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  • How do I get a delete trigger working using fluent API in CTP5?

    - by user668472
    I am having trouble getting referential integrity dialled down enough to allow my delete trigger to fire. I have a dependent entity with three FKs. I want it to be deleted when any of the principal entities is deleted. For principal entities Role and OrgUnit (see below) I can rely on conventions to create the required one-many relationship and cascade delete does what I want, ie: Association is removed when either principal is deleted. For Member, however, I have multiple cascade delete paths (not shown here) which SQL Server doesn't like, so I need to use fluent API to disable cascade deletes. Here is my (simplified) model: public class Association { public int id { get; set; } public int roleid { get; set; } public virtual Role role { get; set; } public int? memberid { get; set; } public virtual Member member { get; set; } public int orgunitid { get; set; } public int OrgUnit orgunit { get; set; } } public class Role { public int id { get; set; } public virtual ICollection<Association> associations { get; set; } } public class Member { public int id { get; set; } public virtual ICollection<Association> associations { get; set; } } public class Organization { public int id { get; set; } public virtual ICollection<Association> associations { get; set; } } My first run at fluent API code looks like this: protected override void OnModelCreating(System.Data.Entity.ModelConfiguration.ModelBuilder modelBuilder) { DbDatabase.SetInitializer<ConfDB_Model>(new ConfDBInitializer()); modelBuilder.Entity<Member>() .HasMany(m=>m.assocations) .WithOptional(a=>a.member) .HasForeignKey(a=>a.memberId) .WillCascadeOnDelete(false); } My seed function creates the delete trigger: protected override void Seed(ConfDB_Model context) { context.Database.SqlCommand("CREATE TRIGGER MemberAssocTrigger ON dbo.Members FOR DELETE AS DELETE Assocations FROM Associations, deleted WHERE Associations.memberId = deleted.id"); } PROBLEM: When I run this, create a Role, a Member, an OrgUnit, and an Association tying the three together all is fine. When I delete the Role, the Association gets cascade deleted as I expect. HOWEVER when I delete the Member I get an exception with a referential integrity error. I have tried setting ON CASCADE SET NULL because my memberid FK is nullable but SQL complains again about multiple cascade paths, so apparently I can cascade nothing in the Member-Association relationship. To get this to work I must add the following code to Seed(): context.Database.SqlCommand("ALTER TABLE dbo.ACLEntries DROP CONSTRAINT member_aclentries"); As you can see, this drops the constraint created by the model builder. QUESTION: this feels like a complete hack. Is there a way using fluent API for me to say that referential integrity should NOT be checked, or otherwise to get it to relax enough for the Member delete to work and allow the trigger to be fired? Thanks in advance for any help you can offer. Although fluent APIs may be "fluent" I find them far from intuitive.

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  • Limit the model data fields serialized by Web API based on the return type Interface

    - by Stevo3000
    We're updating our architecture to use a single object model for desktop, web and mobile that can be used in the MVVM pattern. I would like to be able to limit the data fields that are serialized through Web API by using interfaces on the controllers. This is required because the model objects for mobile are stored in HTML5 local storage so don't carry optional data while a thin desktop client would be able to store (and work with) more data. To achieve this a model will implement the different interfaces that define which data fields should be serialized and there will be a controller specific to the interface. The problem is that the Web API always serializes every field in the model even if it is not part of the interface being returned. How can we only serialize fields in the returned interface?

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  • Replace relative urls to absolute

    - by Rocky Singh
    I have the html source of a page in a form of string with me: <html> <head> <link rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" href="/css/all.css" /> </head> <body> <a href="/test.aspx">Test</a> <a href="http://mysite.com">Test</a> <img src="/images/test.jpg"/> <img src="http://mysite.com/images/test.jpg"/> </body> </html> I want to convert all the relative paths to absolute. I want the output be: <html> <head> <link rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" href="http://mysite.com/css/all.css" /> </head> <body> <a href="http://mysite.com/test.aspx">Test</a> <a href="http://mysite.com">Test</a> <img src="http://mysite.com/images/test.jpg"/> <img src="http://mysite.com/images/test.jpg"/> </body> </html> Note: I want only the relative paths to be converted to absolute ones in that string. The absolute ones which are already in that string should not be touched, they are fine to me as they are already absolute. Can this be done by regex or other means?

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  • How do i configure optional flags in MVC 1.0 routes

    - by Thomas Jespersen
    I want to configure a route with optional flags. E.g. I want to be able to call the products page and send optional filters (flags) for offers and in stock options. If the flags are NOT specified then all products should be returned. http://localhost/products http://localhost/products/onlyOnOffer http://localhost/products/onlyInStock http://localhost/products/onlyInStock/onlyOnOffer [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Get)] public ActionResult GetProducts(bool onlyInStock, bool onlyOnOffer) { //... } How would I configure the route? Is it even possible in MVC 1.0? What about MVC 2.0.

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  • Fastest method for SQL Server inserts, updates, selects

    - by Ian
    I use SPs and this isn't an SP vs code-behind "Build your SQL command" question. I'm looking for a high-throughput method for a backend app that handles many small transactions. I use SQLDataReader for most of the returns since forward only works in most cases for me. I've seen it done many ways, and used most of them myself. Methods that define and accept the stored procedure parameters as parameters themselves and build using cmd.Parameters.Add (with or without specifying the DB value type and/or length) Assembling your SP params and their values into an array or hashtable, then passing to a more abstract method that parses the collection and then runs cmd.Parameters.Add Classes that represent tables, initializing the class upon need, setting the public properties that represent the table fields, and calling methods like Save, Load, etc I'm sure there are others I've seen but can't think of at the moment as well. I'm open to all suggestions.

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  • Why would a error get thrown inside my try-catch?

    - by George Johnston
    I'm pushing a copy of our application over to a new dev server (IIS7) and the application is blowing up on a line inside of a try-catch block. It doesn't happen locally, it actually obey's the rules of a try-catch block, go figure. Any idea why this would be happening? Shouldn't it just be failing silently? Is there something environmental I need to enable/disable? Exception Details: System.NullReferenceException: Object reference not set to an instance of an object. Line 229: Try Line 230: Here >> : _MemoryStream.Seek(6 * StartOffset, 0) Line 232: _MemoryStream.Read(_Buffer, 0, 6) Line 233: Catch ex As IOException End Try Although it doesn't matter for answering this question, I thought I would mention that it's third party code for the Geo IP lookup.

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  • How can you block access form internet explorer in asp mvc

    - by Chase Aucoin
    I love microsoft development products! I hate microsoft browsers... I have made the decision to cut ties with internet explorer until they add support for some common W3 approved items. Namely 'multiple' in forms as well as about 5 other things... and as such I would like to urge my visitors to use a better browser. is there a way to setup an http handler or perhaps something in the asax file to route all ie users to a custom page? Thanks for the help! p.s. microsoft why must you make me love you and hate you.

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  • Read http body and put it into variables.

    - by Khou
    how do you create a class to read the html body and phase it into a variable? Example the page http://domain.com/page1.aspx display the following plaintext within the html body content item1=xyz&item2=abc&item3=jkl how do you read content of the html body and assign them to a variables in this case variable1=xyz (value taken from item1=) variable2=abc (value taken from item2=) variable3=jkl (value taken from item3=)?

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  • Counting words in a collection using LINQ

    - by icemanind
    Guys, I have a StringCollection object with 5 words in them. 3 of them are duplicate words. I am trying to create a LINQ query that will count how many unique words are in the collection and output them to to the console. So, for example, if my StringCollection has 'House', 'Car,'House','Dog', 'Cat', then it should output like this: House -- 2 Car -- 1 Dog -- 1 Cat -- 1 any ideas on how to create a LINQ query to do this?

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  • Multiple controls with the same ID 'xxx' were found

    - by swapna
    Hi, I have a enterprise application converted from VS2003 to vs2005 . The converted application, in one page i do edit and save i am getting this error. 'Multiple controls with the same ID 'hidWIPID0' were found But the same work fine in the code of vs2003 version without any error. Its a huge application with dynamic master pages and usercontrols etc..So i cant paste the exact code here. But the origin of the error is master page content control. eg: page code MasterPageStrategy:Content id="pnlMain" Error Multiple controls with the same ID 'hidWIPID0' were found View Source MasterPage:pnlMain:_ctl2:hidWIPID0 I Microsoft support there is an article explaining the same issue.But it applies to 1.1 version. I have already converted code in 2.0 version and the error appears in convertd code. http://support.microsoft.com/kb/834608 someone please look into this issue and provide me a solution as it is very urgent. Thanks SNA

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  • C# myths about best practices?

    - by TheMachineCharmer
    My colleague keeps telling me of the things listed in comments. I am confused. Can somebody please demystify these things for me? class Bar { private int _a; public int A { get { return _a; } set { _a = value; } } private Foo _objfoo; public Foo OFoo { get { return _objfoo; } set { _objfoo = value; } } public Bar(int a, Foo foo) { // this is a bad idea A = a; OFoo = foo; } // MYTHS private void Method() { this.A //1 - this._a //2 - use this when inside the class e.g. if(this._a == 2) A //3 - use this outside the class e.g. barObj.A _a //4 - // Not using this.xxx creates threading issues. } } class Foo { // implementation }

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  • C# delegate or Func for 'all methods'?

    - by Michel
    Hi, i've read something about Func's and delegates and that they can help you to pass a method as a parameter. Now i have a cachingservice, and it has this declaration: public static void AddToCache<T>(T model, double millisecs, string cacheId) where T : class public static T GetFromCache<T>(string cacheId) where T : class So in a place where i want to cache some data, i check if it exists in the cache (with GetFromCache) and if not, get the data from somewhere, and the add it to the cache (with AddToCache) Now i want to extend the AddToCache method with a parameter, which is the class+method to call to get the data Then the declaration would be like this public static void AddToCache<T>(T model, double millisecs, string cacheId, Func/Delegate methode) where T : class Then this method could check wether the cache has data or not, and if not, get the data itself via the method it got provided. Then in the calling code i could say: AddToCache<Person>(p, 10000, "Person", new PersonService().GetPersonById(1)); AddToCache<Advert>(a, 100000, "Advert", new AdvertService().GetAdverts(3)); What i want to achieve is that the 'if cache is empty get data and add to cache' logic is placed on only one place. I hope this makes sense :) Oh, by the way, the question is: is this possible?

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  • Web Deployment Projects tool and Web application project

    - by SourceC
    Hello, Q1 - As far as I know, Visual Studio doesn’t use aspnet_compiler.exe when compiling web application projects. And since Web Deployment Projects (WDP) tool is only used for manipulation the output created by aspnet_compiler.exe, I don’t understand how VS 2008 also has an option for using WDP with web application projects?! Q2 - What is a stock project? thanx EDIT: So I was right about the fact that Visual Studio doesn’t use aspnet_compiler.exe when compiling web application projects? much appreciated

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  • Multiple Concurrent Postbacks when using UpdatePanels

    - by d4nt
    Here's an example app that I built to demonstrate my problem. A single aspx page with the following on it: <form id="form1" runat="server"> <asp:ScriptManager runat="server" /> <asp:Button runat="server" ID="btnGo" Text="Go" OnClick="btnGo_Click" /> <asp:UpdatePanel runat="server"> <ContentTemplate> <asp:TextBox runat="server" ID="txtVal1" /> </ContentTemplate> </asp:UpdatePanel> </form> Then, in code behind, we have the following: protected void btnGo_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { Thread.Sleep(5000); Debug.WriteLine(string.Format("{0}: {1}", DateTime.Now.ToString("HH:MM:ss.fffffff"), txtVal1.Text)); txtVal1.Text = ""; } If you run this and click on the "Go" button multiple times you will see multiple debug statements on the "Output" window showing that multiple requests have been processed. This appears to contradict the documented behaviour of update panels (i.e. If you make a request while one is processing, the first requests gets terminated and the current one is processed). Anyway, the point is I want to fix it. The obvious option would be to use Javascript to disable the button after the first press, but that strikes me as hard to maintain, we potentially have the same issue on a lot of screens it could be easily broken if someone renames a button. Do you have any suggestions? Perhaps there is something I could do in BeginRequest in Global.asax to detect a duplicate request? Is there some setting or feature on the UpdatePanel to stop it doing this, or maybe something in the AjaxControlToolkit that will prevent it?

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  • How to display some data differnetly than it is stored.

    - by Ben
    Hello, I seem to have a problem that I can't find a solution for. I have a table that has this format. projectId | departmentId | plan | ETC | month | year | ID But, I need to find a way to take that data and display it like this. Since this is my first time here I can't upload an image, but you can view it here. http://img85.imageshack.us/img85/8253/image004y.png Is this something a gridview can handle, or a repeater, or something else? Thank you. Ben

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  • Change panel "visible" property on MasterPage from Child pages

    - by Vitor Reis
    I want to show some panel with a label that is located on a MasterPage from inside it's child pages.. I already did the coding on the MasterPage: public class MyMaster : MasterPage { public void ShowPanel(string pMessage) { labelInside.Text = pMessage; myPanel.visible = true; } } Then I make the calls from child pages: public void ShowPanel(string pMessage) { MyMaster masterPage = this.Master as MyMaster; masterPage.ShowPanel(pMessage); } This "works" ok, but it won't show nothing, since I need the page to be "refreshed" in an "ajax-way" like an UpdatePanel, which I can't use because the Trigger is in another page, right? I really need this to work.. even if you have another completely different way to do this, I would appreciate.

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  • Howto write a class where a property can be accessed without naming it.

    - by SchlaWiener
    I have a (dump) question regarding VB/C# I often use third party classes where I can access a child object with only specifying the id or key. Example: Instead of writing: DataRow row = GetAPopulatedDataRowSomeWhere(); Object result = row.Items[1]; // DataRow has no Items property Object result = row.Items["colName"]; // Also not possible I use this code to access the members: DataRow row = GetAPopulatedDataRowSomeWhere(); Object result = row[1]; Object result = row["colName"]; Can someone tell me how a class has to look like to support this syntax? My own class has a Dictionary that I want to access this way. MyClass["key"]; // <- that's what I want MyClass.SubItems["key"]; // <- that's how I use it now

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  • How do I combine MVCContrib's "Rescue" with Elmah?

    - by Chris
    I got the Rescue attribute working. It properly serves up the DefaultError view when there is an unhandled exception. However, these exceptions will not get logged or emailed. This SO question is answered by Atif Aziz and it looks pretty solid, but it applies to the built-in HandleErrorAttribute, which Rescue replaces, right? How do I get that to work with Rescue? I want to make sure that if an unhandled exception arises, that the user gets served up the view specified with the Rescue attribute, but the exception is still properly logged, and viewable with elmah.axd.

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  • What's the best way to validate EntityFramwork 4.0 classes?

    - by lsb
    Hi! I've done a fair amount of searching but I've yet to find an easy way to validate EntityFramework 4.0 entities passed accross the wire via WCF Data Services. Basically, I want to do something on the client like: Proxy.MyEntities entities = new Proxy.MyEntities( new Uri("http://localhost:2679/Service.svc")); Proxy.Vendor vendor = new Proxy.Vendor(); vendor.Code = "ABC/XYZ"; vendor.Status = "ACTIVE"; // I'd like to do something like the following: vendor.Validate(); entities.AddToVendors(vendor); entities.SaveChanges(); Any help in this regard would be greatly appreciated!

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  • Updating a gridview based on dundas chart callback

    - by Daud
    I have a dundas pie chart which when clicked issues a client callback which updates another chart associated with it. Basically its like a drill down thing. I also want to update my gridview based on the user's selection of the pie. But since the update of chart is being done using dundas client callback I'm unable to rebind my Gridview. Is there any way to do it? .

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  • to change the style of div

    - by ramyatk06
    hi guys, I have 2 buttons and 2 divs div1 and div2.On click button1 div1 is made visible and div2 invisible,On clicking button2 div2 is made visible and div1 is invisible. For that i used javascript. function showdiv2() { document.getElementById("div2").style.visibility="visible"; document.getElementById("div2").style.display="inline"; document.getElementById("div1").style.visibility="hidden"; document.getElementById("div1").style.display = "none"; document.getElementById("lbl_msg").innerHTML = "" } function showdiv1() { document.getElementById("div1").style.visibility="visible"; document.getElementById("div1").style.display="inline"; document.getElementById("div2").style.visibility="hidden"; document.getElementById("div2").style.display = "none"; document.getElementById("lbl_msg").innerHTML = "" } In div2 i have a gridview in which i have a linkbutton named lnkDelete.In its click control is going to div1.In click of lnkDelete,i want to make div1 invisible,but on clicking button1 div1 should be visible.Can anybody help to make div1 invisible in clickevent of lnkDelete in codebehind?

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