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• Stopping cookies being set from a domain (aka "cookieless domain") to increase site performance

  - by Django Reinhardt

  I was reading in Google's documentation about improving site speed. One of their recommendations is serving static content (images, css, js, etc.) from a "cookieless domain": Static content, such as images, JS and CSS files, don't need to be accompanied by cookies, as there is no user interaction with these resources. You can decrease request latency by serving static resources from a domain that doesn't serve cookies. Google then says that the best way to do this is to buy a new domain and set it to point to your current one: To reserve a cookieless domain for serving static content, register a new domain name and configure your DNS database with a CNAME record that points the new domain to your existing domain A record. Configure your web server to serve static resources from the new domain, and do not allow any cookies to be set anywhere on this domain. In your web pages, reference the domain name in the URLs for the static resources. This is pretty straight forward stuff, except for the bit where it says to "configure your web server to serve static resources from the new domain, and do not allow any cookies to be set anywhere on this domain". From what I've read, there's no setting in IIS that allows you to say "serve static resources", so how do I prevent ASP.NET from setting cookies on this new domain? At present, even if I'm just requesting a .jpg from the new domain, it sets a cookie on my browser, even though our application's cookies are set to our old domain. For example, ASP.NET sets an ".ASPXANONYMOUS" cookie that (as far as I'm aware) we're not telling it to do. Apologies if this is a real newb question, I'm new at this! Thanks.

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• What's the SQL function for timestamp manipulation?

  - by Eric Leroy

  I'm new to SQL and the time functions are different than mySQL so I'm having a terrible time finding a good site reference with USEFUL timestamp queries. I'm not able to locate the correct way of doing this query in SQL: Id Timestamp ----------------------------------- 1145744 2012-10-10 18:15:11.500 1145743 2012-10-10 18:15:11.313 1145742 2012-10-10 18:15:11.313 1145741 2012-10-10 18:15:11.253 1145740 2012-10-10 18:15:11.190 1145739 2012-10-10 18:15:11.190 1145738 2012-10-10 18:15:11.127 1145737 2012-10-10 18:15:11.067 1145736 2012-10-10 18:15:11.063 1145735 2012-10-10 18:15:10.940 1145734 2012-10-10 18:15:10.817 SELECT * from table WHERE Timestamp ... RANGE I need the range of 2 timestamps so I can select rows by the following parameters: second range minute range hour range day range week range month range year range Is there one function to put in 2 timestamps and get the range? or is this a mix of functions I need? Any good site references would be greatly appriceated. MSDN site isn't helping me isolate the proper way of doing this. I've been searching for about an hour trying to get the last day from 1:30PM to 1:30PM today.

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• Load some data from database and hide it somewhere in a web page

  - by kwokwai

  Hi all, I am trying to load some data (which may be up to a few thousands words) from the database, and store the data somewhere in a html web page for comparing the data input by users. I am thinking to load the data to a Textarea under Div tag and hide the the data: <Div id="reference" style="Display:none;"> <textarea rows="2" cols="20" id="database"> html, htm, php, asp, jsp, aspx, ctp, thtml, xml, xsl... </textarea> </Div> <table border=0 width="100%"> <tr> <td>Username</td> <td> <div id="username"> <input type="text" name="data" id="data"> </div> </td> </tr> </table> <script> $(document).ready(function(){ //comparing the data loaded from database with the user's input if($("#data").val()==$("#database").val()) {alert("error");} }); </script> I am not sure if this is the best way to do it, so could you give me some advice and suggest your methods please.

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• How do the operators < and > work with pointers?

  - by Øystein

  Just for fun, I had a std::list of const char*, each element pointing to a null-terminated text string, and ran a std::list::sort() on it. As it happens, it sort of (no pun intended) did not sort the strings. Considering that it was working on pointers, that makes sense. According to the documentation of std::list::sort(), it (by default) uses the operator < between the elements to compare. Forgetting about the list for a moment, my actual question is: How do these (, <, =, <=) operators work on pointers in C++ and C? Do they simply compare the actual memory addresses? char* p1 = (char*) 0xDAB0BC47; char* p2 = (char*) 0xBABEC475; e.g. on a 32-bit, little-endian system, p1 p2 because 0xDAB0BC47 0xBABEC475? Testing seems to confirm this, but I thought it'd be good to put it on StackOverflow for future reference. C and C++ both do some weird things to pointers, so you never really know...

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• Is it possible to navigate to the parent node of a matched node during XSLT processing?

  - by Darin

  I'm working with an OpenXML document, processing the main document part with some XSLT. I've selected a set of nodes via <xsl:template match="w:sdt"> </xsl:template> In most cases, I simply need to replace that matched node with something else, and that works fine. BUT, in some cases, I need to replace not the w:sdt node that matched, but the closest w:p ancestor node (ie the first paragraph node that contains the sdt node). The trick is that the condition used to decide one or the other is based on data derived from the attributes of the sdt node, so I can't use a typical xslt xpath filter. I'm trying to do something like this <xsl:template match="w:sdt"> <xsl:choose> <xsl:when test={first condition}> {apply whatever templating is necessary} </xsl:when> <xsl:when test={exception condition}> <!-- select the parent of the ancestor w:p nodes and apply the appropriate templates --> <xsl:apply-templates select="(ancestor::w:p)/.." mode="backout" /> </xsl:when> </xsl:choose> </xsl:template> <!-- by using "mode", only this template will be applied to those matching nodes from the apply-templates above --> <xsl:template match="node()" mode="backout"> {CUSTOM FORMAT the node appropriately} </xsl:template> This whole concept works, BUT no matter what I've tried, It always applies the formatting from the CUSTOM FORMAT template to the w:p node, NOT it's parent node. It's almost as if you can't reference a parent from a matching node. And maybe you can't, but I haven't found any docs that say you can't Any ideas?

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• how to share a variable between two threads

  - by prmatta

  I just inherited some code, two threads within this code need to perform a system task. One thread should do the system task before the other thread. They should not be performing the system task together. The two threads do not have references to each other. Now, I know I can use some sort of a semaphore to achieve this. But my question is what is the right way to get both threads to access this semaphore. I could create a static variable/method a new class : public class SharedSemaphore { private static Semaphore s = new Semaphore (1, true); public static void performSystemTask () { s.acquire(); } public static void donePerformingSystemTask() { s.release(); } } This would work (right?) but this doesn't seem like the right thing to do. Because, the threads now have access to a semaphore, without ever having a reference to it. This sort of thing doesn't seem like a good programming practice. Am I wrong?

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• Presenting collection of structures of strings in grid or similar in WPF - Example? Ideas?

  - by Andrew

  Hi, I have a collection of structures. The structure is just some strings. Example public struct ReportLine { public string Name; public string Address; public string Phone; ...// about 10 other strings } I can't change this part. What I want to do is display it in a simple grid or simlar in WPF. My only requirements are: a) need column headers b) rows must alternate in color c) columns big enough to hold largest datum (which is not know until run time) Can someone point me to an example to get me started? Is the GridView the way to go? Or DataGrid? Or perhaps just the grid? I have the book Pro WPF in C# 2008 and it covers binding ListBox's to collections, but the collections always seem to be collections of one field (ex. a collection of 40 names). Here I have a collection (an array in fact) of a structure. How do I setup the databinding? As you can see, I'm new to this and probably would most benefit from a reference to an article. I've found articles covering collections of 1 field, but no examples covering binding to an array of structures. Also, my intitial research indicates c) can't be easily done, if you demand that the column is big enough for all the data in that column, not just the visible data. Thanks, dave

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• jQuery's draggable grid

  - by Art

  It looks like that the 'grid' option in the constructor of Draggable is relatively bound to the original coordinates of the element being dragged - so simply put, if you have three draggable divs with their top set respectively to 100, 200, 254 pixels relative to their parent: <div class="parent-div" style="position: relative;"> <div id="div1" class="draggable" style="top: 100px; position: absolute;"></div> <div id="div2" class="draggable" style="top: 200px; position: absolute;"></div> <div id="div3" class="draggable" style="top: 254px; position: absolute;"></div> </div> Adn all of them are getting enabled for dragging with 'grid' set to [1, 100]: draggables = $('.draggable'); $.each(draggables, function(index, elem) { $(elem).draggable({ containment: $('#parent-div'), opacity: 0.7, revert: 'invalid', revertDuration: 300, grid: [1, 100], refreshPositions: true }); }); Problem here is that as soon as you drag div3, say, down, it's top is increased by 100, moving it to 354px instead of being increased by just mere 46px (254 + 46 = 300), which would get it to the next stop in the grid - 300px, if we are looking at the parent-div as a point of reference and "grid holder". I had a look at the draggable sources and it seem to be an in-built flaw - they just do all the calculations relative to the original position of the draggable element. I would like to avoid monkey-patching the code of draggable library and what I am really looking for here is the way how to make the Draggable calculate the grid positions relative to containing parent. However if monkey-patching is unavoidable, I guess I'll have to live with it. Thanks!

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• ASP.NET MVC (VB) error when publishing to test server

  - by Colin

  I have an ASP.NET MVC project that works fine on my local machine (no build errors, server errors or anything). However, when I publish the project to a test server, I get an "Object reference not set to an instance of an object" error on a For Each I have in my view. I have a function within a model that returns a DataRowCollection. I'm calling that function in my controller and passing the DataRowCollection to my View, which then iterates over the rows and displays the necessary information: In the Controller I have: Function Index() As ActionResult Dim MyModel As New Model ViewData("MyDataRowCollection") = MyModel.GetDataRowCollection() Return View() End Function And then in the View, which is throwing the error: <%@ Page Language="VB" MasterPageFile="~/Views/Shared/Site.Master" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewPage" %> <asp:Content ID="indexTitle" ContentPlaceHolderID="TitleContent" runat="server"> My Page Title </asp:Content> <asp:Content ID="indexContent" ContentPlaceHolderID="MainContent" runat="server"> <% For Each MyDataRow In ViewData("MyDataRowCollection") ' do stuff with each MyDataRow Next %> I'm pretty new to ASP.NET MVC so I'm sure there might be a better way to do what I'm doing (I'd be happy to hear if there is), but my main concern is why this works fine on my local machine but throws an error on the For Each on the test server? Please let me know if I can clarify any of the above, and thanks in advance for any information.

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• GWT - problems with constants in css

  - by hba

  Hi, I'm new to GWT; I'm building a small sample app. I have several CSS files. I'm able to successfully use the ClientBundle and CssResource to assign styles to the elements defined in my UiBinder script. Now I'd like to take it one step further and introduce CSS constants using @def css-rule. The @def works great when I define a constant and use it in the same CSS file. However I cannot use it in another CSS file. When I try to use the @eval rule to evaluate an existing constant the compiler throws an execption: "cannot make a static reference to the non-static method ". Here is an example of what I'm trying to do: ConstantStyle.css @def BACKGROUND red; ConstantStyle.java package abc; import ...; interface ConstantStyle extends cssResource { String BACKGROUND(); } MyStyle.css @eval BACKGROUND abc.ConstantStyle.BACKGROUND(); .myClass {background-color: BACKGROUND;} MyStyle.java package abc; import ...; interface ConstantStyle extends cssResource { String myClass; } MyResources.java package abc; import ...; interface MyResources extends ClientBundle { @Source("ConstantStyle.css") ConstantStyle constantStyle(); @Source("MyStyle.css") MyStyle myStyle(); } Thanks in advance!

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• A Newbie question regarding Software Development

  - by Sharif

  Hi, I'm going to complete my B.pharm (Hons.) degree and, you know, I don't have much knowledge about programing. I was wondering to build a software on my own. Could you guys tell me what to learn first for that? Is it too hard for a student of other discipline to build a software? Let me know please. The software I want to make is like a dictionary (or more specifically like "Physician's Desk Reference"). It should find the generic name, company name, indication, price etc. of a drug when I enter the brand name and vice versa. To build a software like that what programing language could help me most and what (and how many) language should I learn first? In my country, there is no practice of Community pharmacy (most of the pharmacy stores are run by unskilled people), that's why this type of thing could help them sell drugs. Would you please tell me what I'm to do and how tough it is? I'm very keen to learn programming. Thanks in advance NB: I started this post in ASKREDDIT section but it seems that was not the right place for poll type question, so I post it again in this section

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• A typical mysql query( how to use subquery column into main query)

  - by I Like PHP

  I HAVE TWO TABLES shown below table_joining id join_id(PK) transfer_id(FK) unit_id transfer_date joining_date 1 j_1 t_1 u_1 2010-06-05 2010-03-05 2 j_2 t_2 u_3 2010-05-10 2010-03-10 3 j_3 t_3 u_6 2010-04-10 2010-01-01 4 j_5 NULL u_3 NULL 2010-06-05 5 j_6 NULL u_4 NULL 2010-05-05 table_transfer id transfer_id(PK) pastUnitId futureUnitId effective_transfer_date 1 t_1 u_3 u_1 2010-06-05 2 t_2 u_6 u_1 2010-05-10 3 t_3 u_5 u_3 2010-04-10 now i want to know total employee detalis( using join_id) which are currently working on unit u_3 . means i want only join_id j_1 (has transfered but effective_transfer_date is future date, right now in u_3) j_2 ( tansfered and right now in `u_3` bcoz effective_transfer_date has been passed) j_6 ( right now in `u_3` and never transfered) what i need to take care of below steps( as far as i know ) <1> first need to check from table_joining whether transfer_id is NULL or not <2> if transfer_id= is NULL then see unit_id=u_3 where joining_date <=CURDATE() ( means that person already joined u_3) <3> if transfer_id is NOT NULL then go to table_transfer using transfer_id (foreign key reference) <4> now see the effective_transfer_date regrading that transfer_id whether effective_transfer_date<=CURDATE() <5> if transfer date has been passed(means transfer has been done) then return futureUnitID otherwise return pastUnitID i used two separate query but don't know how to join those query?? for step <1 ans <2 SELECT unit_id FROM table_joining WHERE joining_date<=CURDATE() AND transfer_id IS NULL AND unit_id='u_3' for step<5 SELECT IF(effective_transfer_date <= CURDATE(),futureUnitId,pastUnitId) AS currentUnitID FROM table_transfer // here how do we select only those rows which have currentUnitID='u_3' ?? please guide me the process?? i m just confused with JOINS. i think using LEFT JOIN can return the data i need, or if we use subquery value to main query? but i m not getting how to implement ...please help me. Thanks for helping me alwayz

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• Why does grails use hsqldb when I ask for mysql?

  - by John

  I'm following the racetrack example from Jason Rudolph's book at InfoQ, using grails-1.2.1. I got up to the part where I was to switch from hsqldb to mysql. I think I've deleted every reference to hsqldb in the DataSource.groovy file, but I get an exception and the stack trace shows it's still using hsqldb. DataSource.groovy dataSource { boolean pooled = true String driverClassName = "com.mysql.jdbc.Driver" String url = "jdbc:mysql://localhost/dfpc2" String dbCreate = "create" String username = "dfpc2" String password = "dfpc2" dialect = org.hibernate.dialect.MySQL5InnoDBDialect } hibernate { cache.use_second_level_cache=true cache.use_query_cache=true cache.provider_class='net.sf.ehcache.hibernate.EhCacheProvider' } // environment specific settings environments { development { } test { } production { } } When I grails run-app it all starts up with no errors. I can navigate to the home page. But when I click on one of the links, I get a stack trace: java.sql.SQLException: Table not found in statement [select this_.id as id0_0_, this_.version as version0_0_, this_.name as name0_0_, this_.variant as variant0_0_ from domainObject this_ limit ?] at org.hsqldb.jdbc.Util.throwError(Unknown Source) at org.hsqldb.jdbc.jdbcPreparedStatement.<init>(Unknown Source) at org.hsqldb.jdbc.jdbcConnection.prepareStatement(Unknown Source) at dfpc2.domainObjectController$_closure2.doCall(script1269434425504953491149.groovy:13) at dfpc2.domainObjectController$_closure2.doCall(script1269434425504953491149.groovy) at java.lang.Thread.run(Thread.java:619) My mysql database shows no tables created. (I don't think groovy's connected to mysql yet.) Things I've checked: mysql-connector-java-5.1.6.jar is in lib directory. I've tried grails clean I tried putting the dataSource info in the development environment (I haven't graduated to test or prod yet), but it seemed to make no difference. The stdout shows I'm using development env. I've googled for solutions, but the only solution I've found is when people don't change the test or production environments.

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• SQL Server error handling: exceptions and the database-client contract

  - by gbn

  We’re a team of SQL Servers database developers. Our clients are a mixed bag of C#/ASP.NET, C# and Java web services, Java/Unix services and some Excel. Our client developers only use stored procedures that we provide and we expect that (where sensible, of course) they treat them like web service methods. Some our client developers don’t like SQL exceptions. They understand them in their languages but they don’t appreciate that the SQL is limited in how we can communicate issues. I don’t just mean SQL errors, such as trying to insert “bob” into a int column. I also mean exceptions such as telling them that a reference value is wrong, or that data has already changed, or they can’t do this because his aggregate is not zero. They’d don’t really have any concrete alternatives: they’ve mentioned that we should output parameters, but we assume an exception means “processing stopped/rolled back. How do folks here handle the database-client contract? Either generally or where there is separation between the DB and client code monkeys. Edits: we use SQL Server 2005 TRY/CATCH exclusively we log all errors after the rollback to an exception table already we're concerned that some of our clients won't check output paramaters and assume everything is OK. We need errors flagged up for support to look at. everything is an exception... the clients are expected to do some message parsing to separate information vs errors. To separate our exceptions from DB engine and calling errors, they should use the error number (ours are all 50,000 of course)

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• Const_cast on a this pointer - would I get told off by other C++ coders for doing this?

  - by BeeBand

  I have a class Game e.g. class Game { public: InitObjects(); ... }; And I have another class Grid, that needs to be initialised with a non-const reference to that Game object. ( A Grid object needs to call functions that can update a Game object ). class Grid { public: Grid(Game & g): game(g){} ... private: Game & game; ... }; The Game object is responsible for initialising the Grid. I did this: void Game::InitObjects() { grid = new Grid(*(const_cast<Game*>(this)) ); } grid is not a member of a Game - it's a global ( argh - i know... I don't mind making it a member, but I have the same problem right? ). Can some seasoned C++ folk tell me if this odd looking const_cast is acceptable?

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• How to access widgets created within functions in later function calls in Qt

  - by Inanepenguin

  So currently I have code, in C++, that creates a few QLabels, a QLineEdit, and a QCheckBox when a selection is made from a QComboBox. However, I would like to be able to access the widgets I have created in a later function to destroy them if a new selection is made from the combo box. I am able to access the objects created from using the Designer by doing ui-Object but i am not able to do that with objects created by using my own code. Can I do that some how, because I know how to work with that. In short, I would like to be able to dynamically create/destroy QWidgets based on selections made by the user. Is there a reference I should know of to do this, or any documentation? Or am I just completely going about this the wrong way? Here is the code I presently have for creating the objects: if (eventType == QString::fromStdString("Birthday")) { QLabel *label1 = new QLabel ("Celebrant: "); QLabel *label2 = new QLabel ("Surprise: "); QLineEdit *lineEdit = new QLineEdit; QCheckBox *box = new QCheckBox; ui->gridLayout->addWidget(label1,3,0,1,1, 0); ui->gridLayout->addWidget(label2,4,0,1,1,0); ui->gridLayout->addWidget(lineEdit,3,1,1,1,0); ui->gridLayout->addWidget(box,4,1,1,2,0); }

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• adding a token onto a webservice or wcf call

  - by duncanUK

  I have an httphandler which I am using to log the http soap request and response for each webservice that is called from my application as a comms log. i would like to inject a token ont he 1st call (possibly the 1st call to invoke the service that is being logged) and then be able to track all subsequent webservice calls run in the same context with this token so i can tie the subsequent calls back up to the original call. so for example. main webservice -> 2nd web service -> another web service [token] [token] [token] -> nth web service [token] I would like to inject the token on the first call to the main webservice (http handler checks if no token, add it), I would like to use the same http handler to intercept each call to the subsequent webservices and pass on the token if it exists already (the job of the httphandler is to log the in/out soap with the token to reference with. I have managed to inject the first token, but my problem is how do I add the token on the subsequent calls.. can I make it stick on the same context or session? My worry is that when we call a new webservice, we create a whole new proxy/http request which will not inhrit the token... or will it?! Ideally I would like it to persist on the http header as I am setting the token as a header at the moment? has anyone got any ideas or a better way of doing this? I would be most greatful for you comments!

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• VS 2008 debugger: How does it decide what Cassini port to run a web service under?

  - by BDW

  I have a VS 2008 solution that includes a web site and a web service. I'm developing both at once, and it's helpful to be able to debug from one into the other. It occasionally can't find the web service. If I look in the web.config, I find the port number it's looking at is not the port number it auto-runs the service in when I use the debugger. For example, the web.config reference says something like: add key="mynamespace.mywebservice" value="http://localhost:55765/mywebservice.asmx" When I hover over the Cassini port icon, I find that the web service is running in port 55382 (or some other non-55765 port). No wonder it can't find it. Is there a way to enforce that the port number it runs under is the one specified in the web config? And if it's not using the web config port number to figure out where to run it... where does it decide? I know in VS2005, there was a way to specify the port number to use when debugging, but I can't find that anywhere in the web service project in VS 2008. This is really going to cause problems as more developers come on to this project - how can I fix it? Deleting and re-adding the web services to the project fixes it, but I'd literally have to do it a couple times a day, not an ideal solution.

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• asp.net MVC ActionMethod causing null exception on parameter

  - by David Liddle

  I am trying to add filter functionality that sends a GET request to the same page to filter records in my table. The problem I am having is that the textbox complains about null object reference when a parameter is not passed. For example, when the person first views the page the url is '/mycontroller/myaction/'. Then when they apply a filter and submit the form it should be something like 'mycontroller/myaction?name=...' Obviously the problem stems from when the name value has not been passed (null) it is still trying to be bound to the 'name' textbox. Any suggestions on what I should do regarding this problem? UPDATE I have tried setting the DefaultValue attribute but I am assuming this is only for route values and not query string values ActionResult MyAction([DefaultValue("")] string name) //Action - /mycontroler/myaction ActionResult MyAction(string name) { ...do stuff } //View <div id="filter"> <% Html.BeginForm("myaction", "mycontroller", FormMethod.Get); %> Name: <%= Html.TextBox("name") %> .... </div> <table>...my list of filtered data

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• bool as object vs string as object testing equality

  - by Ray Pendergraph

  I am relatively new to C# and I noticed something interesting today that I guess I have never noticed or perhaps I am missing something. Here is an NUnit test to give an example: object boolean1 = false; object booloan2 = false; Assert.That(boolean1 == booloan2); This unit test fails, but this one passes: object string1 = "string"; object string2 = "string"; Assert.That(string1 == string2); I'm not that surprised in and of itself that the first one fails seeing as boolean1 and boolean2 are different references. But it is troubling to me that the first one fails and the second one passes. I read (on MSDN somewhere) that some magic was done to the String class to facilitate this. I think my question really is why wasn't this behavior replicated in bool? As a note... if the boolean1 and 2 are declared as "bool" then there is no problem. Does anyone know the reason for these differences or why it was implemented that way? Can anyone think of a situation where you would want to reference a bool object for anything except its value?

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• How can I accelerate the generation of the an MD5 Checksum within vb.net?

  - by Richard

  I'm working with some very large files residing on P2 (Panasonic) cards. Part of the process we employ is to first generate a checksum of the file we are going to copy, then copy the file, then run a checksum on the file to confirm that it copied OK. The problem is, is that files are large (70 GB+) and take a long time to complete. It's an issue since we will eventually be dealing with thousands of these files. I would like to find a faster way to generate the checksum other than using the System.Security.Cryptography.MD5CryptoServiceProvider I don't care if this means using a specialized hardware card, provided it works and is not to ungodly expensive. I would prefer to have a method of encoding that provided some feedback as to how far the process has gone along so I can display it like I do now. The application is written in vb.net. I would prefer to be able to use it as component, library, reference within my application, but I'm willing to call an outside application if there is enough improvement in the speed of generating the checksum. Needless to say, the checksum must be consistent and correct. :-) Thank you in advance for your time and efforts, Richard

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• Compound Primary Key in Hibernate using Annotations

  - by Rich

  Hi, I have a table which uses two columns to represent its primary key, a transaction id and then the sequence number. I tried what was recommended http://docs.jboss.org/hibernate/stable/annotations/reference/en/html_single/#entity-mapping in section 2.2.3.2.2, but when I used the Hibernate session to commit this Entity object, it leaves out the TXN_ID field in the insert statement and only includes the BA_SEQ field! What's going wrong? Here's the related code excerpt: @Id @Column(name="TXN_ID") private long txn_id; public long getTxnId(){return txn_id;} public void setTxnId(long t){this.txn_id=t;} @Id @Column(name="BA_SEQ") private int seq; public int getSeq(){return seq;} public void setSeq(int s){this.seq=s;} And here are some log statements to show what exactly happens to fail: In createKeepTxnId of DAO base class: about to commit Transaction :: txn_id->90625 seq->0 ...<Snip>... Hibernate: insert into TBL (BA_ACCT_TXN_ID, BA_AUTH_SRVC_TXN_ID, BILL_SRVC_ID, BA_BILL_SRVC_TXN_ID, BA_CAUSE_TXN_ID, BA_CHANNEL, CUSTOMER_ID, BA_MERCHANT_FREETEXT, MERCHANT_ID, MERCHANT_PARENT_ID, MERCHANT_ROOT_ID, BA_MERCHANT_TXN_ID, BA_PRICE, BA_PRICE_CRNCY, BA_PROP_REQS, BA_PROP_VALS, BA_REFERENCE, RESERVED_1, RESERVED_2, RESERVED_3, SRVC_PROD_ID, BA_STATUS, BA_TAX_NAME, BA_TAX_RATE, BA_TIMESTAMP, BA_SEQ) values (?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?) [WARN] util.JDBCExceptionReporter SQL Error: 1400, SQLState: 23000 [ERROR] util.JDBCExceptionReporter ORA-01400: cannot insert NULL into ("SCHEMA"."TBL"."TXN_ID") The important thing to note is I print out the entity object which has a txn_id set, and then the following insert into statement does not include TXN_ID in the listing and thus the NOT NULL table constraint rejects the query.

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• ASP.NET MVC4: How do I keep from having multiple identical results in my lookup tables

  - by sehummel

  I'm new to ASP.NET so this may be an easy question. I'm seeding my database with several rows of dummy data. Here is one of my rows: new Software { Title = "Microsoft Office", Version = "2012", SerialNumber = "12346231434543", Platform = "PC", Notes = "Macs really rock!", PurchaseDate = "2011-12-04", Suite = true, SubscriptionEndDate = null, SeatCount = 0, SoftwareTypes = new List<SoftwareType> { new SoftwareType { Type="Suite" }}, Locations = new List<Location> { new Location { LocationName = "Paradise" }}, Publishers = new List<SoftwarePublisher> { new SoftwarePublisher { Publisher = "Microsoft" }}} But when I do this, a new row is created for each location, with the LocationName being set in each row like this. We only have two locations. How do I get it to create a LocationID property for the Software class and in my Locations class. Here is my Location class: public class Location { public int Id { get; set; } [Required] [StringLength(20)] public string LocationName { get; set; } public virtual Software Software { get; set; } } I have this line in my Software class to reference this table: public virtual List<Location> Locations { get; set; } Again, what I want when I am done is a Locations table with two entries, and a LocationID field in my Software table. How do I do this?

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• UINavigationController not working under ARC in iPhone

  - by user1811427

  I have creared a new project "Empty Application" template in Xcode 4.3, it is having only two classes AppDelegate.h & .m I cheaked with ARC to use automatic reference count while creating the app. I added two new files "RootViewController" & "NewProjectViewControllers". I implemented code to set navigation controller as follows in AppDelegate - (BOOL)application:(UIApplication *)application didFinishLaunchingWithOptions:(NSDictionary *)launchOptions { self.window = [[UIWindow alloc] initWithFrame:[[UIScreen mainScreen] bounds]]; // Override point for customization after application launch. rootViewController = [[MainViewController alloc] init]; UINavigationController *navigation = [[UINavigationController alloc] initWithRootViewController:rootViewController]; [self.window addSubview:navigation.view]; self.window.backgroundColor = [UIColor whiteColor]; [self.window makeKeyAndVisible]; return YES; } and in hte home view (Root view controller) implemented as follows - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; self.title = @"Projects"; UINavigationBar *navigationBar = [self.navigationController navigationBar]; [navigationBar setTintColor: [UIColor colorWithRed:10/255.0f green:21/255.0f blue:51/255.0f alpha:1.0f]]; //To set the customised bar item UIButton *rightBarBtn = [UIButton buttonWithType:UIButtonTypeCustom]; [rightBarBtn setBackgroundImage:[UIImage imageNamed:@"plus_new.png"] forState:UIControlStateNormal]; rightBarBtn.frame=CGRectMake(0.0, 100.0, 30.0, 30.0); [rightBarBtn addTarget:self action:@selector(addProject) forControlEvents:UIControlEventTouchUpInside]; UIBarButtonItem* rightBarItem = [[UIBarButtonItem alloc] initWithCustomView:rightBarBtn]; self.navigationItem.rightBarButtonItem = rightBarItem; // Do any additional setup after loading the view from its nib. } - (void) addProject { NewProjViewController *editProject = [[NewProjViewController alloc] init]; [self.navigationController pushViewController:editProject animated:YES]; NSLog(@"xxxxxxxxxxxxxxx"); } But since i used ARC the navigation may dealoc immediately and it doesn't work, All the actions in method works except push to the next view if i do same thing with out ARC it works fine How to resolve this issue..? Thanks in advance

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• Maven + SSDM Build and Runtime Environment Automation

  - by Randy

  Preface: My Company, like most, has several run-time environments and several release versions which themselves are composed of different versions of various jars. For example, let us consider release versions 1.1, 1.2, and 1.3 of Software X, which may be deployed to a developer computer, testing, or production. Software-x-1.1 is itself composed of jarA-0.9.1 and jarB-0.7.5, but software-x-1.3 is composed of jarA-1.7.31 and jarB-0.8.1. Currently we use Spring's PropertyPlaceholderConfigurer to configure run-time variables (such as database credentials), however, properties also change with release versions. We also use Maven 2 POM version 4 to specify which versions of our code need to be used. We place the version numbers of our jars as properties within profiles (dev,test,prod) inside of the parent pom and then reference those version numbers in all project poms. As of right now, we have no way to specify which project versions pertain to a given release other than the most current one. Moreover, we deploy our run-time configurations to the SSDM pickup which then configures and creates the services defined by the built versions of our software. -- Questions: Is there any procedure/tool we can use to build our product by merely providing the run-time environment and version number? IE "build 1.1 dev"? Is there anyway we can store the required jar versions for each release build? We are currently versioning all files, including the parent pom, but merely versioning the parent pom does not record which release version is pertinent to that parent pom. What else can we do to further automate the process of builds? For example, if we could manage run-time configurations within the parent pom that would be a step in the right direction, but that seems like a violation of scope. Any tool outside of our framework is inconceivable at this point, but not in the far future. Summary: How can we automate our build process to the fullest extent without being error prone?

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