Search Results

Search found 29191 results on 1168 pages for 'api key'.

Page 377/1168 | < Previous Page | 373 374 375 376 377 378 379 380 381 382 383 384  | Next Page >

  • What is the exact rule of jQuery's animate() parameters?

    - by Jian Lin
    jQuery 1.4.2's animate() API spec is .animate( properties, [ duration ], [ easing ], [ callback ] ) but it seems that we can supply duration, callback, and no easing .animate({left: '+= 100'}, 600, doThis) and it will work. But if we supply easing and callback and no duration .animate({left: '+=100'}, 'swing', doThis) then the easing won't be taken into effect. So what exactly is the API supposed to be?

    Read the article

  • Is it safe to silently catch ClassCastException when searching for a specific value?

    - by finnw
    Suppose I am implementing a sorted collection (simple example - a Set based on a sorted array.) Consider this (incomplete) implementation: import java.util.*; public class SortedArraySet<E> extends AbstractSet<E> { @SuppressWarnings("unchecked") public SortedArraySet(Collection<E> source, Comparator<E> comparator) { this.comparator = (Comparator<Object>) comparator; this.array = source.toArray(); Collections.sort(Arrays.asList(array), this.comparator); } @Override public boolean contains(Object key) { return Collections.binarySearch(Arrays.asList(array), key, comparator) >= 0; } private final Object[] array; private final Comparator<Object> comparator; } Now let's create a set of integers Set<Integer> s = new SortedArraySet<Integer>(Arrays.asList(1, 2, 3), null); And test whether it contains some specific values: System.out.println(s.contains(2)); System.out.println(s.contains(42)); System.out.println(s.contains("42")); The third line above will throw a ClassCastException. Not what I want. I would prefer it to return false (as HashSet does.) I can get this behaviour by catching the exception and returning false: @Override public boolean contains(Object key) { try { return Collections.binarySearch(Arrays.asList(array), key, comparator) >= 0; } catch (ClassCastException e) { return false; } } Assuming the source collection is correctly typed, what could go wrong if I do this?

    Read the article

  • SQL Server stored procedure return code oddity

    - by gbn
    Hello The client that calls this code is restricted and can only deal with return codes from stored procs. So, we modified our usual contract to RETURN -1 on error and default to RETURN 0 if no error If the code hits the inner catch block, then the RETURN code default to -4. Where does this come from, does anyone know...? IF OBJECT_ID('dbo.foo') IS NOT NULL DROP TABLE dbo.foo GO CREATE TABLE dbo.foo ( KeyCol char(12) NOT NULL, ValueCol xml NOT NULL, Comment varchar(1000) NULL, CONSTRAINT PK_foo PRIMARY KEY CLUSTERED (KeyCol) ) GO IF OBJECT_ID('dbo.bar') IS NOT NULL DROP PROCEDURE dbo.bar GO CREATE PROCEDURE dbo.bar @Key char(12), @Value xml, @Comment varchar(1000) AS SET NOCOUNT ON DECLARE @StartTranCount tinyint; BEGIN TRY SELECT @StartTranCount = @@TRANCOUNT; IF @StartTranCount = 0 BEGIN TRAN; BEGIN TRY --SELECT @StartTranCount = 'fish' INSERT dbo.foo (KeyCol, ValueCol, Comment) VALUES (@Key, @Value, @Comment); END TRY BEGIN CATCH IF ERROR_NUMBER() = 2627 --PK violation UPDATE dbo.foo SET ValueCol = @Value, Comment = @Comment WHERE KeyCol = @Key; ELSE RAISERROR ('Tits up', 16, 1); END CATCH IF @StartTranCount = 0 COMMIT TRAN; END TRY BEGIN CATCH IF @StartTranCount = 0 AND XACT_STATE() <> 0 ROLLBACK TRAN; RETURN -1 END CATCH --Without this, we'll send -4 if we hit the UPDATE CATCH block above --RETURN 0 GO --Run with RETURN 0 and fish line commented out DECLARE @rtn int EXEC @rtn = dbo.bar 'abcdefghijkl', '<foobar />', 'testing' SELECT @rtn; SELECT * FROM dbo.foo DECLARE @rtn int EXEC @rtn = dbo.bar 'abcdefghijkl', '<foobar2 />', 'testing2' --updated OK but we get @rtn = -4 SELECT @rtn; SELECT * FROM dbo.foo --uncomment fish line DECLARE @rtn int EXEC @rtn = dbo.bar 'abcdefghijkl', '<foobar />', 'testing' --Hit outer CATCH, @rtn = -1 as expected SELECT @rtn; SELECT * FROM dbo.foo

    Read the article

  • What is the proper HTTP response to send for requests that require SSL

    - by dasil003
    I'm designing an RESTful API where some calls are public over HTTP, and some require an API key and encryption over HTTPS. I'm deliberating on what response code should be sent if an HTTP request is sent to one of the private resources. So far the only one that jumps out at me is 412 - Precondition Failed, but the standard indicates that the precondition is imposed by the requester not the server. Is there an appropriate response code for this condition or do I just need to give in and do 400?

    Read the article

  • Memory efficient collection class

    - by Joe
    I'm building an array of dictionaries (called keys) in my iphone application to hold the section names and row counts for a tableview. the code looks like this: [self.results removeAllObjects]; [self.keys removeAllObjects]; NSUInteger i,j = 0; NSString *key = [NSString string]; NSString *prevKey = [NSString string]; if ([self.allResults count] > 0) { prevKey = [NSString stringWithString:[[[self.allResults objectAtIndex:0] valueForKey:@"name"] substringToIndex:1]]; for (NSDictionary *theDict in self.allResults) { key = [NSString stringWithString:[[theDict valueForKey:@"name"] substringToIndex:1]]; if (![key isEqualToString:prevKey]) { NSDictionary *newDictionary = [NSDictionary dictionaryWithObjectsAndKeys: [NSNumber numberWithInt:i],@"count", prevKey,@"section", [NSNumber numberWithInt:j], @"total",nil]; [self.keys addObject:newDictionary]; prevKey = [NSString stringWithString:key]; i = 1; } else { i++; } j++; } NSDictionary *newDictionary = [NSDictionary dictionaryWithObjectsAndKeys: [NSNumber numberWithInt:i],@"count", prevKey,@"section", [NSNumber numberWithInt:j], @"total",nil]; [self.keys addObject:newDictionary]; } [self.tableview reloadData]; The code works fine first time through but I sometimes have to rebuild the entire table so I redo this code which orks fine on the simulator, but on my device the program bombs when I execute the reloadData line : malloc: *** mmap(size=3772944384) failed (error code=12) *** error: can't allocate region *** set a breakpoint in malloc_error_break to debug malloc: *** mmap(size=3772944384) failed (error code=12) *** error: can't allocate region *** set a breakpoint in malloc_error_break to debug Program received signal: “EXC_BAD_ACCESS”. If I remove the reloadData line the code works on the device. I'm wondering if this is something to do with the way I've built the keys array (ie using autoreleased strings and dictionaries).

    Read the article

  • How to build a simulation of a login hardware token in .Net

    - by Michel
    Hi, i have a hardware token for remote login to some citrix environment. When i click the button on the device, i get an id and i can use that to login to the citrix farm. I can click the button as much as i like, and every time a new code gets generated, and they all work. Now i want to secure my private website likewise, but not with the hardware token, but with a 'token app' on my phone. So i run an app on my phone, generate a key, and use that to (partly) authenticate myself on the server. But here's the point: i don't know how it works! How can i generate 1, 2 or 100 keys at one time which i can see (on the server) are all valid, but without the server and the phone app having contact (the hardware token also is an 'offline' solution). Can you help me with a hint how i would do this? This is what i thought of so far: the phone app and the server app know (hardcoded) the same encryption key. The phone app encrypts the current time. The server app decrypts the string to the current time and if the diff between that time and the actual server time is less than 10 minutes it's an ok. Difficult for other users to fake a key, but encryption gives such nasty strings to enter, and the hardware token gives me nice things like 'H554TU8' And this is probably not how the real hardware token works, because the server and the phone app must 'know' the same encryption key. Michel

    Read the article

  • Fetch the most viewed data in databases

    - by Erik Edgren
    I want to get the most viewed photo from the database but I don't know how I shall accomplish this. Here's my SQL at the moment: SELECT * FROM photos AS p, viewers AS v WHERE p.id = v.id_photo GROUP BY v.id_photo The databases: CREATE TABLE IF NOT EXISTS `photos` ( `id` int(10) NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT, `photo_filename` varchar(50) NOT NULL, `photo_camera` varchar(150) NOT NULL, `photo_taken` datetime NOT NULL, `photo_resolution` varchar(10) NOT NULL, `photo_exposure` varchar(10) NOT NULL, `photo_iso` varchar(3) NOT NULL, `photo_fnumber` varchar(10) NOT NULL, `photo_focallength` varchar(10) NOT NULL, `post_coordinates` text NOT NULL, `post_description` text NOT NULL, `post_uploaded` datetime NOT NULL, `post_edited` datetime NOT NULL, `checkbox_approxcoor` enum('0','1') NOT NULL DEFAULT '0', PRIMARY KEY (`id`), UNIQUE KEY `id` (`id`) ) CREATE TABLE IF NOT EXISTS `viewers` ( `id` int(10) NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT, `id_photo` int(10) DEFAULT '0', `ipaddress` text NOT NULL, `date_viewed` datetime NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`id`), UNIQUE KEY `id` (`id`) ) The data in viewers looks like this: (1, 85, '3892a0ab97d6ff325f285b27b847070f', '2012-06-21 22:49:25'), (2, 84, '3892a0ab97d6ff325f285b27b847070f', '2012-06-21 22:49:25'), (3, 85, '3892a0ab97d6ff325f285b27b847070f', '2012-06-21 22:49:25'); One single row from the database for photos to understand how the rows looks like in this database: (85, 'P1170986.JPG', 'Panasonic DMC-LX3', '2012-06-19 18:00:40', '3968x2232', '10/8000', '80', '50/10', '51/10', '', '', '2012-06-19 18:45:17', '0000-00-00 00:00:00', '0') At the moment the SQL only prints the photo with ID 84. In this case it's wrong - it should print out the photo with ID 85. How can I fix this problem? Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Rails routes matching query parameters

    - by Harry Wood
    Rails routes are great for matching RESTful style '/' separated bits of a URL, but can I match query parameters in a map.connect config. I want different controllers/actions to be invoked depending on the presence of a parameter after the '?'. I was trying something like this... map.connect "api/my/path?apple=:applecode", :controller = 'apples_controller', :action = 'my_action' map.connect "api/my/path?banana=:bananacode", :controller = 'bananas_controller', :action = 'my_action' For routing purposes I don't care about the value of the parameter, as long as it is available to the controller in the 'params' hash

    Read the article

  • How to speed up/slow down application's 'time'

    - by overboming
    I guess I am not saying it right in the title. What I intend to do is to hook to some system api,like a time interrupt happens every amount of time (which is how every application in the operating system interprets time) and make an application's call to this api return some bigger/smaller result. So from the point view of an applicaiton, time has been speed up or slow down. I have found some application on windows doing this, can anyone gives me some pointers on how to implement this on Mac OS X?

    Read the article

  • Modifying C# dictionary value

    - by minjang
    I'm a C++ expert, but not at all for C#. I created a Dictionary<string, STATS>, where STATS is a simple struct. Once I built the dictionary with initial string and STATS pairs, I want to modify the dictionary's STATS value. In C++, it's very clear: Dictionary<string, STATS*> benchmarks; Initialize it... STATS* stats = benchmarks[item.Key]; // Touch stats directly However, I tried like this in C#: Dictionary<string, STATS> benchmarks = new Dictionary<string, STATS>(); // Initialize benchmarks with a bunch of STATS foreach (var item in _data) benchmarks.Add(item.app_name, item); foreach (KeyValuePair<string, STATS> item in benchmarks) { // I want to modify STATS value inside of benchmarks dictionary. STATS stat_item = benchmarks[item.Key]; ParseOutputFile("foo", ref stat_item); // But, not modified in benchmarks... stat_item is just a copy. } This is a really novice problem, but wasn't easy to find an answer. EDIT: I also tried like the following: STATS stat_item = benchmarks[item.Key]; ParseOutputFile(file_name, ref stat_item); benchmarks[item.Key] = stat_item; However, I got the exception since such action invalidates Dictionary: Unhandled Exception: System.InvalidOperationException: Collection was modified; enumeration operation may not execute. at System.ThrowHelper.ThrowInvalidOperationException(ExceptionResource resource) at System.Collections.Generic.Dictionary`2.Enumerator.MoveNext() at helper.Program.Main(String[] args) in D:\dev\\helper\Program.cs:line 75

    Read the article

  • Making widgets for websites

    - by ayush
    Can anyone suggest some open source api's and methods to make widgets that can be embedded on company websites. I have heard about yahoo api's but i do not find it properly documented.

    Read the article

  • exiting from a blocking select call!

    - by Jay
    I am calling a third party API which creates a socket, does a connect and then calls select API by passing the socket to block forever. I don't have access to the socket. Is there some way in which I can make the select call come out from my application without having access to the socket? My platform is Windows.

    Read the article

  • ASP MVC: E-mail Verification (Encrypting the activation link)

    - by wh0emPah
    Okay i'm a little bit stuck on how to solve this problem. When a user registers. I want to send him a link so that he can verify hes email address. But i have troubles generating the link. I've already written the controller to accept the links with the correct keys. i only have no idea on how to generate the activation keys. So when the user registers i'll send him a link by mail like this: Your activation link is : http://site.com/user/verify?key=keyhere Now i have created this method (called by the controller/action) to handle the key in the link: public string Verify(string value) { String email = Decrypt(value); user u = gebRep.GetUsers().WithEmail(email).SingleOrDefault(); if (u != null) { u.emailValid = true; userReppository.Save(); } return "Invallid validation value!"; } Now my problem is I have no idea on how to encrypt and decrypt the email into some sort of key (url friendly) So i can mail it with the link and can use it to verify the email. I need some kind of (not to complicated but secure) way to encrypt the email into a urlfriendly key. Tyvm

    Read the article

  • How to adjust microphone gain from C# (needs to work on XP & W7)...

    - by Ed
    First, note that I know there are a few questions like this already posted; however they don't seem to address the problem adequately. I have a C# application, with all the pInvoke hooks to talk to the waveXXX API, and I'm able to do capture and play back of audio with that. I'm also able to adjust speaker (WaveOut) volume with that API. The problem is that for whatever reason, that API does not allow me to adjust microphone (WaveIn) volume. So, I managed to find some mixer code that I've also pulled in and access through pInvoke and that allows me to adjust microphone volume, but only on my W7 PC. The mixer code I started with comes from here: http://social.msdn.microsoft.com/Forums/en-US/isvvba/thread/05dc2d35-1d45-4837-8e16-562ee919da85 and it works, but is written to adjust speaker volume. I added the SetMicVolume method shown here... public static void SetMicVolume(int mxid, int percentage) { bool rc; int mixer, vVolume; MIXERCONTROL volCtrl = new MIXERCONTROL(); int currentVol; mixerOpen(out mixer, mxid, 0, 0, MIXER_OBJECTF_WAVEIN); int type = MIXERCONTROL_CONTROLTYPE_VOLUME; rc = GetVolumeControl(mixer, MIXERLINE_COMPONENTTYPE_SRC_MICROPHONE, type, out volCtrl, out currentVol); if (rc == false) { mixerClose(mixer); mixerOpen(out mixer, 0, 0, 0, 0); rc = GetVolumeControl(mixer, MIXERLINE_COMPONENTTYPE_SRC_MICROPHONE, type, out volCtrl, out currentVol); if (rc == false) throw new Exception("SetMicVolume/GetVolumeControl() failed"); } vVolume = ((int)((float)(volCtrl.lMaximum - volCtrl.lMinimum) / 100.0F) * percentage); rc = SetVolumeControl(mixer, volCtrl, vVolume); if (rc == false) throw new Exception("SetMicVolume/SetVolumeControl() failed"); mixerClose(mixer); } Note the "second attempt" to call GetVolumeControl(). This is done because on XP, in the first call to GetVolumeControl (refer to site above for that code), the call to mixerGetLineControlsA() fails with XP systems returning MIXERR_INVALCONTROL. Then, with this second attempt using mixerOpen(out mixer, 0, 0, 0, 0), the code doesn't return a failure but the mic gain is unaffected. Note, as I said above, this works on W7 (the second attempt is never executed because it doesn't fail using mixerOpen(out mixer, mxid, 0, 0, MIXER_OBJECTF_WAVEIN)). I admit to not having a good grasp on the mixer API, so that's what I'm looking into now; however if anyone has a clue why this would work on W7, but not XP, I'd sure like to hear it. Meanwhile, if I figure it out before I get a response, I'll post my own answer...

    Read the article

  • Access Controller Context/ TempData from business objects

    - by thanikkal
    I am trying to build a session/tempdata provider that can be swapped. The default provider will work on top of asp.net mvc and it needed to access the .net mvc TempData from the business object class. I know the tempdata is available through the controller context, but i cant seem to find if that is exposed through HttpContext or something. I dont really want to pass the Controller context as an argument as that would dilute my interface definition since only asp.net based session provider needs this, other (using NoSQL DB etc) doesn't care about Controller Context. To clarify further, adding little more code here. my ISession interface look like this. and when this code goes to production, the session/tempdata is expected to work using NoSql db. But i also like to have another implementation that works on top of asp.net mvc session/tempdata for my dev testing etc. public interface ISession { T GetTempData<T>(string key); void PutTempData<T>(string key, T value); T GetSessiondata<T>(string key); void PutSessiondata<T>(string key, T value); }

    Read the article

  • LINQ to objects: Is there

    - by Charles
    I cannot seem to find a way to have LINQ return the value from a specified accessor. I know the name of the accessors for each object, but am unsure if it is possible to pass the requested accessor as a variable or otherwise achieve the desired refactoring. Consider the following code snippet: // "value" is some object with accessors like: format, channels, language row = new List<String> { String.Join(innerSeparator, (from item in myObject.Audio orderby item.Key ascending select item.Value.format).ToArray()), String.Join(innerSeparator, (from item in myObject.Audio orderby item.Key ascending select item.Value.channels).ToArray()), String.Join(innerSeparator, (from item in myObject.Audio orderby item.Key ascending select item.Value.language).ToArray()), // ... } I'd like to refactor this into a method that uses the specified accessor, or perhaps pass a delegate, though I don't see how that could work. string niceRefactor(myObj myObject, string /* or whatever type */ ____ACCESSOR) { return String.Join(innerSeparator, (from item in myObject.Audio orderby item.Key ascending select item.Value.____ACCESSOR).ToArray()); } I have written a decent amount of C#, but am still new to the magic of LINQ. Is this the right approach? How would you refactor this?

    Read the article

  • Problem with posting the message using php

    - by Darshana
    Hello, I have successfully come up to the access_token step along with final oauth_token and oauth_token_secret values. Now I'm trying to access the Post method given by Yammer API with following request : https://www.yammer.com/api/v1/messages/? body=MyMessage& oauth_consumer_key=Myconsumerkey& oauth_nonce=1825bbc0f0a2875eb94bdb4d51c0638b& oauth_signature=JzG4DCWxuP%2B7xT7u3tFZ2zCC8%2BI%3D& oauth_signature_method=HMAC-SHA1& oauth_timestamp=1257761059& oauth_token=Myfinaloauthtoken& oauth_version=1.0 But I'm getting "Invalid OAuth signature" error. Can somebody help me in this.

    Read the article

  • How to prepare data for display on a silverlight chart using WCF RIA Services + Entity Framework

    - by Banford
    I've used WCF RIA services with Entity Framework to build a simple application which can display and updates data about school courses. This was done by following the Microsoft tutorials. Now I would like to have a chart which shows a count for how many courses are on a key stage. Example: Key Stage 3 - 20 courses Key Stage 4 - 32 courses Key Stage 5 - 12 courses Displayed on any form of chart. I have no problem binding data to the chart in XAML. My problem is that I do not know how to correct way of getting the data into that format. The generated CRUD methods are basic. I have a few thoughts about possible ways, but don't know which is correct, they are: Create a View in SQL server and map this to a separate Entity in the Entity Data Model. Generating new CRUD methods for this automatically. Customise the read method in the existing DomainService using .Select() .Distinct() etc. Don't know this syntax very well labda expressions/LINQ??? what is it? Any good quickstarts on it? Create a new class to store only the data required and create a read method for it. Tried this but didn't know how to make it work without a matching entity in the entity model. Something I am not aware of. I'm very new to this and struggling with the concepts so if there are useful blogs or documentation I've missed feel free to point me towards them. But I'm unsure of the terminology to use in my searches at the moment.

    Read the article

  • Combinationally unique MySQL tables

    - by Jack Webb-Heller
    So, here's the problem (it's probably an easy one :P) This is my table structure: CREATE TABLE `users_awards` ( `user_id` int(11) NOT NULL, `award_id` int(11) NOT NULL, `duplicate` int(11) NOT NULL DEFAULT '0', UNIQUE KEY `award_id` (`award_id`) ) ENGINE=MyISAM DEFAULT CHARSET=latin1 So it's for a user awards system. I don't want my users to be granted the same award multiple times, which is why I have a 'duplicate' field. The query I'm trying is this (with sample data of 3 and 2) : INSERT INTO users_awards (user_id, award_id) VALUES ('3','2') ON DUPLICATE KEY UPDATE duplicate=duplicate+1 So my MySQL is a little rusty, but I set user_id to be a primary key, and award_id to be a UNIQUE key. This (kind of) created the desired effect. When user 1 was given award 2, it entered. If he/she got this twice, only one row would be in the table, and duplicate would be set to 1. And again, 2, etc. When user 2 was given award 1, it entered. If he/she got this twice, duplicate updated, etc. etc. But when user 1 is given award 1 (after user 2 has already been awarded it), user 2 (with award 1)'s duplicate field increases and nothing is added to user 1. Sorry if that's a little n00bish. Really appreciate the help! Jack

    Read the article

  • Conditional insert as a single database transaction in HSQLDB 1.8?

    - by Kevin Pauli
    I'm using a particular database table like a "Set" data structure, i.e., you can attempt to insert the same row several times, but it will only contain one instance. The primary key is a natural key. For example, I want the following series of operations to work fine, and result in only one row for Oklahoma: insert into states_visited (state_name) values ('Oklahoma'); insert into states_visited (state_name) values ('Texas'); insert into states_visited (state_name) values ('Oklahoma'); I am of course getting an error due to the duplicate primary key on subsequent inserts of the same value. Is there a way to make the insert conditional, so that these errors are not thrown? I.e. only do the the insert if the natural key does not already exist? I know I could do a where clause and a subquery to test for the row's existence first, but it seems that would be expensive. That's 2 physical operations for one logical "conditional insert" operation. Anything like this in SQL? FYI I am using HSQLDB 1.8

    Read the article

  • similar programs like Sofa Framework?

    - by TopTierTracker
    http://www.sofa-framework.org/ looking for other similar medical simulation software that have easier API for programming, better documentation and more active user interactive help forum. the goal is to do virtual design. I want to design something that can simulate a pipe pumping with haptic devices, but I couldn't get Sofa to work with my phantom device in their UI, and I can't use their API to build my stuff either. it's hard to get things going with slow support. thx for the help

    Read the article

  • GHC.Generics and Type Families

    - by jberryman
    This is a question related to my module here, and is simplified a bit. It's also related to this previous question, in which I oversimplified my problem and didn't get the answer I was looking for. I hope this isn't too specific, and please change the title if you can think if a better one. Background My module uses a concurrent chan, split into a read side and write side. I use a special class with an associated type synonym to support polymorphic channel "joins": {-# LANGUAGE TypeFamilies #-} class Sources s where type Joined s newJoinedChan :: IO (s, Messages (Joined s)) -- NOT EXPORTED --output and input sides of channel: data Messages a -- NOT EXPORTED data Mailbox a instance Sources (Mailbox a) where type Joined (Mailbox a) = a newJoinedChan = undefined instance (Sources a, Sources b)=> Sources (a,b) where type Joined (a,b) = (Joined a, Joined b) newJoinedChan = undefined -- and so on for tuples of 3,4,5... The code above allows us to do this kind of thing: example = do (mb , msgsA) <- newJoinedChan ((mb1, mb2), msgsB) <- newJoinedChan --say that: msgsA, msgsB :: Messages (Int,Int) --and: mb :: Mailbox (Int,Int) -- mb1,mb2 :: Mailbox Int We have a recursive action called a Behavior that we can run on the messages we pull out of the "read" end of the channel: newtype Behavior a = Behavior (a -> IO (Behavior a)) runBehaviorOn :: Behavior a -> Messages a -> IO () -- NOT EXPORTED This would allow us to run a Behavior (Int,Int) on either of msgsA or msgsB, where in the second case both Ints in the tuple it receives actually came through separate Mailboxes. This is all tied together for the user in the exposed spawn function spawn :: (Sources s) => Behavior (Joined s) -> IO s ...which calls newJoinedChan and runBehaviorOn, and returns the input Sources. What I'd like to do I'd like users to be able to create a Behavior of arbitrary product type (not just tuples) , so for instance we could run a Behavior (Pair Int Int) on the example Messages above. I'd like to do this with GHC.Generics while still having a polymorphic Sources, but can't manage to make it work. spawn :: (Sources s, Generic (Joined s), Rep (Joined s) ~ ??) => Behavior (Joined s) -> IO s The parts of the above example that are actually exposed in the API are the fst of the newJoinedChan action, and Behaviors, so an acceptable solution can modify one or all of runBehaviorOn or the snd of newJoinedChan. I'll also be extending the API above to support sums (not implemented yet) like Behavior (Either a b) so I hoped GHC.Generics would work for me. Questions Is there a way I can extend the API above to support arbitrary Generic a=> Behavior a? If not using GHC's Generics, are there other ways I can get the API I want with minimal end-user pain (i.e. they just have to add a deriving clause to their type)?

    Read the article

  • Release edit in QTableWidget Cell

    - by Schomin
    Basically I am trying to give the enter key the same functionality as the return key has when editing a cell in a qtablewidget. If editing a cell and enter is pressed I want it to jump out of editing that cell just like return does. It feels like I've literally tried everything. I've even tried passing a return press event to qcoreapplication. It seems like if your editing a cell and you press a key to trigger an action it wont happen. That seems to be what the problem is and I'm not sure how to get around that. I've been setting up all of my keyboard shortcuts for this program as actions because it seems easier to set up. Is there another way to do this that would allow the key event to happen when editing a cell? Can anyone help out with this? Thank you in advance. Tried this. It didn't work for me. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/518447/how-can-i-tell-a-qtablewidget-to-end-editing-a-cell

    Read the article

  • Keyboard shortcut to Un/Comment out code in Mathematica 7?

    - by dbjohn
    A keyboard shortcut to comment/uncomment out a piece of code is common in other programming IDE's for languages like Java, .Net. I find it a very useful technique when experimenting through trial and error to temporarily comment out and uncomment lines, words and parts of the code to find out what is and isn't working. I cannot find any such keyboard shortcut on the Mathematica front end in version 7. I know that it is possible to comment out code by selecting the code, right mouse click and select Un/Comment from the menu that appears but this is too slow while coding. I tried to access this using the menu key Menu on the keyboard but Mathematica frontend doesn't respond to or recognise this key unlike other applications, this could have allowed a key combination for commenting. Can someone else verify that this isn't unique to my machine and that the key isn't recognised by mathematica. I looked at this question and looked in the KeyEventTranslations.tr file but I don't think there is any way to create a shortcut to do this(?). Should I just live with it? Any other suggestions? (I have seen there is an Emacs version of mathematica, I have never tried Emacs or this Mma version and imagine that it would have this ability but would prefer not to go to the trouble and uncertainty of installing it. Also I would guess that the Wolfram Workbench could do this, but that may not be worth the investment just for this.)

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 373 374 375 376 377 378 379 380 381 382 383 384  | Next Page >