true, Inherited = true)] public sealed class DateCompareAttribute : ValidationAttribute { private const string _defaultErrorMessage = "'{0}' is less then '{1}'."; public DateCompareAttribute(string startDateProperty, string endDateProperty) : base(_defaultErrorMessage) { StartDateProperty = startDateProperty; EndDateProperty = endDateProperty; } public string StartDateProperty { get; private set; } public string EndDateProperty { get; private set; } public override string FormatErrorMessage(string name) { return String.Format(CultureInfo.CurrentUICulture, ErrorMessageString, StartDateProperty, EndDateProperty); } public override bool IsValid(object value) { PropertyDescriptorCollection properties = TypeDescriptor.GetProperties(value); object startValue = properties.Find(StartDateProperty, true).GetValue(value); object endValue = properties.Find(EndDateProperty, true).GetValue(value); if (startValue.GetType() == typeof(DateTime?) && endValue.GetType() == typeof(DateTime?)) { var start = ((DateTime?)startValue); var end = ((DateTime?)endValue); return (start.Value < end.Value); } return false; } } and added ti to my Dto: [DateCompare("StartDate", "EndDate")] public class QualificationInput{...} I created a validator: public class DateCompareValidator : DataAnnotationsModelValidator { string startField; private string endField; string _message; public DateCompareValidator(ModelMetadata metadata, ControllerContext context , DateCompareAttribute attribute) : base(metadata, context, attribute) { startField = attribute.StartDateProperty; endField = attribute.EndDateProperty; _message = attribute.ErrorMessage; } public override IEnumerable<ModelClientValidationRule> GetClientValidationRules() { var rule = new ModelClientValidationRule { ErrorMessage = _message, ValidationType = "dateCompare" }; rule.ValidationParameters.Add("startField", startField); rule.ValidationParameters.Add("endField", endField); return new[] { rule }; } } And registered it in Global.asax.cs in Application_Start(): DataAnnotationsModelValidatorProvider .RegisterAdapter(typeof(DateCompareAttribute), typeof(DateCompareValidator)); In MicrosoftMvcJQueryValidation.js I have made this changes: switch (thisRule.ValidationType) { ..... case "dateCompare": __MVC_ApplyValidator_DateCompare(rulesObj, thisRule.ValidationParameters["startField"], thisRule.ValidationParameters["endField"]); break; ..... } .... function __MVC_ApplyValidator_DateCompare(object, startField, endField) { object["startField"] = startField; object["endField"] = endField; } jQuery.validator.addMethod("dateCompare", function(value, element, params) { if ($('#' + params["startField"]).val() < $('#' + params["endField"]).val()) { return true; } return false; }, jQuery.format("Error")); But it doesn't work :( no client side validation on this type of rule (the others type like required works fine) What I'm doing wrong?

    Read the article

  • Client-side policy error using JacORB (Java/CORBA) with SSL

    - by jason
    I'm trying to add SSL to an existing CORBA app, and I keep getting this error: org.omg.CORBA.NO_PERMISSION: Client-side policy requires SSL/TLS, but server doesn't support it vmcid: 0x0 minor code: 0 completed: No at org.jacorb.orb.iiop.ClientIIOPConnection.checkSSL(ClientIIOPConnection.java:535) at org.jacorb.orb.iiop.ClientIIOPConnection.connect(ClientIIOPConnection.java:144) at org.jacorb.orb.giop.GIOPConnection.sendMessage(GIOPConnection.java:835) at org.jacorb.orb.giop.GIOPConnection.sendRequest(GIOPConnection.java:805) at org.jacorb.orb.giop.ClientConnection.sendRequest(ClientConnection.java:302) at org.jacorb.orb.giop.ClientConnection.sendRequest(ClientConnection.java:282) at org.jacorb.orb.Delegate.invoke_internal(Delegate.java:919) at org.jacorb.orb.Delegate.invoke(Delegate.java:868) at org.jacorb.orb.Delegate.is_a(Delegate.java:1268) at org.omg.CORBA.portable.ObjectImpl._is_a(ObjectImpl.java:112) at databridge.autogen.ILoginManagerHelper.narrow(ILoginManagerHelper.java:57) at databridge.test.Client.main(Client.java:59) I have generated keystores for both client and server and exchanged the keys between the two. Using this setup, I can get the demo application that came in the JacORB download to run successfully. The only difference I can tell is that my test is using the Tie method to get the POA. There are some policies that go into that, but I can't find any information on what policies need to go in there to enable SSL, if any. I'm not even sure that's the problem as the JacORB demo doesn't set any policies on the server or poa. When I run the -Djavax.net.debug=ssl, I can see the keystores load up the trusted certs on both the client and the server. I'm just not sure what policies are being referred to here, but it's odd that the demo works and the test doesn't using the exact same keystores and properties. I've emailed the mailing list, but I'm not holding out much hope as that doesn't seem to be very active. Any help would be greatly appreciated. Below are my properties files. Server Props: jacorb.security.support_ssl=on jacorb.security.ssl.server.supported_options=60 jacorb.security.ssl.server.required_options=20 jacorb.ssl.socket_factory=org.jacorb.security.ssl.sun_jsse.SSLSocketFactory jacorb.ssl.server_socket_factory=org.jacorb.security.ssl.sun_jsse.SSLServerSocketFactory jacorb.security.keystore=dbserver.jks jacorb.security.keystore_password=dbsslserver_pass jacorb.security.jsse.trustees_from_ks=on jacorb.security.jsse.log.verbosity=4 jacorb.implname=StandardImplName client props jacorb.security.support_ssl=on jacorb.security.ssl.client.supported_options=60 jacorb.security.ssl.client.required_options=20 jacorb.ssl.socket_factory=org.jacorb.security.ssl.sun_jsse.SSLSocketFactory jacorb.security.keystore=dbclient.jks jacorb.security.keystore_password=dbsslclient_pass jacorb.security.jsse.trustees_from_ks=on jacorb.security.jsse.log.verbosity=4 jacorb.implname=StandardImplName

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44  | Next Page >