Search Results

Search found 58985 results on 2360 pages for 'value object'.

Page 370/2360 | < Previous Page | 366 367 368 369 370 371 372 373 374 375 376 377  | Next Page >

• passing value of index number to different php file.

  - by tooepic

  hi, i am a php beginner and have a question for you please. i have a text file with list of first and last names like this: john,smith sam,lewis david,davidson mike,anderson in my sort.php file, it sorts that name list by first name in ascending order with index number, which will display like this: 1. david,davidson 2. john,smith 3. mike,anderson 4. sam,lewis also, in that sort.php file, there's a form for input type=text where you can type index number and a button to delete that index number entered in that text field: <form action="deletename.php" method="post"> <table> <tr valign="top"> <td>Delete: <input type="text" size="2" name="indexnumber" /> </td> <td> <div align="left"> <input type="submit" name="delete" value="Delete" /> </div> </td> </tr> </table> </form> now the question...is there anything i can do in that form to send the value of that index number i entered in the text field? in other word...if i enter 3, what can i do to that form to send the value "mike,anderson" to deletename.php? thanks in advance.

  Read the article

• Should a Perl constructor return an undef or a "invalid" object?

  - by DVK

  Question: What is considered to be "Best practice" - and why - of handling errors in a constructor?. "Best Practice" can be a quote from Schwartz, or 50% of CPAN modules use it, etc...; but I'm happy with well reasoned opinion from anyone even if it explains why the common best practice is not really the best approach. As far as my own view of the topic (informed by software development in Perl for many years), I have seen three main approaches to error handling in a perl module (listed from best to worst in my opinion): Construct an object, set an invalid flag (usually "is_valid" method). Often coupled with setting error message via your class's error handling. Pros: Allows for standard (compared to other method calls) error handling as it allows to use $obj->errors() type calls after a bad constructor just like after any other method call. Allows for additional info to be passed (e.g. 1 error, warnings, etc...) Allows for lightweight "redo"/"fixme" functionality, In other words, if the object that is constructed is very heavy, with many complex attributes that are 100% always OK, and the only reason it is not valid is because someone entered an incorrect date, you can simply do "$obj->setDate()" instead of the overhead of re-executing entire constructor again. This pattern is not always needed, but can be enormously useful in the right design. Cons: None that I'm aware of. Return "undef". Cons: Can not achieve any of the Pros of the first solution (per-object error messages outside of global variables and lightweight "fixme" capability for heavy objects). Die inside the constructor. Outside of some very narrow edge cases, I personally consider this an awful choice for too many reasons to list on the margins of this question. UPDATE: Just to be clear, I consider the (otherwise very worthy and a great design) solution of having very simple constructor that can't fail at all and a heavy initializer method where all the error checking occurs to be merely a subset of either case #1 (if initializer sets error flags) or case #3 (if initializer dies) for the purposes of this question. Obviously, choosing such a design, you automatically reject option #2.

  Read the article

• Delete all rows that do not have the value: Criteria 1 or Criteria 2 or Criteria 3 in Column D --> Using VBA Macro for excel

  - by JDS

  I am new to Macro's/VBA and cannot seem to figure out how to do this action for multiple criteria. I am trying to Delete all rows that do not have the value: Identify Fail or Identify Success in Column D. I write the following code and it works for one criteria "Identify Fail": '***********************************************' Sub DeleteRows() 'Action 1 --> Delete all Rows without Identify Fail in column D' Application.ScreenUpdating = False For i = Range("D" & Rows.Count).End(xlUp).Row To 1 Step -1 If Range("D" & i).Value <> "Identify Fail" Then Rows(i).Delete shift:=xlUp Next i Application.ScreenUpdating = True End Sub '***********************************************' Once I try to add 'OR' with another criteria it does not work: '***********************************************' Sub DeleteRows() 'Action 1 --> Delete all Rows without Identify Fail in column D' Application.ScreenUpdating = False For i = Range("D" & Rows.Count).End(xlUp).Row To 1 Step -1 If Range("D" & i).Value <> "Identify Fail" Or "Identify Success" Then Rows(i).Deleteshift:=xlUp Next i Application.ScreenUpdating = True End Sub '***********************************************' Any suggestions would be appreciated as I have been scouring this website and have not found an efficient code that will do the trick.

  Read the article

• How can I get the Hibernate Configuration object from Spring?

  - by Wayne Russell

  Hi, I am trying to obtain Spring-defined Hibernate Configuration and SessionFactory objects in my non-Spring code. The following is the definition in my applicationContext.xml file: Code: <bean id="sessionFactory" class="org.springframework.orm.hibernate3.LocalSessionFactoryBean"> <property name="hibernateProperties"> <props> <prop key="hibernate.dialect">org.hibernate.dialect.MySQLDialect</prop> <prop key="hibernate.show_sql">true</prop> <prop key="hibernate.hbm2ddl.auto">update</prop> <prop key="hibernate.cglib.use_reflection_optimizer">true</prop> <prop key="hibernate.cache.provider_class">org.hibernate.cache.HashtableCacheProvider</prop> </props> </property> <property name="dataSource"> <ref bean="dataSource"/> </property> </bean> If I now call getBean("sessionFactory"), I am returned a $Proxy0 object which appears to be a proxy for the Hibernate SessionFactory object. But that isn't what I want - I need the LocalSessionFactoryBean itself because I need access to the Configuration as well as the SessionFactory. The reason I need the Configuration object is that our framework is able to use Hibernate's dynamic model to automatically insert mappings at runtime; this requires that we change the Configuration and rebuild the SessionFactory. Really, all we're trying to do is obtain the Hibernate config that already exists in Spring so that those of our customers that already have that information in Spring don't need to duplicate it into a hibernate.cfg.xml file in order to use our Hibernate features.

  Read the article

• How to use CodeDomSerializer to serialize an object in .Net?

  - by user341127

  I have a class, which is defined as the following: [ToolboxItem(false)] [DesignTimeVisible(false)] [DesignerSerializer("DevExpress.XtraEditors.Design.RepositoryItemCodeDomSerializer, DevExpress.XtraEditors.v10.1.Design", "System.ComponentModel.Design.Serialization.CodeDomSerializer, System.Design")] [Designer("DevExpress.XtraEditors.Design.BaseRepositoryItemDesigner, DevExpress.XtraEditors.v10.1.Design")] [LicenseProvider(typeof(DXEditorLicenseProvider))] public class RepositoryItem : Component, ISupportInitialize, ICustomTypeDescriptor, IImageCollectionHelper {......} I tried the following code to serialize the object of this class. DesignerSerializationManager m = new System.ComponentModel.Design.Serialization.DesignerSerializationManager(); m.CreateSession(); DevExpress.XtraEditors.Design.RepositoryItemCodeDomSerializer s = m.GetSerializer(typeof(RepositoryItem), typeof(DevExpress.XtraEditors.Design.RepositoryItemCodeDomSerializer)) as DevExpress.XtraEditors.Design.RepositoryItemCodeDomSerializer; RepositoryItem i = persistentRepository1.Items[0]; //m.Container.Add(i); s.Serialize(m,i );// An error "Object reference not set to an instance of an object." happended here. For I am not familiar with CodeDom, I have spent one day to get the way out. I guess the above code has some stupid mistakes. Please give me a hand to show how to serialize AND DeSelialize such objects of the class of Repository. BTW, the reason I don't use any other serializer is that I am supposed not to have rights to know the source code of RepositoryItem and others could inherit RepositoryItem at the same time. And actually I have to deal with RepositoryItem and its descendants. Thank you in advance. Ying

  Read the article

• PHP5 : Applying a method from an extended class on an object from the original (parent) class.

  - by Glauber Rocha

  Hello, I'm trying to extend two native PHP5 classes (DOMDocument and DOMNode) to implement 2 methods (selectNodes and selectSingleNode) in order to make XPath queries easier. I thought it would be rather straighforward, but I'm stuck in a problem which I think is an OOP beginner's issue. class nDOMDocument extends DOMDocument { public function selectNodes($xpath){ $oxpath = new DOMXPath($this); return $oxpath->query($xpath); } public function selectSingleNode($xpath){ return $this->selectNodes($xpath)->item(0); } } Then I tried to do extend DOMNode to implement the same methods so I can perform an XPath query directly on a node: class nDOMNode extends DOMNode { public function selectNodes($xpath){ $oxpath = new DOMXPath($this->ownerDocument,$this); return $oxpath->query($xpath); } public function selectSingleNode($xpath){ return $this->selectNodes($xpath)->item(0); } } Now if I execute the following code (on an arbitrary XMLDocument): $xmlDoc = new nDOMDocument; $xmlDoc->loadXML(...some XML...); $node1 = $xmlDoc->selectSingleNode("//item[@id=2]"); $node2 = $node1->selectSingleNode("firstname"); The third line works and returns a DOMNode object $node1. However, the fourth line doesn't work because the selectSingleNode method belongs to the nDOMNode class, not DOMNode. So my question: is there a way at some point to "transform" the returned DOMNode object into a nDOMNode object? I feel I'm missing some essential point here and I'd greatly appreciate your help. (Sorry, this is a restatement of my question http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2573820/)

  Read the article

• How do I insert an input's value into a separate form?

  - by ryan

  I'm making a tool for my university that allows students to create a list of classes by doing the following: Searching by course title for their course via an autocomplete input field. Adding that course to a separate form that upon being submitted creates a course list. I am trying to link the autocomplete and the course list form with an 'add to course list' button that inserts a hidden input field into the course list form which can subsequently be submitted by a 'create course list' button. My question is this: How do I take the value of the autocomplete input and insert it into the course list form without using AJAX? So far I have something like the following: <%= text_field_with_auto_complete :course, :title, :size => 40 %> <%= link_to_function "Add to Course List" do |page| page.insert_html :top, :course_list, hidden_field(:courses, :course, {:value => "$('course_title').value"}) %> <% form_for(@course_list) do |f|%> <div id="course_list">Insert selected courses here.</div> <% end %>

  Read the article

• In My MVC Controller, Can I Add a Value to My HTML.DropDownList?

  - by Aaron Salazar

  In my view I have an HTML DropDownList that is filled, in my controller, using a List<string>. <%= Html.DropDownList("ReportedIssue", (IEnumerable<SelectListItem>)ViewData["ReportedIssue"]) %> List<string> reportedIssue = new List<string>(); reportedIssue.Add("All"); reportedIssue.Add(...); ViewData["ReportedIssue"] = new SelectList(reportedIssue); In my view the result is: <select name="ReportedIssue" id="ReportedIssue"><option>All</option> <option>All</option> <option>...</option> </select> Is there a way to do this and also include a value in each of the <option> tags like so? <select name="ReportedIssue" id="ReportedIssue"><option>All</option> <option value="0">All</option> <option value="1">...</option> </select> Thank you, Aaron

  Read the article

• How to synchronize placing an object in JNDI across processes?

  - by indra

  I am trying to place an object in JNDI, so that only one of the progam should be able to place it in JNDI. is there any global lock that can be used in J2EE environment. Is RMI can be used for this purpose? please provide any reference links. Thanks in advance. Also, what is NameAlreadyBoundexception? I am trying to use it as a method to synchronize, i.e, only one program places it in JNDI and if other trying to bind should get that exception. But when i am testing the multiple binding I am not getting the Exception.And second binding is done. look up is giving the second object bound. here is my code: private static String JNDI_NAME = "java:comp/env/test/something"; public class TestJNDI { private static String JNDI_NAME = "java:comp/env/test/something"; public static void main(String[] args) throws NamingException { Hashtable env = new Hashtable(); env.put(Context.INITIAL_CONTEXT_FACTORY,"weblogic.jndi.WLInitialContextFactory"); env.put(Context.PROVIDER_URL,"t3://127.0.0.1:7001"); Context ctx = new InitialContext(env); System.out.println("Initial Context created"); String obj1 = "obj1"; String obj2 = "obj2"; try{ ctx.bind(JNDI_NAME, obj1); System.out.println("Bind Sucess"); }catch(NameAlreadyBoundException ne ){ // already bound System.out.println("Name already bound"); } ctx.close(); Context ctx2 = new InitialContext(env); try{ // Second binding to the same name not giving the Exception?? ctx2.bind(JNDI_NAME, obj2); System.out.println("Re Bind Sucess"); }catch(NameAlreadyBoundException ne ){ // already bound System.out.println("Name already bound"); } String lookedUp = (String) ctx2.lookup(JNDI_NAME); System.out.println("LookedUp Object"+lookedUp); ctx2.close(); } }

  Read the article

• Which is better Java programming practice for looping up to an int value: a converted for-each loop

  - by Arvanem

  Hi folks, Given the need to loop up to an arbitrary int value, is it better programming practice to convert the value into an array and for-each the array, or just use a traditional for loop? FYI, I am calculating the number of 5 and 6 results ("hits") in multiple throws of 6-sided dice. My arbitrary int value is the dicePool which represents the number of multiple throws. As I understand it, there are two options: Convert the dicePool into an array and for-each the array: public int calcHits(int dicePool) { int[] dp = new int[dicePool]; for (Integer a : dp) { // call throwDice method } } Use a traditional for loop. public int calcHits(int dicePool) { for (int i = 0; i < dicePool; i++) { // call throwDice method } } I apologise for the poor presentation of the code above (for some reason the code button on the Ask Question page is not doing what it should). My view is that option 1 is clumsy code and involves unnecessary creation of an array, even though the for-each loop is more efficient than the traditional for loop in Option 2. Thanks in advance for any suggestions you might have.

  Read the article

• Does Ctypes Structures and POINTERS automatically free the memory when the Python object is deleted?

  - by jsbueno

  When using Python CTypes there are the Structures, that allow you to clone c-structures on the Python side, and the POINTERS objects that create a sofisticated Python Object from a memory address value and can be used to pass objects by reference back and forth C code. What I could not find on the documentation or elsewhere is what happens when a Python object containing a Structure class that was de-referenced from a returning pointer from C Code (that is - the C function alocated memory for the structure) is itself deleted. Is the memory for the original C structure freed? If not how to do it? Furthermore -- what if the Structure contains Pointers itself, to other data that was also allocated by the C function? Does the deletion of the Structure object frees the Pointers onits members? (I doubt so) Else - -how to do it? Trying to call the system "free" from Python for the Pointers in the Structure is crashing Python for me. In other words, I have this structure filled up by a c Function call: class PIX(ctypes.Structure): """Comments not generated """ _fields_ = [ ("w", ctypes.c_uint32), ("h", ctypes.c_uint32), ("d", ctypes.c_uint32), ("wpl", ctypes.c_uint32), ("refcount", ctypes.c_uint32), ("xres", ctypes.c_uint32), ("yres", ctypes.c_uint32), ("informat", ctypes.c_int32), ("text", ctypes.POINTER(ctypes.c_char)), ("colormap", ctypes.POINTER(PIXCOLORMAP)), ("data", ctypes.POINTER(ctypes.c_uint32)) ] And I want to free the memory it is using up from Python code.

  Read the article

• How do I get the inserted id (or object) after an insert with the FormView/ObjectDataSource controls

  - by drs9222

  I have a series of classes that loosely fit the following pattern: public class CustomerInfo { public int Id {get; set;} public string Name {get; set;} } public class CustomerTable { public bool Insert(CustomerInfo info) { /*...*/ } public bool Update(CustomerInfo info) { /*...*/ } public CustomerInfo Get(int id) { /*...*/ } /*...*/ } After a successful insert the Insert method will set the Id property of the CustomerInfo object that was passed in. I've used these classes in several places and would prefer to altering them. Now I'm experimenting with writing an ASP.NET page for inserting and updating the records. I'm currently using the ObjectDataSource and FormView controls: <asp:ObjectDataSource TypeName="CustomerTable" DataObjectTypeName="CustomerInfo" InsertMethod="Insert" UpdateMethod="Update" SelectMethod="Get" /> I can successfully Insert and Update records. I would like to switch the FormView's mode from Insert to Edit after a successful insert. My first attempt was to switch the mode in the ItemInserted event. This of course did not work. I was using a QueryStringParameter for the id which of course wan't set when inserting. So, I switched to manually populating the InputParameters during the ObjectDataSource's Selecting event. The problem with this is I need to know the id of the newly inserted record which I can't find a good way to get. I understand that I can access the Insert method's return value, and out parameters in the ItemInserted event of course my method doesn't return the id using any of these methods. I can't find anyway to access the id or the CustomerInfo object that was inserted after the insert completes. The best I've been able to do is to save the CustomerInfo object in the ObjectDataSource's Inserting event. This feels like an odd way to do this. I figure that there must be a better way to do this and I'll kick myself when I see it. Any ideas?

  Read the article

• How does an NSTextField know that it's value has changed?

  - by Brian Postow

  I have a textfield that can either be edited by hand, or set through another control. (It's a page number, so you can jump to page 16 by typing in 16, or you can page up and down with the next/prev buttons) I have the value of the text field bound to an int page variable. It seems to work correctly, when you type a page number in, it jumps, when you page up and down, the page number in the text box changes appropriately. However, at some level, when I page up and down, the text box doesn't seem to know that it's value has changed, because if I type 1 it doesn't do anything. It doesn't call the bound set-method or anything. It looks like the textfield is thinking "I'm already 1, so I don't need to do anything." Even though it was 5 because I hit next 4 times. If I type an number other than 1, it goes there. If I THEN type 1, it goes to page 1, because now it thinks it's on that other page. The problem seems to be that I'm changing the value of the textfield programatically, but some part isn't getting the message. Does this seem like a reasonable explanation? And either way, any ideas on what's causing it? thanks

  Read the article

• How to tell axis2 to use an existing object as a service?

  - by Christian Hausknecht

  I am trying to expose some methods of a running application as a webservice. The core idea is to use an embedded web-server and send the soap messages to the apache axis2 framework in order to invoke the services. The problem is, that axis2's createService methods only accept Classes as parameter, not existing objects. So I believe that axis2 itself creates an object of the service class and then uses it to call methods when an external service call arrives. But I need to pass an existing object for being used as a service, because I need to call methods of other objects of the running application within the service methods. So the "standard" way that axis2 creates a new instance of the service class and calls then its methods is obviously no sulution for me. So is there a way to realize this? Or is there another solution? Perhaps you can pass objects later on to the allready created service object by axis2? If there is another solution without axis2 I might consider that one. Basically I am only interested in exposing some functionality of a runnning application as a webservice.

  Read the article

• How to join a table in symfony (Propel) and retrieve object from both table with one query

  - by Jean-Philippe

  Hi, I'm trying to get an easy way to fetch data from two joined Mysql table using Propel (inside Symfony) but in one query. Let's say I do this simple thing: $comment = CommentPeer::RetrieveByPk(1); print $comment->getArticle()->getTitle(); //Assuming the Article table is joined to the Comment table Symfony will call 2 queries to get that done. The first one to get the Comment row and the next one to get the Article row linked to the comment one. Now, I am trying to find a way to make all that within one query. I've tried to join them using $c = new Criteria(); $c->addJoin(CommentPeer::ARTICLE_ID, ArticlePeer::ID); $c->add(CommentPeer::ID, 1); $comment = CommentPeer::doSelectOne($c); But when I try to get the Article object using $comment->getArticle() It will still issue the query to get the Article row. I could easily clear all the selected columns and select the columns I need but that would not give me the Propel object I'd like, just an array of the query's raw result. So how can I get a populated propel object of two (or more) joined table with only one query? Thanks, JP

  Read the article

• how to bind the converted value from a datatable to my gridview.

  - by Ranjana

  how to bind the value to gridview i have a datatable DataTable dtBindGrid = new DataTable(); dtBindGrid = serviceobj.SelectExamTimeTable(txtSchoolName.Text, txtBranchName.Text, txtClass.Text, txtExamName.Text); foreach (DataRow row in dtBindGrid.Rows) { strgetday= row["Day"].ToString(); strgetdate = row["Date"].ToString(); DatedTime = Convert.ToDateTime(row["Time"].ToString()); strgettime = DatedTime.ToString("t"); strgetsubject = row["Subject"].ToString(); strgetduration = row["Duration"].ToString(); strgetsession = row["Session"].ToString(); strgetminmark = row["MinMarks"].ToString(); strgetmaxmark = row["MaxMarks"].ToString(); // dtBindGrid.Rows.Add(row); } GrdExamTimeTable.DataSource = dtBindGrid.DefaultView; GrdExamTimeTable.DataBind(); this datatable will return me some values like day,date,time,duration,subject,.. here im getting each value in string bec to convert the Time as 9.00am or 9.00pm DatedTime = Convert.ToDateTime(row["Time"].ToString()); strgettime = DatedTime.ToString("t"); .... how to bind this converted value to my gridview.

  Read the article

• C# How to perform a live xslt transformation on an in memory object?

  - by JL

  I have a function that takes 2 parameters : 1 = XML file, 2 = XSLT file, then performs a transformation and returns the resulting HTML. Here is the function: /// <summary> /// Will apply an XSLT style to any XML file and return the rendered HTML. /// </summary> /// <param name="xmlFileName"> /// The file name of the XML document. /// </param> /// <param name="xslFileName"> /// The file name of the XSL document. /// </param> /// <returns> /// The rendered HTML. /// </returns> public string TransformXml(string xmlFileName, string xslFileName) { var xtr = new XmlTextReader(xmlFileName) { WhitespaceHandling = WhitespaceHandling.None }; var xd = new XmlDocument(); xd.Load(xtr); var xslt = new System.Xml.Xsl.XslCompiledTransform(); xslt.Load(xslFileName); var stm = new MemoryStream(); xslt.Transform(xd, null, stm); stm.Position = 1; var sr = new StreamReader(stm); xtr.Close(); return sr.ReadToEnd(); } I want to change the function not to accept a file for the XML, but instead just an object. The object is exactly compatible with the xslt, if it was serialized to file. But I don't want to have to serialize it to a file first. So to recap : keep the xslt coming from a file, but the xml input should an object I pass and would like to generate the xml from without any file system interaction.

  Read the article

• How can I initialize a QTMovie object with certain attributes using writable data?

  - by c-had

  I'm trying to create an empty QTMovie object that I can add segments to, and then play. This is easy to do with something like: movie = [[QTMovie alloc] initToWritableData:[NSMutableData dataWithCapacity:1048576] error:&error]; I can then use -insertSegmentOfMovie to insert segments from other movies into this one so I can play it back. The problem is that I also need to set a certain attribute when creating the QTMovie object. In particular, I need to set the QTMovieRateChangesPreservePitchAttribute attribute, so that I can alter playback speed during playback without changing pitch. This attribute cannot be written after the movie is initialized. So, I can create the QTMovie object like this: movie = [[QTMovie alloc] initWithAttributes:[NSDictionary dictionaryWithObjectsAndKeys:[NSNumber numberWithBool:YES], QTMovieRateChangesPreservePitchAttribute, nil] error:&error]; Unfortunately, this is not editable. I've tried setting the QTMovieEditableAttribute as well on creation, but it does not help. I still get an exception when I try to insert anything into this movie. I presume this is because there is no writable file or data reference associated with the QTMovie. Any ideas on how to solve this?

  Read the article

• Exclude specific value from a Min/Max agregate funcion using ICriteria.

  - by sparks

  I have a schedule (Voyages) table like this: ID Arrival Departure OrderIndex 1 01/01/1753 02/10/2009 0 1 02/11/2009 02/15/2009 1 1 02/16/2009 02/19/2009 2 1 02/21/2009 01/01/1753 3 2 01/01/1753 03/01/2009 0 2 03/04/2009 03/07/2009 1 2 03/09/2009 01/01/1753 2 By design i save '01/01/1753' as a default value if the user doesn't fill a the field on the capture screen and for the very first Arrival and the very last Departure which are never provided. Im using Nhibernate and Criteria, and im wondering whats the best way to query this data if i want to know the First departure and last arrival for each voyage in the table. My first thought was a groupby (ID) and then do some Min and Max with the arrival and departure but the `'01/01/1753' VALUE is messing aronud. ... .SetProjection(Projections.ProjectionList() .Add(Projections.GroupProperty("ID"), "ID") .Add(Projections.Min("DepartureDate"), "DepartureDate") .Add(Projections.Max("ArrivalDate"), "ArrivalDate") ) ... So is there a way to skip this value in the Min function comparison (without losing the whole row of data), or there is a better way to do this, maybe utilizing the OrderIndex that always indicate the correct order of the elements, maybe ordering ASC taking the 1st and then Order DESC and taking the 1 st again, but im not quite sure how to do that with criteria syntax.

  Read the article

• How do I get XML path by its value?

  - by user299938

  I need to get the xml path opf the xml file by providing the value of an xml child element as the input. For example: XML file: <?xml version="1.0"?> <document-inquiry xmlns="http://ops.epo.org"> <publication-reference data-format="docdb" xmlns="http://www.epo.org/exchange"> <document-id> <country>EP</country> <doc-number>1000</doc-number> <kind>A1</kind> </document-id> </publication-reference> </document-inquiry> For the above XML file. I need to get the XML path by using the value "1000". If my input is value of the element "1000" Output i need is : <document-id> <country>EP</country> <doc-number>1000</doc-number> <kind>A1</kind> </document-id> I need to achieve this using c# code. Can anyone please help me out on this...

  Read the article

• How to safely transfer reference to object across window?

  - by Morgan Cheng

  I'm debugging a web application. Javasript in one window create one object and use it as argument to invoke global method in another window. Pseudo code is like below. var obj = new Foo(); anotherWin.bar(obj); In anotherWin, the argument is stored in global variable. var g_obj; function bar(obj) { g_obj = obj; ... } When other function tries to reference g_obj.Id, it throws exception "Cannot evaluate expression". This happens in IE8.0.7600.16385 on Windows 7. In Visual Studio debugger, when this exception happens, the g_obj shows as {...} It looks all its properties are lost. Perhaps the root reason is the object is created in one window but only referenced in another window. The object might be garbage-collected at any time. Is there any way to work around this?

  Read the article

• [php] Cookies only changing value every two page refreshes?

  - by Gazillion

  Hello, I'm trying to implement some pixel tracking where I will save certain values in a cookie to then forward users to another page. If users purchase a product after being forwarded to the online store by us the store adds an image tag in the page with our php script included. With the values set in the cookie we would like to track conversions. I understand this tracking technique has some limitations (like if a user has cookies turned off or if they do not load images but that's the direction my client wanted to go in). The problem I'm having is that the cookie's behaviour is extremely... random. I've been trying to track their values (with a var_dump so I don't have to wait for a page reload to view the cookie's value) but it seems the value for one field only gets refreshed every two page reloads. setcookie("tracking[cn]", $cn, time()+3600*24*7,'/','mydomain.com'); setcookie("tracking[t]", $t, time()+3600*24*7,'/','mydomain.com'); setcookie("tracking[kid]", $kid, time()+3600*24*7,'/','mydomain.com'); redirectTo($redirect_url); the values of cn, t are fine but for some reason kid is always wrong (having taken the value of the previous kid) Any help would be extremely appreciated I've been at this all evening! :)

  Read the article

• DD_belatedPNG.js - how to access the vml object? this is for a PNG image-swap.

  - by akc

  I am trying to use Drew Dillard's awesome DD_belatedPNG fix + jQuery to achieve a run-of-the-mill image-swap on hover -- but with PNGs, and to work on IE6. Example: <a id="thelink" href="blah.html"><img src="f-u-ie6.png" /></a> Since DD's script sets the visibility of the original image to "hidden", you can't effectively hover over it. A lot of people, I have noticed, are thwarted by this limitation. Enough so that Drew mentioned he would try to get a work-around into the next version of his PNG fix. Well, in the meantime, I thought I could get around this by handling the hover event on the image's parent instead. So onmouseover, I would hide the VML object created by DD_belatedPNG while setting a background image on "thelink", and onmouseout, show the VML object again and set the background image to nothing. The following code was just to see if I could access the VML object, but it does not work on the VML. It hides all manner of other children, but not the VML. Any ideas? $(document).ready(function(){ $("thelink").hover(function() { $(this).children().attr({ style: "visibility:hidden" }); }, function() { $(this).children().attr({ style: "visibility:visible" }); }); }); Alternatively, can anyone suggest a great PNG image-swap method? I know that you can swap a background image of a link. But you still need to have something inside the A tag. That's not my case. Also, you could put a transparent GIF in the A tag and have the background image swapped to achieve the effect, but I really don't want to do that. Thanks for your insights!

  Read the article

• how to check null value of Integer type field in ASP.NET MVC view?

  - by Vikas

  Hi, I have integer type field in database which is having property "Not Null". when i create a view & do a validation, if i left that field blank, it will consider it as 0 so i can not compare it with 0 because if someone insert a value 0 then it will be considered as error! one another problem is that i am using Model error as described in the book "ASP.NET MVC 1.0" @ Scott Gu blog. And I am checking the value in partial class of object (created by LINQ-To-SQL). i.e public partial class Person { public bool IsValid { get { return (GetRuleViolations().Count() == 0); } } public IEnumerable<RuleViolation> GetRuleViolations() { if (String.IsNullOrEmpty(Name)) yield return new RuleViolation("Name is Required", "Name"); if (Age == 0) yield return new RuleViolation("Age is Required", "Age"); yield break; } partial void OnValidate(ChangeAction action) { if (!IsValid) throw new ApplicationException("Rule violations prevent saving"); } } There is also problem with range. Like in database if i declared as smallint i.e. short in c#, now if i exceed that range then it gives error as "A Value is reguired". so finally is there any best way for validation in ASP.NET MVC?

  Read the article

• How to access webbrowser object on this code? C++

  - by extintor

  I found this example http://www.mvps.org/user32/webhost.cab that host an Internet Explorer WebBrowser object, and it uses this code to access the object void webhostwnd::CreateEmbeddedWebControl(void) { OleCreate(CLSID_WebBrowser,IID_IOleObject,OLERENDER_DRAW,0,&site,&storage,(void**)&mpWebObject); mpWebObject->SetHostNames(L"Web Host",L"Web View"); // I have no idea why this is necessary. remark it out and everything works perfectly. OleSetContainedObject(mpWebObject,TRUE); RECT rect; GetClientRect(hwnd,&rect); mpWebObject->DoVerb(OLEIVERB_SHOW,NULL,&site,-1,hwnd,&rect); IWebBrowser2* iBrowser; mpWebObject->QueryInterface(IID_IWebBrowser2,(void**)&iBrowser); VARIANT vURL; vURL.vt = VT_BSTR; vURL.bstrVal = SysAllocString(L"http://google.com"); VARIANT ve1, ve2, ve3, ve4; ve1.vt = VT_EMPTY; ve2.vt = VT_EMPTY; ve3.vt = VT_EMPTY; ve4.vt = VT_EMPTY; iBrowser->put_Left(0); iBrowser->put_Top(0); iBrowser->put_Width(rect.right); iBrowser->put_Height(rect.bottom); iBrowser->Navigate2(&vURL, &ve1, &ve2, &ve3, &ve4); VariantClear(&vURL); iBrowser->Release(); } I don't have much experience with cpp, I want to know how to access that same ie object (to use Navigate2 for example) from a button or something like that. How could I achieve this?

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 366 367 368 369 370 371 372 373 374 375 376 377  | Next Page >