Search Results

Search found 10804 results on 433 pages for 'attribute keys'.

Page 377/433 | < Previous Page | 373 374 375 376 377 378 379 380 381 382 383 384  | Next Page >

  • Divs, flash and doctype :(

    - by nick
    I have a web-site, that uses colorbox, it also has flash header. Everything works fine in both ff and ie. Before ive started to use colorbox, i had little div that covered small part of flash header for menu purposes. Now, since im using colorbox, i had to declare doctype, and set wmode on flash to 'opaque', in order everything to work right way.But now i cant get that little div, to appear on top of my flash header. If anyone can help me with this, please do so.... or atleast tell me what should i read : ( im will be very gratefull for any solution. current html document structure: ... all the js and css files ... heres that div's style from corresponding css file: .cell_r0_c0{position: absolute;left: 61%;width:260;height:69; background-color: #000000; vertical-align: bottom;} I think i've allready tried all the combinations of position attribute, also tried diff z-index values, and i can't get it work the way i want. Maybe ive missed something idk. Please help me :(

    Read the article

  • [IceFaces] Why are validators of unchanged components called?

    - by bitschnau
    I have a IceFaces-form and several input fields. Let's say I have this: <ice:selectOneMenu id="accountMenu" value="#{accountController.account.aId}" validator="#{accountController.validateAccount}"> <f:selectItems id="accountItems" value="#{accountController.accountItems}" /> </ice:selectOneMenu> and this: <ice:selectOneMenu id="costumerMenu" value="#{customerController.customer.cId}" validator="#{customerController.validateCustomer"> <f:selectItems id="customerItems" value="#{customerController.customerItems}" /> </ice:selectOneMenu> If I change one value, the respective validator is called, what is fine. But also the other validator is called, which is not fine, because the user get's an irritating message to insert a value to a field he maybe was just going to pay attention to. It's like poking the user with a stick to "Hurry up now!". BAD! I thought the attribute "partialSubmit" is controlling this behaviour, so only the one DOM-part is submitted, which is affected by the user interaction, but if I declare the both components to be partially submitted, nothing changes. Still both validators are called if one component value is changed. How can I prevent the whole form from being validated until it is submitted completely?

    Read the article

  • JQuery Tabbed Nav Menu and PHP Forms Question?

    - by SlAcKeR
    I'm using a JQuery Tabbed Menu which holds different types of forms and when I select a different form located under a different tab and submit the form the tab will jump to the default tab instead of the current tab the form is located in. I was wondering how would I go about fixing this so that when the form is submitted the current tab is still selected, is it the JQuery or PHP problem? Here is the JQuery. $(document).ready(function() { //When page loads... $(".form-content").hide(); //Hide all content var firstMenu = $("#home-menu ul li:first"); firstMenu.show(); firstMenu.find("a").addClass("selected-link"); //Activate first tab $(".form-content:first").show(); //Show first tab content //On Click Event $("#home-menu ul li").click(function() { $("#home-menu ul li a").removeClass("selected-link"); //Remove any "selected-link" class $(this).find("a").addClass("selected-link"); //Add "selected-link" class to selected tab $(".form-content").hide(); //Hide all tab content var activeTab = $(this).find("a").attr("href"); //Find the href attribute value to identify the selected-link tab + content $(activeTab).fadeIn(); //Fade in the selected-link ID content return false; }); });

    Read the article

  • Reference to the Main Form whilst trying to Serialize objects in C#

    - by Paul Matthews
    I have a button on my main form which calls a method to serialize some objects to disk. I am trying to add these objects to an ArrayList and then serialize them using a BinaryFormatter and a FileStream. public void SerializeGAToDisk(string GenAlgName) { // Let's make a list that includes all the objects we // need to store a GA instance ArrayList GAContents = new ArrayList(); GAContents.Add(GenAlgInstances[GenAlgName]); // Structure and info for a GA GAContents.Add(RunningGAs[GenAlgName]); // There may be several running GA's using (FileStream fStream = new FileStream(GenAlgName + ".ga", FileMode.Create, FileAccess.Write, FileShare.None)) { BinaryFormatter binFormat = new BinaryFormatter(); binFormat.Serialize(fStream, GAContents); } } When running the above code I get the following exception: System.Runtime.Serialization.SerializationException was unhandled Message=Type 'WindowsFormsApplication1.Form1' in Assembly 'GeneticAlgApp, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null' is not marked as serializable. So that means that somewhere in the objects I'm trying to save there must be a reference to the main form. The only possible references I can see are 3 delegates which all point to methods in the main form code. Do delegates get serialized as well? I can't seem to apply the [NonSerialized] attribute to them. Is there anything else I might be missing? Even better, is there a quick method to find the reference(s) that are causing the problem?

    Read the article

  • remove a duplicate element(with specific value) from xml using linq

    - by Q8Y
    If I have this xml <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <super> <A value="1234"> <a1 xx="000" yy="dddddd" /> <a1 xx="111" yy="eeeeee" /> <a1 xx="222" yy="ffffff"/> </A> </super> and I need to remove a1 element (that have xx=222) completely. why this won't happen using my code?? i realized that it will delete it only if it was placed the first element(i.e, if i want to delete a1 that have x=000 , it will delete it since its the first one), why is that?? what wrong with the code ?? var employee = from emp in element.Elements("A") where (string)emp.Element("a1").Attribute("xx") == "222" select emp.Element("a1"); foreach (var empployee_1 in employee) { empployee_1.Remove(); } element.Save(@"TheLocation"); thanks alot

    Read the article

  • send post data in jsf

    - by milostrivun
    I just cannot figure this out, it looks really simple but I'm relatively new at jsf. Here is the old stuff: Plain old html form tag like this: <form name="someForm" action="somewhere" method="post"> <input name="param1"/> <input name="param2" /> </form That is sending data by post to a location specified in the action attribute of the form. The new stuff: <h:form id="paymentForm"> <h:panelGroup> <h:inputText id="param1" value="#{facesView.param1}" ></h:inputText> <h:inputText id="param1" value="#{facesView.param2}" ></h:inputText> <h:panelGroup> <h:commandLink>Submit</h:commandLink> </h:panelGroup> </h:form> This other new stuff doesn't work. 1.How do I specify to this h:form where to go(like setting action in old html) because I need it to go to a totally new url. 2.how to pass params with POST? Any help is appreciated. Milos

    Read the article

  • pulling a value from NSMutableDictionary

    - by Jared Gross
    I have a dictionary array with a key:@"titleLabel". I am trying to load a pickerView with ONE instance of each @"titleLabel" key so that if there are multiple objects with the same @"titleLabel" only one title will be displayed. I've done some research on this forum and looked at apples docs but haven't been able to put the puzzle together. Below is my code but I am having trouble pulling the values. Right now when I run this code it throws an error Incompatible pointer types sending 'PFObject *' to parameter of type 'NSString' which i understand but am just not sure how to remedy. Cheers! else { // found messages! self.objectsArray = objects; NSMutableDictionary *dict = [[NSMutableDictionary alloc] init]; for(id obj in self.objectsArray){ PFObject *key = [self.objectsArray valueForKey:@"titleLabel"]; if(![dict objectForKey:@"titleLabel"]){ [dict setValue:obj forKey:key]; } } for (id key in dict) { NSLog(@"Objects array is %d", [self.objectsArray count]); NSLog(@"key: %@, value: %@ \n", key, [dict objectForKey:key]); } [self.pickerView reloadComponent:0]; } }];` Here is where I define the PFObject and keys: PFObject *image = [PFObject objectWithClassName:@"Images"]; [image setObject:file forKey:@"file"]; [image setObject:fileType forKey:@"fileType"]; [image setObject:title forKey:@"titleLabel"]; [image setObject:self.recipients forKey:@"recipientIds"]; [image setObject:[[PFUser currentUser] objectId] forKey:@"senderId"]; [image setObject:[[PFUser currentUser] username] forKey:@"senderName"]; [image saveInBackground];

    Read the article

  • Having trouble parsing XML with jQuery

    - by Jack
    Hi Guys, I'm trying to parse some XML data using jQuery, and as it stands I have extracted the 'ID' attribute of the required nodes and stored them in an array, and now I want to run a loop for each array member and eventually grab more attributes from the notes specific to each ID. The problem currently is that once I get to the 'for' loop, it isn't looping, and I think I may have written the xml path data incorrectly. It runs once and I recieve the 'alert(arrayIds.length);' only once, and it only loops the correct amount of times if I remove the subsequent xml path code. Here is my function: var arrayIds = new Array(); $(document).ready(function(){ $.ajax({ type: "GET", url: "question.xml", dataType: "xml", success: function(xml) { $(xml).find("C").each(function(){ $("#attr2").append($(this).attr('ID') + "<br />"); arrayIds.push($(this).attr('ID')); }); for (i=0; i<arrayIds.length; i++) { alert(arrayIds.length); $(xml).find("C[ID='arrayIds[i]']").(function(){ // pass values alert('test'); }); } } }); }); Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • Binding value for NSTableView, but tooltip gets set as well

    - by Mark
    I've set up an NSTableView in Interface Builder to be populated from an NSArray. Each value of the array represents one row in the table. The value is bound correctly, but as a side effect, the table cell's tooltip is set to the string representation of the bound object. In my case, the NSArray contains NSDictiorany objects and the tooltip looks like it could be the [... description] output of that dictionary. Very ugly... I don't want the tooltip to be set at all. I have other tables that have plain NSString values bound to them and they don't have a tooltip set automatically. Is there some Interface Builder magic going on? I tried to start with a blank project - same problem. I should add that the table cell is a custom implementation of NSTextFieldCell that uses an NSButtonCell instance to draw an image and a label into the table. The values are retrieved from the dictionary bound as value. Why is the tooltip set when I only bind the "value" attribute? Thanks in advance!

    Read the article

  • Create a multicolor selectbox on Symfony2

    - by Ninsuo
    I try to create the following field : <select name="test"> <option value="1">a</option> <option value="2">b</option> <option value="3" style="font-weight: bold; color: red;">c</option> <option value="4">d</option> <option value="5">e</option> </select> This creates a 2-color selectbox : But in Symfony2, I do not know how to apply a class to a single option. If in my view I do : {{ form_widget(myForm.test, { 'attr': { 'class': 'red', } }) }} Or if in my form I do : $builder->add('test', 'choice', array( 'required' => true, 'choices' => array('a', 'b', 'c', 'd', 'e'), 'attr' => array('class' => 'red'), )); The attribute is stored into the <select> tag and apply to the whole selectable values. How do I apply a class to an <option> in Symfony2 ?

    Read the article

  • How to Map Two Tables To One Class in Fluent NHibernate

    - by Richard Nagle
    I am having a problem with fluent nhiberbate mapping two tables to one class. I have the following database schema: TABLE dbo.LocationName ( LocationId INT PRIMARY KEY, LanguageId INT PRIMARY KEY, Name VARCHAR(200) ) TABLE dbo.Language ( LanguageId INT PRIMARY KEY, Locale CHAR(5) ) And want to build the following class definition: public class LocationName { public virtual int LocationId { get; private set; } public virtual int LanguageId { get; private set; } public virtual string Name { get; set; } public virtual string Locale { get; set; } } Here is my mapping class: public LocalisedNameMap() { WithTable("LocationName"); UseCompositeId() .WithKeyProperty(x => x.LanguageId) .WithKeyProperty(x => x.LocationId); Map(x => x.Name); WithTable("Language", lang => { lang.WithKeyColumn("LanguageId"); lang.Map(x => x.Locale); }); } The problem is with the mapping of the Locale field being from another table, and in particular that the keys between those tables don't match. Whenever I run the application with this mapping I get the following error on startup: Foreign key (FK7FC009CCEEA10EEE:Language [LanguageId])) must have same number of columns as the referenced primary key (LocationName [LanguageId, LocationId]) How do I tell nHibernate to map from LocationName to Language using only the LanguageId field?

    Read the article

  • Spring MVC 3.0 Rest problem

    - by Gidogeek
    Hi Guys, I'm trying out Spring MVC 3.0 for the first time and like to make it RESTfull. This is my controller: @Controller @RequestMapping(value = "/product") @SessionAttributes("product") public class ProductController { @Autowired private ProductService productService; public void setProductValidator(ProductValidator productValidator, ProductService productService) { this.productService = productService; } @RequestMapping(method = RequestMethod.GET) public Product create() { //model.addAttribute(new Product()); return new Product(); } @RequestMapping(method = RequestMethod.POST) public String create(@Valid Product product, BindingResult result) { if (result.hasErrors()) { return "product/create"; } productService.add(product); return "redirect:/product/show/" + product.getId(); } @RequestMapping(value = "/show/{id}", method = RequestMethod.GET) public Product show(@PathVariable int id) { Product product = productService.getProductWithID(id); if (product == null) { //throw new ResourceNotFoundException(id); } return product; } @RequestMapping(method = RequestMethod.GET) public List<Product> list() { return productService.getProducts(); } } I have 2 questions about this. I'm a believer in Convention over Configuration and therefor my views are in jsp/product/ folder and are called create.jsp , list.jsp and show.jsp this works relatively well until I add the @PathVariable attribute. When I hit root/product/show/1 I get the following error: ../jsp/product/show/1.jsp" not found how do I tell this method to use the show.jsp view ? If I don't add the RequestMapping on class level my show method will be mapped to root/show instead of root/owner/show how do I solve this ? I'd like to avoid using the class level RequestMapping.

    Read the article

  • How to detect column conflicts with Hibernate?

    - by Slim
    So let's say I have an ArrayList full of Products that need to be committed to the database via Hibernate. There are already a large number of Products in the database. Each product has an ID. Note this is NOT the PK that is autogenerated by Hibernate. My questions is: what is the best way to detect conflicts with this ID? I am looking for a relatively efficient method of obtaining, from the the database, a List of Products that share an ID with any of the Products in my ArrayList. This is all in a single table called Products and the ID attribute is in column ProductID. The way I've done it is grabbing a list of all Products in the database, and compared each one with each entry in my ArrayList - but that is seriously inefficient and I don't think it would work well with a larger database. How should it be done? Thanks. I say "relatively" efficient because efficiency is not the primary concern, but it shouldn't take noticeably long to test against a table of ~1000-5000 rows. Help? EDIT* I'm very new to hibernate and below is the best I've come up with. How does this look? for(long id : idList){ //idList just holds the IDs of each Product in my ArrayList Query query = session.createQuery("select product from Product product where product.id = :id"); query.setLong("id", id); for(int i = 0; i < query.list().size(); i++){ listOfConflictingProducts.add((Product) query.list().get(i)); } }

    Read the article

  • Core jQuery event modification problem

    - by DSKVR
    I am attempting to overwrite a core jQuery event, in this case the keydown event. My intention is to preventDefault() functionality of Left(37), Up(38), Right(39) and Down(40) to maintain the consistency of hot keys in my web application. I am using the solution provided here for the conditional charCode preventDefault problem. For some reason, my function overwrite is simply not firing, and I cannot put my finger on the problem. I am afraid that over the past 30 minutes this issue has resulted in some hair loss. Anybody have the remedy? /* Modify Keydown Event to prevent default PageDown and PageUp functionality */ (function(){ var charCodes = new Array(37,38,39,40); var original = jQuery.fn.keydown; jQuery.fn.keydown = function(e){ var key=e.charCode ? e.charCode : e.keyCode ? e.keyCode : 0; alert('now why is my keydown mod not firing?'); if($.inArray(key,charCodes)) { alert('is one of them, do not scroll page'); e.preventDefault(); return false; } original.apply( this, arguments ); } })();

    Read the article

  • asp.net MVC ActionMethod causing null exception on parameter

    - by David Liddle
    I am trying to add filter functionality that sends a GET request to the same page to filter records in my table. The problem I am having is that the textbox complains about null object reference when a parameter is not passed. For example, when the person first views the page the url is '/mycontroller/myaction/'. Then when they apply a filter and submit the form it should be something like 'mycontroller/myaction?name=...' Obviously the problem stems from when the name value has not been passed (null) it is still trying to be bound to the 'name' textbox. Any suggestions on what I should do regarding this problem? UPDATE I have tried setting the DefaultValue attribute but I am assuming this is only for route values and not query string values ActionResult MyAction([DefaultValue("")] string name) //Action - /mycontroler/myaction ActionResult MyAction(string name) { ...do stuff } //View <div id="filter"> <% Html.BeginForm("myaction", "mycontroller", FormMethod.Get); %> Name: <%= Html.TextBox("name") %> .... </div> <table>...my list of filtered data

    Read the article

  • PayPal sandbox anomalies

    - by Christian
    When testing some donations on my local machine, I set various key=value pairs to do various things (return to specific thank you page, get POST data from PayPal and not GET data and others) I also built my code around the response from the PayPal sandbox. BUT, when my code goes to the production server and we switch on live payments and test with real accounts and money, a few strange things happen; We get a GET response from PayPal - the URL is filled with crap. We get no transaction details. This is the biggie, no name, no txn_id, no dates, nothing. We get a handful of keys etc, its not totally empty and the payment has gone through, but nowhere near the verbosity of the sandbox. Curious about why this might be? It doesn't really make sense to have a sandbox (or dev environment) that is substantially different from the production environment. Or, am I missing something? EDIT: Still no response to my question in the PayPal Developer Forums. I don't even get a donation amount back from PayPal. Is this a setting maybe? EDIT #2: Two of you have suggested to check PDT and Auto-Return. The data analytics guy for the project only 2 hrs ago suggested the same. I have asked the client to confirm this. I can't see a setting for it in the Sandbox so can assume that it is enabled by default?

    Read the article

  • CakePHP: Need help using saveField to update a fields in a belongsTo model

    - by afrisch
    I am trying to update a password into two different models/tables in CakePHP. I can update it fine in the parent model, but not the second model. Models: Users (hasOne GameProfile) PK=id Gameprofiles (belongsTo User) FK=user_id Here is a stripped down version of my function in the Users_controller.php: function updatepass() { if (!empty($this->data)) { $this->User->id = $this->Auth->user('id'); $this->User->saveField('sha1password', $this->Auth->password($this->data['User']['newpass'])); $this->User->Gameprofile->saveField('plainpassword', $this->data['User']['newpass']); } } When I execute the function, the users table is updated fine. But the gameprofile table is not updated, rather Cake does an insert. SQL Query Log: 1195 Query UPDATE `users` SET `sha1password` = 'e9443e9f5e1a07832aad1b2f84de1a666daf89b5' WHERE `users`.`id` = 30 1195 Query INSERT INTO `gameprofiles` (`plainpassword`) VALUES ('abc') Is there a way to get CakePHP to do an update using saveField on a model with a belongsTo attribute? I've tried various ways to refer to user_id before executing the second saveField, but just can't seem to find the winning combination. Any help is greatly appreciated!

    Read the article

  • Altering ManagedObjects In NSArray

    - by Garry
    I have an entity called 'Job' with two boolean attributes named 'completed' and 'logged'. I am trying to retrieve all completed jobs that have not been logged at app start-up and change them to logged. I'm able to get all the completed but unlogged jobs with this fetchRequest: NSPredicate *predicate = [NSPredicate predicateWithFormat:@"(completed == %@ && logged == %@)", [NSNumber numberWithBool:YES], [NSNumber numberWithBool:NO]]; I'm then assigning this predicate to a fetchRequest and calling the [managedObjectContext executeFetchRequest:fetchRequest] method to get an array of all Job entities that meet this criteria. This seems to work fine and is returning the correct number of jobs. What I've been trying to do is loop through the NSArray returned, set the logged attribute to YES and then save. This seems to complete and doesn't return any errors but the changes are not persisted when the application quits. Where am I going wrong? [fetchRequest setPredicate:predicate]; NSError error; NSArray jobsToLog = [managedObjectContext executeFetchRequest:fetchRequest error:&error]; if ([jobsToLog count] > 0) { for (int i = 0; i < [jobsToLog count] - 1; i++) { [[jobsToLog objectAtIndex:i] setLogged:[NSNumber numberWithBool:YES]]; // Commit the changes made to disk error = nil; if (![managedObjectContext save:&error]) { // An error occurred } } } Thanks in anticipation,

    Read the article

  • Manually wiring up unobtrusive jquery validation client-side without Model/Data Annotations, MVC3

    - by cmorganmcp
    After searching and experimenting for 2 days I relent. What I'd like to do is manually wire up injected html with jquery validation. I'm getting a simple string array back from the server and creating a select with the strings as options. The static fields on the form are validating fine. I've been trying the following: var dates = $("<select id='ShiftDate' data-val='true' data-val-required='Please select a date'>"); dates.append("<option value=''>-Select a Date-</option>"); for (var i = 0; i < data.length; i++) { dates.append("<option value='" + data[i] + "'>" + data[i] + "</option>"); } $("fieldset", addShift).append($("<p>").append("<label for='ShiftDate'>Shift Date</label>\r").append(dates).append("<span class='field-validation-valid' data-valmsg-for='ShiftDate' data-valmsg-replace='true'></span>")); // I tried the code below as well instead of adding the data-val attributes and span manually with no luck dates.rules("add", { required: true, messages: { required: "Please select a date" } }); // Thought this would do it when I came across several posts but it didn't $.validator.unobtrusive.parse(dates.closest("form")); I know I could create a view model ,decorate it with a required attribute, create a SelectList server-side and send that, but it's more of a "how would I do this" situation now. Can anyone shed light on why the above code wouldn't work as I expect? -chad

    Read the article

  • JPA - Real primary key generated ID for references

    - by Val
    I have ~10 classes, each of them, have composite key, consist of 2-4 values. 1 of the classes is a main one (let's call it "Center") and related to other as one-to-one or one-to-many. Thinking about correct way of describing this in JPA I think I need to describe all the primary keys using @Embedded / @PrimaryKey annotations. Question #1: My concern is - does it mean that on the database level I will have # of additional columns in each table referring to the "Center" equal to number of column in "Center" PK? If yes, is it possible to avoid it by using some artificial unique key for references? Could you please give an idea how real PK and the artificial one needs to be described in this case? Note: The reason why I would like to keep the real PK and not just use the unique id as PK is - my application have some data loading functionality from external data sources and sometimes they may return records which I already have in local database. If unique ID will be used as PK - for new records I won't be able to do data update, since the unique ID will not be available for just downloaded ones. At the same time it is normal case scenario for application and it just need to update of insert new records depends on if the real composite primary key matches. Question #2: All of the 10 classes have common field "date" which I described in an abstract class which each of them extends. The "date" itself is never a key, but it always a part of composite key for each class. Composite key is different for each class. To be able to use this field as a part of PK should I describe it in each class or is there any way to use it as is? I experimented with @Embedded and @PrimaryKey annotations and always got an error that eclipselink can't find field described in an abstract class. Thank you in advance! PS. I'm using latest version of eclipselink & H2 database.

    Read the article

  • django: results in in_bulk style without IDs

    - by valya
    in django 1.1.1, Place.objects.in_bulk() does not work and Place.objects.in_bulk(range(1, 100)) works and returns a dictionary of Ints to Places with indexes - primary keys. How to avoid using range in this situation (and avoid using a special query for ids, I just want to get all objects in this dictionary format) >>> Place.objects.in_bulk() Traceback (most recent call last): File "<console>", line 1, in <module> File "/usr/lib/python2.5/site-packages/Django-1.1.1-py2.5.egg/django/db/models/manager.py", line 144, in in_bulk return self.get_query_set().in_bulk(*args, **kwargs) TypeError: in_bulk() takes exactly 2 arguments (1 given) >>> Place.objects.in_bulk(range(1, 100)) {1L: <Place: "??? ????">, 3L: <Place: "???????????? ?????">, 4L: <Place: "????????? "??????"">, 5L: <Place: "????????? "??????"">, 8L: <Place: "????????? "??????????????"">, 9L: <Place: "??????? ????????">, 10L: <Place: "????????? ???????">, 11L: <Place: "??????????????? ???">, 14L: <Place: "????? ????? ??????">}

    Read the article

  • Undefined method for a belongs_to association

    - by marimaf
    My code: class User < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :university end class University < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :users, dependent: :destroy end and my model User has a university_id attribute. If I do University.find(1).users I get the list of users, but if I do User.find(1).university (and I checked that university_id is not nil here) I get: NoMethodError: undefined method `university' for from /home/mari/.rvm/gems/ruby-1.9.2-p290/gems/activemodel-3.0.10/lib/active_model/attribute_methods.rb :392:in `method_missing' from /home/mari/.rvm/gems/ruby-1.9.2-p290/gems/activerecord-3.0.10/lib/active_record/attribute_methods. rb:46:in `method_missing' from (irb):14 from /home/mari/.rvm/gems/ruby-1.9.2-p290/gems/railties-3.0.10/lib/rails/commands/console.rb:44:in sta rt' from /home/mari/.rvm/gems/ruby-1.9.2-p290/gems/railties-3.0.10/lib/rails/commands/console.rb:8:in star t' from /home/mari/.rvm/gems/ruby-1.9.2-p290/gems/railties-3.0.10/lib/rails/commands.rb:23:in <top (requi red)>' from script/rails:6:inrequire' from script/rails:6:in `' What am I doing wrong? I have another models and they are working just fine. Any suggestions? Thanks in advance

    Read the article

  • Django filters - Using an AllValuesFilter (with a LinkWidget) on a ManyToManyField

    - by magnetix
    This is my first Stack Overflow question, so please let me know if I do anything wrong. I wish to create an AllValues filter on a ManyToMany field using the wonderful django-filters application. Basically, I want to create a filter that looks like it does in the Admin, so I also want to use the LinkWidget too. Unfortunately, I get an error (Invalid field name: 'operator') if I try this the standard way: # Models class Organisation(models.Model): name = models.CharField() ... class Sign(models.Model): name = models.CharField() operator = models.ManyToManyField('Organisation', blank=True) ... # Filter class SignFilter(LinkOrderFilterSet): operator = django_filters.AllValuesFilter(widget=django_filters.widgets.LinkWidget) class Meta: model = Sign fields = ['operator'] I got around this by creating my own filter with the many to many relationship hard coded: # Models class Organisation(models.Model): name = models.CharField() ... class Sign(models.Model): name = models.CharField() operator = models.ManyToManyField('Organisation', blank=True) ... # Filter class MyFilter(django_filters.ChoiceFilter): @property def field(self): cd = {} for row in self.model.objects.all(): orgs = row.operator.select_related().values() for org in orgs: cd[org['id']] = org['name'] choices = zip(cd.keys(), cd.values()) list.sort(choices, key=lambda x:(x[1], x[0])) self.extra['choices'] = choices return super(AllValuesFilter, self).field class SignFilter(LinkOrderFilterSet): operator = MyFilter(widget=django_filters.widgets.LinkWidget) I am new to Python and Django. Can someone think of a more generic/elegant way of doing this?

    Read the article

  • What is the best / proper idiom in django for modifying a field during a .save() where you need to o

    - by MDBGuy
    Hi, say I've got: class LogModel(models.Model): message = models.CharField(max_length=512) class Assignment(models.Model): someperson = models.ForeignKey(SomeOtherModel) def save(self, *args, **kwargs): super(Assignment, self).save() old_person = #????? LogModel(message="%s is no longer assigned to %s"%(old_person, self).save() LogModel(message="%s is now assigned to %s"%(self.someperson, self).save() My goal is to save to LogModel some messages about who Assignment was assigned to. Notice that I need to know the old, presave value of this field. I have seen code that suggests, before super().save(), retrieve the instance from the database via primary key and grab the old value from there. This could work, but is a bit messy. In addition, I plan to eventually split this code out of the .save() method via signals - namely pre_save() and post_save(). Trying to use the above logic (Retrieve from the db in pre_save, make the log entry in post_save) seemingly fails here, as pre_save and post_save are two seperate methods. Perhaps in pre_save I can retrieve the old value and stick it on the model as an attribute? I was wondering if there was a common idiom for this. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Does Microsoft Access use the PK fields for anything?

    - by chrismay
    Ok this is going to sound strange, but I have inherited an app that is an Access front end with a SQL Server backend. I am in the process of writing a new front end for it, but... we need to continue using the access front end for a while even after we deploy my new front end for reasons I won't go into. So both the existing Access app and my new app will need to be able to access and work with the data. The problem is the database design is a nightmare. For example some simple parent-child table relationships have like 4 and 5 part composite primary keys. I would REALLY like to remove these PKs and replace them with unique constraints or whatever, and add a new column to each of these tables called ID that is just an identity. If I change the PK and FKs on these tables to more managable fields, will the Access app have problems? What I mean is, does access use the meta data from the tables (PK and FK info) in such a way that it would break the app to change these?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 373 374 375 376 377 378 379 380 381 382 383 384  | Next Page >